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ASK THE RABBIArchive:![]() Search results for "Eating"Eating Charoset With Maror on PesachHow much charoset should one eat along with the maror?Although one can answer the question in a startling word or phrase, let us explain a little about the point of charoset before breaking the news. The mishna (Pesachim 114a) says: They brought before him matza, chazeret (maror), and charoset and two cooked foods, even though charoset is not a mitzva. Rabbi Elazar B’Rabbi Tzadok says: It is a mitzva.” The gemara (ibid. 116a) inquires what the point of this charoset is, according to both opinions. Let us deal with each possibility separately. If charoset is not a mitzva, it is brought because of the fear of kappa. There are two main opinions among Rishonim as to what kappa is. Rashi says that it is a venom-like substance in sharp vegetables. It is neutralized by the special taste or even smell of the charoset (see Pesachim 115b). Rabbeinu Chananel says that it is a type of potentially dangerous worm that grows on the chazeret and is killed by the charoset. Tosafot (115b) deals with the issue why it is only a health hazard and not a halachic one, as it is forbidden to eat worms. One possibility they raise is that it is the type of situation where the worm is considered a natural part of the vegetable and not included in the prohibition on small creatures. Another possibility is that the unlikelihood of kappa makes it halachically unnecessary, but they required it for health reasons anyway. Rav Tzvi Pesach Frank (Mikraei Kodesh, Pesach II, 50.2) inquires why we are more concerned about the remote health concern on Pesach than we are the rest of the year. According to the approach that charoset is a mitzva, the reason is as a remembrance, either of the tapuach tree (apparently not apple, contrary to popular opinion) or of mortar, each having historical significance regarding Bnei Yisrael’s stay in Egypt. Both may actually be true, as Abaye (116a) says that charoset should have both a “kick to it” because of the tapuach and thickness because of the mortar. Because of the historical connection, the minhagim to use fruit to which Bnei Yisrael are compared arose (see Rama, Orach Chayim 473:5). Any way you explain its purpose, the sources do not refer to a practice and certainly not a mitzva to eat the charoset along with the maror. Rather the maror is only supposed to be dipped in the charoset. [The Rambam (commentary to the aforementioned mishna) suggests that there was an opinion that one would make a beracha of “al achilat (eating of) charoset.” However, that is only according to Rabbi Elazar, and the Rambam says there that we do not pasken like him. In his halachic work, not only does the Rambam not mention the beracha, but he refers not to eating but to dipping into the charoset (Chametz U’Matza 8:8).] As a matter of fact, the gemara (115b) warns not to submerge the maror in charoset for too long because it may lose its bitter taste. The Ran (ad loc.) says that since it is only dipped in the charoset, there is not a problem of the charoset nullifying the taste of the maror the way we are concerned that maror would nullify matza. Therefore, it should not be a surprise that the Shulchan Aruch (Orach Chayim 475:1) says: “One must shake off the charoset from it [the maror].” This is not to say that any amount of charoset on the maror endangers the validity of the maror. Tosafot (Pesachim 114a) says that since charoset was instituted to be used with the maror, even if only for health reasons, it does not compromise the mitzva of maror. The Shulchan Aruch also does not say to clean off the maror, just to shake off charoset, to remove significant amounts. However, one should not spoon on charoset, only dip the maror in it. (The Mishna Berura 575:13 brings two opinions as to whether the whole thing should be submerged or it is sufficient to dip part of it.) If one wants to eat the charoset in a more serious manner than tasting some residue, he should do so during the meal or on another day of Pesach. Shmura Matza- Minhag or Halacha?Should I eat only shmurah matza all of Pesach? It seems that this is becoming an ever more popular minhag - or is it a halacha?This is indeed an issue that is a mix between halacha and minhag. The gemara (Pesachim 40a) says that one can eat on (the first night of) Pesach “dough of non-Jews,” which has been checked for leavening, as long as he eats a k’zayit of matza (i.e., shmurah matza) at the end. We see that the requirement of shmurah matza is fulfilled at the seder with a k’zayit. (Now the practice is to have five k’zeitim, but that issue is beyond our present scope). What is shmurah matza? The main opinions of Rishonim are that the flour/dough is watched to preclude the possibility of leavening either from the k’tzira (cutting of the stalk) or from the kneading, when it is exposed to water. The Shulchan Aruch (OC 453:4) rules that shmurah matza should be watched from the k’tzira, and this is the common practice. The simple reading of the gemara (ibid.) is that this vigilance to avoid leavening must be done for the express purpose of using the matza for the mitzva of eating it on seder night. The Rif’s version of the text requires only that it be done for the purpose of making matza, not necessarily for the purpose of the mitzva. It is noteworthy that even what we call non-shmurah is shmurah according to many Rishonim. The gemara (Pesachim 120a) derives from p’sukim that, other than on the night of the seder, the eating of matza on Pesach is a reshut (choice). The question remains if it is only a permitted option, as opposed to the forbidden chametz, or whether it is a non-obligatory mitzva opportunity. The Chizkuni (and arguably the Meiri also) was of the minority opinion that there is a positive mitzva fulfillment if one eats matza throughout Pesach. Thus, it may pay to eat shmurah matza to insure full benefit from this opportunity. Even if one holds that there is an optional mitzva throughout Pesach, it is unclear that this makes shmurah matza worthwhile. One has to also assume that the mitzva is to eat matza per se. (It might be that whenever you eat a grain product, you have to make sure it is not chametz.) You also have to assume that this weaker mitzva requires or is enhanced by the din of shmurah and that regular matza is insufficient. The Rambam (Chametz U’Matza 5:8), in discussing the concept of shmurah matza, does not differentiate between the first night and the rest of Pesach. The Aruch Hashulchan (OC 553:20) says that the Rambam holds that the issue of shmurah is that one should l’chatchila go beyond normal steps to insure that the matza is not leavened, but not because of the opportunity to fulfill a further mitzva. (This is consistent with the Rambam’s seeming agreement with the Rif that the vigilance does not require intention for the purpose of the mitzva.) The Chayei Adam (128:30) attributes this approach to the Gra. Although the Torah might have been adamant about this level of vigilance only on seder night, it is logical that it should apply on some level throughout Pesach, as the aveira of eating chametz is identical all seven days. An apparent difference between the reasons to prefer shmurah is whether those who demand hand matza (because a machine cannot have positive, mitzva intent) should not require it according to the Rambam’s approach. Another is whether one should aim to eat matza or make sure that (all) the matza he does eat is shmurah. In short, the hidur of shmurah matza is not a frivolous chumra. People spend money on all sorts of Pesach delicacies; why not spend on shmurah matza also? However, there are dangers in creating family minhagin, not knowing how things will end up. Do we want our children, who may not be able to afford so much shmurah matza, to feel compelled to buy it, when their grandparents did not? Will people refuse to eat at others’ homes because they eat regular matzot? So, while shmura matza for all of Pesach it is a reasonable chumra, it is very questionable whether one should adopt the minhag. Ice Cubes on ShabbatIs one allowed to make ice cubes on Shabbat?The mishna (Shabbat 51b) says that one may not crush snow to get water but can put it in a cup of water to melt in. There are three main explanations of the prohibition (see presentation in Beit Yosef, Orach Chayim 318). Rashi says that it resembles a melacha, as one directly creates a new object form. The Sefer Haterumah says that the problem is that the resulting water is nolad (a term meaning born, referring to a type of muktzeh). The Rambam places it under the category of the prohibition to squeeze fruit for juice. A practical difference between the explanations exists when one warms congealed fat so that it becomes gravy. The Sefer Haterumah forbids this too as nolad. However, the Beit Yosef says that most authorities permit it, and this is how he rules in the Shulchan Aruch (OC 318:16). The Rama (ad loc.) says the minhag is like the objecting, stringent opinion, while noting that one can be lenient in a case of need. The same disagreement should apply to putting ice in a warm place (not hot enough to be considered cooking) to melt (Mishna Berura 320:35). Most poskim’s point of departure is that the same machloket will also apply to the question of freezing water. If going from ice to water is changing an object, why should going from liquid to solid be any different? Therefore, for Sephardim, who follow the Shulchan Aruch, it should be permitted to make ice cubes on Shabbat, and for Ashkenazim, who follow the Rama, it should be permitted only in a case of need. However, some poskim distinguish between the cases in different ways. The Dovev Meisharim (I, 55) infers from the Ramban that the reason to allow melting ice is that ice itself is considered a form of water. He claims, though, that in relation to water, ice is a new thing, which, if created, is nolad/muktzeh. However, most poskim (see a partial list in Piskei Teshuvot 320:(14)) rejects this distinction and say that those who say that water melted from ice cubes is not nolad say one can make ice cubes in a freezer. It is also possible that the Rama, who is equivocal regarding melting fats, might permit outright making ice cubes. The Tzitz Eliezer (VI, 34) points out that there are two supportable ways to explain the Sefer Haterumah, the source of the Rama’s stringency. One is that the problem is that the water resulting from the melting is muktzeh, and it makes no difference what process created it. The other (Panim Meirot) is that the problem is that the process of putting fat near a fire is considered semi-actively turning solid into liquid. If that is the only problem, we could consider placing water in a freezer, where the process of freezing does not begin in earnest for a while, as too removed to be forbidden. Certainly, the Rambam’s logic regarding crushing snow, that it is similar to squeezing, does not apply to turning liquid into solid (Shulchan Shlomo 320:18). A consensus of poskim rejects the claim that creating ice is forbidden because it is similar to making cheese, which is an extension of building, for various reasons. First, building does not apply to water (Mishna Berura 320:36). Also, ice lasts only while it is kept cold and thus one has not built anything stable (see Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 10:(14) who sees this as a mitigating factor regarding nolad). In summary, Sephardim can freely make ice cubes in a freezer. Ashkenazim have ample reason to be lenient, and certainly when there is significant need (recent poskim nuance this compromise differently). If one does not plan to use the ice cubes on Shabbat, muktzeh is not a problem, but there is usually a problem of hachana (preparations for after Shabbat). Certainly, one may put a drink in the freezer to quickly cool it, as even if he forgets and it freezes, it is not such a problem. (Automatic ice makers, where electrical systems are a factor, are beyond our present scope.) Chazzan Repeating Tefilla to a TuneWhen I hear a chazzan repeating words to fit into tunes during tefilla, it upsets me. Am I correct to react that way?The mishna (Berachot 33b) says that one who says “Modim modim” is silenced. The reason is that he appears to be addressing two deities, k’vayachol. R. Zeira (gemara, ad loc.) extends this halacha to Shema. The gemara asks from a baraita that calls repeating Shema meguneh (derogatory), implying that we do not go as far as to silence him. The gemara answers that it depends whether one repeated the statement as a whole or word by word. Rashi explains that to utter a coherent statement twice in succession may be taken as addressing two deities; repeating each word twice “only” appears like a mockery, which is a less serious affront. The Rif learns the opposite: repeating words looks like speaking to two deities and repeating sentences is generally “only” derogatory. The Shulchan Aruch (Orach Chayim 61:9) does not decide between the opinions, stating only that it is forbidden to repeat Shema in either form. Only if one feels that he had insufficient concentration is it proper to repeat a section (Mishna Berura ad loc.:22). The problem of looking like addressing two deities does not apply to most passages of Kri’at Shema and tefilla (Beit Yosef, OC 61). Yet, many poskim write that the derogatory nature of unnecessarily repeating words exists throughout tefilla. The Maharam Shick (OC 31) objects on five grounds. The most serious one, which applies to parts of tefilla where one may not talk, is the matter of hefsek (extraneous interruptions). Rav M. Feinstein (Igrot Moshe, OC 22) while objecting to repeating words, says that is not always a hefsek. If one keeps the order of words intact, it is not a hefsek. His proof is from the fact that we allow one who did not concentrate when saying certain words to repeat them even though he was already yotzei. However, he reasons that if one repeats out of order, at least when meaning is lost, it is a hefsek which requires returning (see OC 104 regarding how far to return). The Aruch Hashulchan (OC 338:8) uses his approach of finding justification for common practices that seem to contradict halacha when the people will not change their ways. He suggests that perhaps the problem of repeating words applies only in the places the gemara mentions. Some of the Maharam Shick’s objections are subjective, such as that it is a less effective way to present our thoughts and needs to Hashem. Chazzanim will claim that the inspiration gained by using moving tunes to reach the tefilla’s ultimate goals justifies some repetition. Skeptics will counter that similar gains can be made without it and apply the Shulchan Aruch’s (OC 53:11) complaints about certain chazzanim showing off their voices for the wrong reasons. Of course, no two cases are precisely the same. After summarizing that a little repeating of words in a way that does not change meaning, while far from ideal, is vaguely justifiable, let us say as follows. In an ideal world, a congregation would not allow its chazzanim to repeat words. However, many congregations include dear Jews who may not be aware of or careful about every halachic intricacy. There, it may not be realistic or worthwhile to take issue with those who repeat. Likewise, in a congregation where people do not generally repeat but a guest or someone who “missed the hint” repeats words, it does not pay to hurt feelings over it. A rabbi may want to teach the halacha in a way that avoids hurting feelings. In general, we should criticize others very sparingly. This is especially true in our society, where people are used to freedom and react to criticism negatively ( at times with severe consequences). Only regarding a person or a setting (like a yeshiva) where people are willing to learn improved ways of performing mitzvot would we suggest correcting (privately) one who is unaware of these objections. Certainly, when nothing can be done about it, it is a shame to upset yourself. Resumption of Eating After Answering to a ZimunWhen I answer the zimun of two who are bentching, when can I resume eating?The gemara (Berachot 46a) brings a machloket how far birkat hazimun extends. Rav Nachman says it is until “Nevarech …” i.e., the introductory portion of the bentching said only when there is a zimun. Rav Sheshet says that it is until “Hazan …” i.e., the end of the first beracha of Birkat Hamazone. Most Rishonim (including Tosafot, ad loc.) understand that the machloket involves one who is answering but not bentching with the zimun, and the question is how long he needs to take part in the zimun. The Rif, Rambam, and the Shulchan Aruch (Orach Chayim 200:2) accept Rav Nachman’s opinion. Thus, Sephardic practice is to end the zimun at the end of the zimun addition (“… u’v’tuvo chayinu”). The Rama (ad loc.) follows the Rosh and others, who accept Rav Sheshet’s opinion. Therefore, Ashkenazim should have the mezamen say the entire first beracha out loud. The original intention of zimun was that one would bentch while the others listen silently and be yotzei with him. However, out of concern that people would not be able to concentrate sufficiently, the practice was adopted to bentch silently along with the mezamen (Shulchan Aruch, ibid. 183:7). Although most people who are mezamen do not recite the whole bentching out loud, they should do so at least for the zimun, which, for Ashkenazim, includes Hazan (Mishna Berura 183:28). When one is answering zimun but not bentching, he is to listen to the zimun without eating (Tur, Orach Chayim 200). (In theory, he can fulfill his obligation of reciting the first beracha at that time (see Rama, ibid.), although the practice is that he listens, resumes eating, and recites a normal Birkat Hamazone.) Thus, in an Ashkenazi zimun, one who answers should wait until after Hazan has been recited (hopefully, out loud) by the mezamen. For Sephardim, he can resume eating right after the introductory part of the zimun. One can inquire whether the need to wait is for the benefit of the one answering or whether it is a basic requirement of the zimun as a whole. Two practical questions likely depend on this chakira (halachic dilemma). One is whether one who ate foods other than bread, and thus does not need to bentch and is not personally obligated in zimun, needs to wait until after Hazan (for Ashkenazim). Do we say that if he breaks his connection with the zimun after its initial stage, it turns out that there was not a proper joining together to constitute a zimun? Another issue is what to do in a joint Ashkenazi-Sephardi zimun. Can the Sephardi follow his own ruling and consider the zimun complete before the beginning of bentching or does that ruin things for his friends who follow the Ashkenazi ruling? The Rosh (Berachot 7:12) explains Rav Sheshet’s requirement to wait through Hazan as follows. Hazan is not part of the zimun but since the real zimun does not have its own beracha, it does not appear that there is a zimun if they are not together for the first beracha of Birkat Hamazone. The Mishna Berura (200:8, without citing a source) explains that the first beracha is partially connected to the birkat hazimun. According to the latter explanation and probably according to the former, if there is not passive participation throughout the first beracha, an Ashkenazi should not consider there to have been a clear and complete zimun. Therefore, one who did not eat bread should wait until after Hazan has been recited (see Mishna Berura 197:15). Also, the Sephardi who stopped eating to answer should wait until after Hazan to ensure that there is a zimun from the perspective of everyone involved. Yalkut Yosef (192:4) says that a Sephardi who leads Ashkenazim in zimun should recite Hazan out loud, and logic should dictate that he would agree in our case as well. However, if bentching along with the zimun, Sephardim should not answer “Amen” to the mezamen’s beracha(ot) (ibid.). Unsure if BentchedWhat do I do if I eat a meal and am unsure if I bentched (recited Birkat Hamazone)?The Shulchan Aruch (Orach Chayim 184:4) says that if one is unsure whether he bentched or not, he should bentch. Although usually one should avoid a beracha when it might not be appropriate, when the potential obligation is from the Torah, he should take his chances and recite what might be an extra beracha (based on Berachot 21a). However, this is only if he ate enough to be satiated (k’dei sevi’ah), as the Torah mentions Birkat Hamazone in the context of “You shall eat and be satiated and bless Hashem …”( Devarim 8:10- see Mishna Berura 184:15). Otherwise, it is at most a rabbinic obligation and we revert to the regular rule not to make berachot out of doubt. There are many questions regarding whether one has had k’dei sevi’ah. One is whether there is an objective amount or it depends whether the individual is full (see Mishna Berura, ibid.:22 with Biur Halacha). The most common question, which we will now focus on, is what one has to eat in the process of satiation. One is obligated in a full Birkat Hamazone only if he ate bread (Shulchan Aruch, OC 168:6), as only bread turns eating into a full meal. The question is whether one needs to eat bread and be satiated, or one needs to eat enough bread to be satiated from the bread. The Halachot Ketanot (II, 227) makes the following claim. When one eats a k’zayit of bread he no longer has to make berachot on other foods of the meal because they are attached to the eating of the bread, which sets the meal’s tone. If so, even if he became filled only because of the other foods, it is as if he was satiated from bread, and there is an obligation to bentch from the Torah. In contrast, the Pri Megadim (EA 184:8) assumes that the k’dei sevi’ah must come from the bread for there to be an obligation from the Torah. If it were enough just to be full, why does one need even a k’zayit of bread? There are a few answers to the Pri Megadim’s question. One, which he hints at but rejects, is that it is necessary to fulfill the Torah’s first requirement of “you shall eat” with bread. (Regarding many Torah laws, a k’zayit is the cutoff point of what is considered eating.) Regarding being satiated, the important thing is the state at the end (see Biur Halacha to 184:6 regarding one who was almost full before eating bread). Another possible answer is that if one ate less than a k’zayit of bread, it is likely that he must make a beracha on subsequent foods (see Magen Avraham, 177:1). If so, the Halachot Ketanot’s logic does not apply, and he would agree with the Pri Megadim that other food would not count toward k’dei sevi’ah. (The Pri Megadim (ad loc.) feels that even less than a k’zayit of bread exempts other foods). Rav O. Yosef (Yechave Da’at VI, 10) suggests that this machloket existed among the Rishonim. The gemara (Berachot 48a) tells how Shimon Ben Shetach ate very little, yet bentched on behalf of King Yannai and friends. Tosafot (ad loc.) says that this is difficult according to the Bahag, who says that one who ate only enough for a rabbinic obligation cannot exempt those who were satiated, as the king certainly had a full meal. Rav Yosef suggests that Yannai ate a big meal with only a little bread. According to Tosafot, that would obligate him from the Torah and according to the Bahag it would not. In any case, the more widely held position seems to be that the satiation need not come only from the quantity of bread (see Igrot Moshe IV, 41; see sources in Piskei Teshuvot 184:(82)). There are additional halachic factors that indicate that in our case one should bentch out of doubt (Yechave Da’at, ibid.). Therefore, one who ate at least a k’zayit of bread (within a relatively short time- Mishna Berura 208:48) during a filling meal and is not sure if he bentched should bentch now. There is an open question whether a woman’s obligation to bentch is from the Torah or is rabbinic (Berachot 20b). Likewise, there is a machloket whether a woman who is uncertain if she already bentched should do so now (Mishna Berura 186:3). At least in our case, considering the additional factors, it is likely better that she not bentch out of doubt. Standing During NeilahIt is hard for me to stand the whole time during Ne’ila, when the aron kodesh is open. Am I required to do so?It is easier to summarize the halachic sources than to give an absolute ruling. The gemara (Kiddushin 33b) derives from the mitzvah to stand for a talmid chacham that certainly one must stand before a sefer Torah. The Shulchan Aruch (Yoreh Deah 282:2) rules that this is only when the sefer Torah is being moved before the people. When it is out of sight or has rested at its destination, one may sit. This is derived from the Torah’s mention that Bnei Yisrael stood for Moshe until he entered the ohel moed (Shemot 33:8). As the laws of standing before a sefer Torah are derived from standing before talmidei chachamim, they are equated in this regard as well. Thus, when the sifrei Torah are stationary in their place (the aron) the Torah law to stand for them does not apply even if they are visible. Furthermore, the Rama (Yoreh Deah 242:18) rules that one need not stand for a sefer Torah on the bimah because it is in a separate domain from the people. The Taz (ad loc.:13) comments that similarly, when the sifrei Torah are contained within the domain of the aron, halacha should not require one to stand. However, he points out that the minhag is to stand in their honor anyway. Some minhagim become binding practices, whereas others do not. Rav Moshe Feinstein (Igrot Moshe, Orach Chayim V, 38) wonders whether the Taz is claiming that standing when the aron kodesh is open is a minhag which became binding halacha or one which remained a positive, voluntary practice. He infers from the sources that the Taz saw it as voluntary. This would occur if those who began the practice did not institute it formally; future generations are assumed to continue it with the same level of obligation of their predecessors. He posits that even if there is a doubt which type of minhag it is, one could decide the matter leniently. However, The Panim Me’irot (I, 74) views the practice more strictly, and even Igrot Moshe urged (without outright requiring) a community that sat before an open aron kodesh to conform to the prevalent practice. Is there, then, a difference between the different approaches? If the minhag is binding, the obligation applies, in principle, to all. Of course, even when all are obligated, some are not physically capable of doing so. Someone recuperating from knee surgery may sit even for Kedusha, where halacha requires standing. However, when it is only uncomfortable to stand, one must do so. If the minhag is not binding per se, one can consider other factors more liberally and waive the practice due to moderate discomfort or if it compromises one’s concentration, etc. (see Igrot Moshe, ibid.). Admittedly, it is hard to give absolute guidelines on the matter. However, if we assume like Igrot Moshe, as we do, there is more leeway in treating personal needs as the deciding factor. The Aruch Hashulchan’s (Yoreh Deah, 282:13) formulation of the matter hits a mainstream chord. After explaining that halacha does not require standing before an open aron kodesh, he writes: “Since [people] developed the practice to do so to honor the Torah, it follows that one who does not stand in effect shows a lack of honor for the Torah. Therefore, he must stand. However, if he is weak in his legs and people will not suspect him [of disrespect] it is permitted to sit.” On Yom Kippur, and certainly, Ne’ilah, we try our hardest to act properly and certainly avoid anything that could be construed as disrespectful to the Torah. However, people are aware that many fellow congregants are physically “spent” and can no longer stand, and it is permitted to sit. If one feels that his sitting will be misunderstood or will adversely affect others, he should find a couple of minutes in which he can go out to sit without missing critical sections of the tefilla and regain strength to continue davening and standing. Time Elapsed Betwen Meal and BentchingI left my meal (including bread) to daven Ma’ariv. It turned out that there was a long sicha before Ma’ariv. By the time I was able to return to eat an hour and a half had passed. Could I still bentch (recite Birkat Hamazone) at that time?The mishna (Berachot 51b) says that one must bentch before the food is digested. The gemara (ibid. 53b) brings two opinions as to the signs of this cut off point. R. Yochanan says that it is until one becomes hungry. Reish Lakish says that it is as long as he is still thirsty from the eating or for 72 minutes, depending on how much he ate. We rule like R. Yochanan and assume that it refers to beginning to be hungry as the food is digesting (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 184:5). However, most poskim assume that R. Yochanan accepts a 72 minute minimum time limit, just that if one has not yet begun to become hungry, he can still bentch after that point (see Biur Halacha, ad loc.). However, the problem is that this feeling is hard to quantify or determine with certainty (Magen Avraham 184:9). Therefore, one should be careful to bentch no later than 72 minutes after finishing eating. You did not succeed in doing so this time and probably entered the realm of safek (doubt). Ostensibly, your desired preference was the halachic preference as well. That is to continue your meal and bentch afterward; just be sure that the continuation of your meal includes at least a k’zayit of bread (Mishna Berura 184:20). Thereby, Birkat Hamazone is in any case appropriate, and there is a reasonable hope that it is in time to cover the original eating also. This, though, raises a new question. After taking a break possibly long enough for digestion to begin, making it too late for a beracha acharona, does one require a new beracha rishona? The Magen Avraham (ibid.) assumes that one requires a new beracha because the previous eating is a matter of the past. However, the Even Ha’ozer (Orach Chayim 179) argues that there is no source to indicate that digestion breaks the continuity regarding a beracha rishona. To the contrary, the Rambam (Berachot 4:7) says that a beracha one makes when he begins eating can cover other foods “even if he breaks all day long” as long as he has not decided to stop eating. Although there are attempts to deflect the proof (see Tzitz Eliezer XII, 1) and some poskim agree with the Magen Avraham, the Even Ha’ozer’s opinion is the more accepted one (see Mishna Berura 184:17; Yechave Da’at VI, 11). Furthermore, in a case like yours where there is doubt whether digestion occurred, even the Magen Avraham (ibid.) suggests eating more without a new beracha to get out of the doubt regarding Birkat Hamazone. Apparently, it is better to enter a situation where one might need to say Hamotzi and refrain from it because of doubt than to miss out on Birkat Hamazone which he might still be able to make (see Levushei S’rad, ad loc.). The only reservation we must address applies if you made a significant change of location (the parameters of which are beyond our present scope) between your first and second sittings. We rule like the Rama (Orach Chayim 178:2) that one does not need a new beracha after moving locations in the midst of a meal that includes bread. As we discussed, we also rule like the Even Ha’ozer that even a long break does not require a new beracha as long as one intends to continue eating. However, the Tzitz Eliezer (ibid) tries to prove that when one both changes locations and waits a long time, then we would accept the Magen Avraham’s opinion that one requires a new beracha. However, in our humble opinion, the case he presented is not convincing (beyond our scope). We accept that which is apparently the majority opinion that even with the combination of the passing of time and moving of location you can eat more bread without a new beracha. Doing so would have been the best way to salvage bentching in the case of doubt that arose. Eating Dairy on ShavuotNaso-Shavuot 7 Sivan Need one eat milchig on Shavuot? If so, when is one supposed to do so? What steps must he take regarding meat and milk? There are many minhagim and little clarity on the issue.We can give you only partial clarity - and an assurance that there are many legitimate ways to fulfill the minhag. The minhag to eat milchig food on Shavuot seems to have emerged in Ashkenazic lands in the time of the Rishonim and is accepted by the Rama (Orach Chayim 494:3). It has begun to be more accepted among Sephardim, at least in Israel, where the dairy industry pushes the minhag aggressively (we wonder why?). The problem is that there are many educated guesses as to the rationale behind the minhag, which impacts on the optimal way to follow it. Also, some good ways of fulfilling it raise halachic problems. It is not surprising then that both rabbis and laymen have developed varied systems. This variety and the phenomenon that people often do as they feel on this not overly crucial matter are reasonable. The Rama (ibid.) understands that the minhag is to remind us of the shtei halechem (two loaves of wheat), offered on Shavuot in the Beit Hamikdash. The Magen Avraham (ad loc.:8) explains that by eating both milk and meat in a meal, there will be two loaves of bread with which to eat the food. He says that in keeping with this reason, it is best to bake some milchig bread. Although bread is supposed to be pareve, loaves that are small or are made in a special shape, both of which were customary on Shavuot, are permitted (Rama, Yoreh Deah 97:1). This approach explains why many eat milchig and fleishig at the same meal despite the complications (see below). Another reason to split a meal between milchig and fleishig parts is that many require a meat meal at night and in the day of Yom Tov (see Rosh, Berachot 7:23 with Ma’adanei Yom Tov; Sha’arei Teshuva 529:2). Others say it is sufficient to have meat in the day. Therefore, those who have one fully milchig meal on Shavuot, do so at night (see Piskei Teshuvot 529:11 & 494:11). Other reasons for the minhag are based on kabalistic ideas regarding milk (Magen Avraham 494:6), hints of its acronym (Aruch Hashulchan OC 494:5), and the idea that after receiving the Torah, Bnei Yisrael required time to be able to prepare kosher meat (Mishna Berura 494:12). According to these approaches, it may be sufficient to have milchig food at any point during Yom Tov, including a snack or kiddush after Shacharit. One should not compromise the laws of meat and milk in order to fulfill this minhag. Therefore, if eaten in succession, milchig is obviously eaten first. In between the two, one should clean the mouth by eating pareve food and rinsing his mouth and either rinse or inspect his hands (Shulchan Aruch, Yoreh Deah 89:2). He should also change the tablecloth (Mishna Berura ibid.: 16). (Most people simply eat the milchig food on a plastic tablecloth on top of the regular one.) Some people are careful to make a full break between milchig and fleishig with Birkat Hamazone (or a beracha acharona for the many who fulfill the minhag with cake) between them (Pri Megadim on Shach 89:6). However, that is a special chumra, not halachically required (ibid.; see Mishna Berura ibid.; Melamed L’ho’il II, 23). If one does bentch, then there are varied opinions as to how long one should wait before starting the meat meal (beyond our present scope). In brief, it is all but impossible to accept the most stringent approach to the integration of milk into a meat meal while following all the stringencies of the prohibitions of milk and meat (see Igrot Moshe, OC I, 160). Some systems are cumbersome enough for many people to take away from their simchat Yom Tov, cause them to make mistakes, or unnecessarily delay the minhag of learning all night. Therefore, people should continue a family minhag they are comfortable with or adopt one which works for them. One who wants to figure out the most machmir way to do so may be blessed but should be aware of “collateral damage.” Forgetting to Drink Wine While ReclinedTzav 10 Nissan 5766 What do I do if I forget to drink one of the seder’s cups of wine while reclined?Our main focus will be on Ashkenazi men. (Many Ashkenazi women do not drink reclined in the first place. Even one who does recline has more room for leniency if she forgot - see Rama, Orach Chayim 572:4. We will present the simpler instructions for Sephardim at the end.) The gemara (Pesachim 108a) says that, in principle, one needs to recline only for two of the four cups of wine. However, since it could not conclude whether they are the first two or the last two, it instructs to recline for all four. The Rosh (Pesachim 10:20) says that if one was supposed to recline (for matza or for wine) and did not, he did not fulfill the mitzva properly and must eat or drink again. (One does not repeat the element of the seder related to the cup, just the drinking.) However, the Rosh wonders whether it is proper to repeat the third or fourth cup for the following reason. Chazal instituted drinking four cups, not more. Since one is not allowed to drink wine after the third or fourth cup (see Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 479:1 & 481:1), drinking more looks like he is adding a fifth official cup of wine. On the other hand, the Rosh reasons that since he who drank without reclining did not fulfill the mitzva properly, that cup did not count, and one can and should drink another. Therefore, he leaves the question open. The situation is more complex nowadays for Ashkenazim. The reason to eat and drink while reclined is that it is a manner of showing we are a liberated people, as important people at leisure eat in that manner. The Ra’avya (cited in the Tur, OC 472) says that since, nowadays, important people eat sitting erect, reclining no longer accomplishes the correct effect. The Rama takes this argument seriously. He uses it to explain the minhag of women in his time not to recline (472:4) and as a reason to not require a man who forgot to recline to repeat the eating or drinking. However, the Rama concludes that one should implement the Rosh’s distinction. For the first two cups, where one loses little by drinking more, he should repeat. For the latter cups, where there is a problem of looking like adding on cups, one should rely on the Ra’avya that drinking erect is sufficient and avoid further drinking which would thus be improper. The Magen Avraham (ad loc.:7) raises another issue. We discussed that drinking a cup of wine which he normally should not be drinking makes it look like a mandatory cup. It is logical that if one makes an additional beracha on the wine, it looks formal. Even though one may drink wine between the first two cups, we no longer do so (see Shulchan Aruch 473:3). Therefore, one’s intention with the beracha over the first cup is on that cup alone. Since repeating the cup would entail making another beracha, we should rely on the Ra’avya rather than repeat the cup with an additional beracha. Regarding forgetting to recline for the second cup, if one had any thoughts of drinking wine during the meal, another beracha would not be necessary, and it would be preferable to repeat the cup (ibid.). The Magen Avraham says that it is best when drinking the first cups, to have in mind that the beracha should apply to any further drinking. The Mishna Berura (ad loc.:21) seems to endorse the Magen Avraham’s thinking. Given that the Magen Avraham’s criteria are subjective and hard to determine and since the matter is a rabbinic one with a few mitigating doubts, one can resolve ambiguity on the side of leniency (not to repeat). For Sephardim, the situation is simpler. The Shulchan Aruch does not rely on the Ra’avya regarding women and/or one who forgot to recline. Sephardim also have the beracha on the first and third cups exempt the beracha on the second and fourth. Therefore, a Sephardi who forgets to recline always repeats and does not need a new beracha, at least on the first three cups. (If and when one does repeat, drinking grape juice is a wise choice.) Birkat Hamazon When the Location of the Meal ChangesIf I start a meal in one place and want to leave in the middle or continue eating elsewhere, what do I do about Birkat Hamazone?You have made the question easier to respond to by asking about a meal. The answer depends on what one is eating. Even so, we will not be able to address all of the many details. The gemara (Pesachim 101b) posits that when one moves from the place where he was eating, he requires a new beracha before resuming eating. However, Rav Chisda rules that a new beracha is needed only if the food(s) he was eating is the type whose beracha acharona need not be recited in the place he ate. However, if he is in the midst of a meal, for which Birkat Hamazone must be recited where he ate, we say that even after leaving, he is drawn back to the place he ate and does not require a new beracha when he returns. (All agree that one needs to recite Birkat Hamazone in the place he ate and that one can make the beracha acharona on foods that require Borei Nefashot elsewhere. There is a not fully resolved machloket regarding grain products other than bread and regarding fruit from the “seven species.” We leave that issue out of this response and relate to a meal that includes bread.) Rav Sheshet rejects this distinction and says that a beracha is necessary even upon leaving a meal unless one was part of a group eating together of which at least one person stayed behind to be rejoined later. The Shulchan Aruch (Orach Chayim 178: 1-2) rules like Rav Sheshet. We would discuss the ramifications of his opinion for the benefit of Sephardim, who generally follow the Shulchan Aruch. However, Rav Ovadya Yosef and other Sephardic poskim (see Yalkut Yosef 178:(1)) do not accept his position in this matter (in order to avoid questionable berachot), so we will concentrate on the Rama’s opinion. The Rama (OC 178:2) limits the need for extra berachot after leaving the place of eating in a couple of ways. First, he understands that leaving the place is the equivalent of hesech hada’at (taking one’s mind off eating) and thus when one returns, he requires at most a new beracha rishona, not a beracha acharona. Secondly, whether one leaves a friend behind (see Mishna Berura ad loc.: 18) or whether one was eating a meal, he does not require any beracha upon resuming eating at the original place. We must address two remaining topics. The Rama writes that although one does not require a beracha before resuming his meal, he should normally not leave with the plan to return without first bentching. The reason is the concern he might forget to return (ibid.) or might return too late for Birkat Hamazone to relate to his original eating (see Beit Yosef). However, if one plans to leave for a short time, this is not a problem (Mishna Berura, ibid.:34). The Biur Halacha points out that while one may be stringent and not leave in the middle, it is problematic to recite a potentially superfluous Birkat Hamazone before leaving if he plans to resume the meal and recite it again soon thereafter. One may rush out to minyan or another passing mitzva if necessary (Rama, ibid.). Another question is whether one can continue the meal elsewhere and not return for Birkat Hamazone. The original beracha of Hamotzi enables further eating without a beracha even in a new place (Rama, ibid.). The Birkat Hamazone that he recites in the new place also covers the eating in the first location provided he eats some bread there as well (Shulchan Aruch, OC 184:2; see Mishna Berura ad loc.:9). Otherwise he would have to return to bentch in the original place of eating. Either way, it is preferable not to leave without bentching unless when he started his meal, he intended to continue it elsewhere (Mishna Berura 178:40). If he were eating Borei Nefashot food in a defined place, he would need a new beracha upon moving to a new place but would not require a beracha acharona, which he could recite whenever he finishes eating wherever he is (Rama 178:2). Selling Non-Kosher Animal PartsWe want to open a kosher slaughter house in South America and were wondering if it is permitted to sell the non-kosher parts of the animals to non-Jews. That makes economic sense, but is it permitted to benefit from forbidden foods?You are apparently early in the planning process. Obviously, in order to produce kosher meat, you will need an expert rabbinic staff not only to carry out the shechita but to ensure that the other necessary halachic steps are done properly. The head of that staff should be able to answer this and a host of other questions responsibly. We are glad to help with your feasibility check. Almost all forbidden food is permitted in benefit. Exceptions include meat and milk that were cooked together, chametz, and orlah (fruit from new trees). Nothing that is related to a slaughter house should be forbidden to benefit from, whether it is a neveila (an animal that died without proper shechita), tereifa (an animal with life-threatening blemishes), cheilev (certain fatty sections of cattle), blood, or gid hanashe (certain veins in the animal’s hind legs). However, it is prohibited to deal commercially with non-kosher food. The mishna (Shevi’it 7:4) says that hunters may sell non-kosher animals they chanced upon. The gemara (Pesachim 23a) derives this from the pasuk, “Vesheketz yiheyu lachem (and they shall remain defiled for you).” In other words, one may benefit from most non-kosher foods (“for you”) and yet is forbidden to do so commercially (“remain defiled”). Most Rishonim posit that the prohibition of trading in forbidden foods is a Torah law (see Shut Chatam Sofer, YD 104-106, 108; Yabia Omer VIII, YD 13). The Rashba (Shut III, 223) says that the reason is to minimize the possibility of eating forbidden foods, while others say it is a gezeirat hakatuv (heavenly decree without a known reason). The practical distinction is that one may not purposely acquire food which is forbidden from the Torah. However, if the non-kosher food came into one’s possession accidentally or as a by-product of permitted activity, he may sell it (Shulchan Aruch, Yoreh Deah 117:1). The Rama (ad loc.) urges not to leave the food in his possession longer than necessary. It is not always clear whether a specific situation is considered purposely acquiring non-kosher food. However, in the case of a slaughter house, kosher, live animals come by necessity with non-kosher parts. Therefore, after shechita, when it is necessary to discard of much of the hind section of the animal and the udder (for a combination of absolute halachic reasons, minhagim and a desire to simplify the process) they can be sold to non-Jews. Even if a whole animal turns out to be not kosher, the Torah says explicitly that one can sell a neveila to a non-Jew (Devarim 14:21); the same is true of a tereifa. This arrangement enables producers to sell the meat of animals regarding which halachic questions arose rather than search for difficult solutions to prevent great loss. Must one be concerned that the non-kosher meat will end up being resold to Jews? The Torah law of lifnei iver, not to put a “stumbling block” before others, does not apply for a few reasons. Whoever ends up eating it could have obtained the same type of forbidden food elsewhere (see Avoda Zara 6b). Also, the food would go from one Jew to another only through an independent intermediary; this is too indirect to be lifnei iver. There is sometimes a rabbinic prohibition to sell non-kosher food to a non-Jew out of concern that it might end up by a Jew (see Pesachim 40b). However, that was said in cases where one might not realize the food is problematic (e.g., flour infested with bugs- Rama, YD 84:5). In our case, one may not buy meat without a hechsher. What would be problematic is to sell non-kosher food to a Jewish merchant to resell, for this would be aiding him to violate the prohibition of dealing commercially with non-kosher food. Under certain circumstances, there are grounds for leniency (beyond our present scope), but seeking a non-Jew is a simpler idea. Re-doing Tevillat KeilimI did tevillat keilim for a metal pot with plastic handles. I later noticed a sticker on a handle. Do I have to tovel the pot again?The relevant rule of chatzitza (an obstruction between the object or person being immersed and the mikveh’s water) is as follows. If the chatzitza is something that people normally remove, it disqualifies the tevilla rabbinically even if it covers only a minority of the object (Nidda 67b). In all likelihood, the sticker in question fits into that category. However, your question is complicated as we will partially explain. There are two reasons to suggest that the handle does not need to be tovelled. First, a plastic kli (utensil) does not require tevilla. Additionally, the handle does not come in contact with the food, and only a kli se’uda (a utensil used in connection with a meal- see Avoda Zara 75b) requires tevilla. On the latter point, the Shulchan Aruch (Yoreh Deah 120:12) rules that handles need to be immersed. However, there are different ways to explain this halacha, which can cause different conclusions regarding your question. One possible explanation is that a kli’s handle is a distinct, albeit connected kli, which needs tevilla. Although it does not come in contact with food, it is attached to and complements a kli that touches food and thus is considered a kli se’udah. If this is the reason, then the plastic handle does not need tevilla, and the chatzitza is not a problem. A second possibility is that a handle is a secondary part of the kli. Just as one must tovel a kli that is part metal and part plastic in its entirety, so must he tovel the kli’s handle. Therefore, a chatzitza would be a problem on the handle as anywhere else. A third possibility assumes that the handle itself does not require tevilla. However, if one let it stick out of the mikveh, we would say that the kli was not totally surrounded by water. However, if the handle is immersed, even with a chatzitza, it is encompassed by water. Regarding the chatzitza, realize that the main part of the kli is unaffected by the chatzitza. After all, the water touches the entire surface except the place where the handle is connected to it. (The fact that the handle itself is not a chatzitza even if it is made out of a material that requires tevilla is almost unanimously agreed upon; its rationale is beyond is beyond our present scope.) According to this approach, the sticker would not raise a problem. On this third point, there may be a machloket among recent poskim. There are appliances that hold and heat up a food or liquid, where the heating element is housed separately from the part that holds the food but is connected to it. Rav Feinstein (Igrot Moshe, YD I, 57-8) rules that one need immerse the appliance only up to the point that the receptacle reaches and can leave the electrical section protruding from the water. Minchat Yitzchak II, 72 argues, saying that this is not considered immersing the kli. Rav Feinstein apparently cannot accept the third possibility, for if the handle were considered a separate appendage, the Shulchan Aruch would not have required tevilla. The Minchat Yitzchak can accept the third approach (whether he does is beyond our scope). The Darkei Teshuva (120:96) addresses your case explicitly and requires removing the chatzitza before tevilla. Several present-day works accept that opinion (Chelkat Binyamin 120:109; Hechsher Kelim (Edre’i) 7:2; Tevillat Keilim (Cohen) 5:5), and we found no one who argues. This is apparently in line with the second approach that the handle is like any other part of the kli. In truth, the Beit Yosef’s (YD 120) explanation for the need to tovel handles seems to concur. Although he does not discuss the case of a plastic handle, it is likely that he would agree with the Darkei Teshuva. Thus, although one could make the argument that a chatzitza on a plastic handle is not a problem, the consensus is that another tevilla after removing the sticker is needed. Beracha on Dessert after a MealDoes one make a beracha on ice cream served as dessert at a meal with bread?The gemara (Berachot 41b) presents the basic rules of berachot during a meal. Foods that “come due to the meal” do not require a beracha. Those not due to the meal require only a beracha before them. The Rosh (ad loc.) describes foods that come due to the meal as those that connected to the main part of the meal and (/or?) are eaten with the bread. Fruit are prime examples of foods that are not due to the meal (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 177:1). These are normally eaten to give a sweet taste rather than to fill one up. Although poskim assume that anything eaten before Birkat Hamazone is during the meal, foods that are eaten specifically for dessert are generally not due to the meal (see Mishna Berurah 177:4). The gemara (ibid.) asks: why, according to these rules, does one require a beracha on wine drunk during the meal. It answers: “Wine is different, as it causes a beracha for itself.” The most accepted explanation is that wine is unique in that we make a beracha on it in various mitzva contexts (e.g. Kiddush and Sheva Berachot) even when one is not interested in drinking it (Rashi, ad loc.). We see that, if not for this unique characteristic, wine would not have required a beracha during a meal. Therefore, most Rishonim and the Shulchan Aruch (ibid. 174:7) posit that drinks consumed during the meal, even toward its end, do not require a beracha. Many explain that eating contributes to one’s thirst; thus quenching thirst is an integral part of the meal. Let us note that some Rishonim learn the gemara differently and say that one makes a beracha on all drinks during the meal. The Shulchan Aruch (ibid.) even cites them as a minority opinion and suggests removing doubts by making a Shehakol before the meal to cover drinks. However, the practice is certainly not that way. One might wonder what ice cream, a classic dessert, meant to finish the meal with a sweet taste in one’s mouth, has to do with drinks. It is not part of the main meal and is not intended to quench one’s thirst. Yet, a few poskim make the following claim. Ice cream is a liquid that is served as a solid because people enjoy it at an artificially cold temperature. Since accepted practice is not to make a beracha on liquids during a meal, including during dessert, one should not make a beracha on ice cream. Yalkut Yosef (on OC167, 10) rules this way in the name of his father (Rav Ovadya). There are reports that Rav Moshe Feinstein ruled this way as well (see Vezot Haberacha, pg. 74). One could say that it is logical to call ice cream a liquid only when it is based heavily on milk and/or water, not when it is a mixture of eggs, soy products, and sugar (i.e., pareve ice cream) (see opinions in Piskei Teshuvot 177:(24)). Perhaps Rav Moshe was speaking about classic ice cream; however, Rav Ovadya does not accept this distinction. It is difficult to accept the above ruling (despite the rule of safek berachot l’hakel) for fundamental reasons. The great majority of poskim understand that the matter does not depend on halachic definitions of liquid vs. solid but on the function of the food; is it a drink or a dessert? (The reason we do not make a beracha on most cakes for dessert is that they may be considered like bread (Biur Halacha on 168:8.)) Even among drinks, the Mishna Berura (177:39) brings machlokot about a beracha for whiskey or coffee at the end of a meal, with the question being its function. Indeed, the gemara did not state a formal rule about liquids during a meal. So why should we lump all liquids together when their functions are so different? Most leading poskim rule to make a beracha on ice cream, certainly the pareve type; some suggest dodging the issue by making a beracha on a food it is agreed requires Shehakol (e.g., chocolate) (see opinions in Piskei Teshuvot and Vezot Haberacha, ibid.). We recommend making a beracha on ice cream served as dessert unless one always follows Rav Ovadya’s or possibly Rav Moshe’s rulings. Birkat HaGomelOn Mondays and Thursdays, we often give the third aliyah to someone who has to say Birkat Hagomel (a blessing of thanks to Hashem for extricating someone from a dangerous situation, including plane travel overseas). Should he make the beracha before or after Kaddish?This answer is based on a Q&A in our sefer, Bemareh Habazak, vol. V, 6. The Kaddish that is recited after kri’at hatorah relates to it. Therefore, there should not be too long a break between the end of kri’at hatorah (and its normal concluding beracha) and Kaddish. However, we have to look for precedents to see whether saying and answering Hagomel is a problematic break. The Kitzur Shulchan Aruch (69:5) says that if the chazzan at Mincha stopped between the end of Ashrei and Kaddish to put on a tallit, he should say a few p’sukim before Kaddish. This is because Kaddish relates to the p’sukim of Ashrei and putting on the tallit is too much of a break. Following this approach, one would assume that Hagomel is also too much of a break between kri’at hatorah and Kaddish. We can counter this indication in a few ways. There are other breaks that are not deemed problematic. After kri’at hatorah of Mincha on Shabbat, we do not immediately recite Kaddish, so that Kaddish can be recited directly before Shemoneh Esrei. That Kaddish, though, also relates to the kri’at hatorah. The Magen Avraham (292:2) explains that hagba/gelila and reciting “yehalelu” are not considered a break. However, one cannot bring a firm proof from there because he explains that the “break” is considered a long ending of kri’at hatorah. One can claim that, in contrast, Hagomel is unrelated to kri’at hatorah and constitutes a halachic break. On the other hand, many, including the Mishna Berura (54:12) say that putting on tallit or tefillin is not a long enough break to require repeating p’sukim before Kaddish. Since he stresses the break’s brevity, not its status as an extension of the matter at hand, Hagomel should not be considered a break either. Furthermore, “normal interruptions” do not count as halachic breaks between Kaddish and the preceding passages to which it applies. For this reason, we can say Kaddish Titkabel, which relates to Shemoneh Esrei, despite the breaks for Hallel, kri’at hatorah, etc. in between (Terumat Hadeshen 13; Mishna Berura 123:18). One can argue that since Hagomel is normally said at the conclusion of one’s aliyah, it is, at least informally, part of the kri’at hatorah process and not a halachic break (see Kaf Hachayim, OC 123:27 regarding a mi sheberach). One can counter that Kaddish Titkabel is different because it was originally intended to be long after Shemoneh Esrei. In contrast, the Kaddish after kri’at hatorah can and perhaps should be directly after the end of the last aliyah. However, the concept that normal procedure does not interrupt is probably still pertinent. Another difference is that the ba’al koreh, who usually recites the Kaddish, is not the one who is reciting Hagomel. The Mishna Berura (ibid.) urged the chazzan not to talk between Shemoneh Esrei and Kaddish Titkabel to avoid an unwarranted break. However, we do not find that the rest of the congregation has the same restriction. Similarly, what the oleh does should not be so important. One can counter that the whole congregation responds to Hagomel, and the public interruption is more problematic than an individual’s talking before Kaddish Titkabel. However, the fact that the ba’al koreh does not recite Hagomel seems significant, at least if he does not respond. After comparing our case to halachic parallels and making distinctions, we conclude as follows. All things being equal, it may be preferable for the third oleh to wait until after Kaddish to recite Hagomel. After all, there is no halachic requirement to connect Hagomel to an aliyah; indeed, one who says Hagomel does not need an aliyah. However, if he wants to recite it before Kaddish, we do not have sufficient grounds to stop him from doing so. Separation of Meat, Dairy and Pareve at a TableI was teaching the laws of meat and milk, including that one who is within six hours of eating meat should not eat pareve at a table with those eating milk without a reminder in place. One of the students asked if sitting around in a kumzitz where there are milchig refreshments on nearby tables is considered eating at one table.[We orally received more information regarding this question, enabling us to discuss the background of the matter with the fine, young teacher. The class was learning from a sefer in English, written, to a great extent, for yeshiva students who are new to preparing food. The students were primarily from “Modern Orthodox homes.”] Although the question is a perceptive one, excuse us that we want to concentrate on the assumption that introduces it and the phenomenon of which it is representative. The mishna and gemara (Chulin 103b-104b) gives instructions to avoid accidental eating of milk and meat together. One step is that one who is eating cheese should not bring meat, including poultry, to the table. The gemara is bothered that, if, as we rule, poultry with milk is forbidden only rabbinically, this is a gezeira l’gezeira (an injunction on an injunction). In other words, the mistake that the Rabbis’ legislation is intended to avoid is itself only a rabbinic prohibition. As a rule, this is an improper injunction. The gemara, after pointing out that there is a Torah prohibition only when the milk and meat have been cooked together, concludes that without a gezeira, one might come to mix the two in a boiling pot on the table. Therefore, the gezeira is “legal.” Several Acharonim cite the Beit Yaakov, who extends (as you read) the aforementioned gezeira to one who is not eating meat now but did so within six hours and thus may not yet eat milk products. Most of those who cite this opinion reject it (see a summary of the opinions in Darkei Teshuva, YD 88:16 and Badei Hashulchan, Biurim to YD 88:1). The most prominent of those who reject the stringency (chumra) is the Pri Megadim (YD 88, MZ 2), who cryptically makes the following points that strike a strong chord for us. One is that the gemara was concerned that the gezeira regulating people eating milk and meat at one table at the same time was over-extended. It finally constructed a case where one might violate a Torah law. However, in the case at hand, meat is not present. Rather Chazal extended the prohibition of eating meat and milk that were cooked together to waiting six hours (according to the most stringent opinion) after meat. We have no right to extend the gezeira even further than the gemara and Shulchan Aruch spell out. The Pri Megadim and others make a general point, which it is crucial to teach your students. He writes: “I have not seen people being careful about this.” What difference do regular people make in the face of the scholarly opinions of the Pri Megadim and Beit Yaakov? The answer is that the great majority of halachic authorities have taken the minhag ha’olam (common practice) very seriously when determining halacha. You, we, and your students have grown up in observant homes and have visited many others. I daresay that few have even heard of this chumra. Now, if a consensus of sources indicates that a minhag ha’olam appears to violate a Torah law, it is a serious matter, requiring rabbinic guidance. In this case, most poskim reject the chumra, and the worst-case scenario is on an extended Rabbinic prohibition. In our opinion, the author of the sefer erred in his ruling. Perhaps, he intended the sefer for those who believe in adopting every chumra they can find. However, you are teaching a group that was not brought up to do so. It is complex enough (requiring its own discussion) to deal with cases where they learn that their parents have clearly been acting incorrectly. A teacher’s experience and sensitivity should help determine what is a chumra that cannot be accepted at face value, even if it is in print. If one is not sure, he should ask, rather than assume that he and many others have been doing the wrong thing. Making a New Beracha After Break in EatingToward the end of a snack, I decide to stop eating after one more cookie and change my mind later. Do I need to make a new beracha before continuing to eat?Intention regarding what one plans to eat affects the need for additional berachot in two different ways at two different points of the eating process. After discussing the principles of each (without getting into much details), we will see where your case fits in. Intention at the beginning of the eating- If when one recites a beracha, he has in mind to eat several foods, the beracha covers other foods of the same beracha, including those that are not before him or which he has no specific plans to eat (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 206:5). If one intends at the time of the beracha to eat only a certain food or foods, then he needs a new beracha before eating other foods, even of the same beracha (Mishna Berura 206:20). When one does not give the matter thought, according to most poskim, one does not make a new beracha. This is because we assume that the standard situation is that the extent of one’s eating is open-ended (ibid.). However, the Rama (ad loc.) says that to remove doubt, it is best for a person to have in mind to cover with his beracha everything that may come his way. Intention at the end of eating- The gemara in different places discusses situations that end a meal: 1) Removal of the tray/table from which a person was eating (Berachot 42a); 2) Rinsing one’s hands with mayim acharonim (water used before Birkat Hamazone) (ibid.); 3) Announcing that the group is ready to recite Birkat Hamazone (Pesachim 103b). In the third case, the gemara uses a phrase that is the heart of the issue, namely hesech hada’at (removal of thought). By performing an action that indicates that he is preparing for the berachot that follow eating, he shows that he has removed his mind from the eating that was included in the original beracha. Thus, to continue eating, he requires a new beracha. (Discussion as to whether he can eat before reciting Birkat Hamazone is beyond our present scope.) The Mishna Berura (179:3, based on the Rambam, Berachot 4:7) says that a clear thought that one has finished eating constitutes a hesech hada’at without verbalizing that he plans to bentch. Some Rishonim (see Shulchan Aruch OC 197:1) distinguish between the type of eating one was doing. If one was drinking (or having a snack- Shulchan Aruch Harav, Seder Birkat Hanehenin 5:1) then verbal or mental hesech hada’at is effective. If one was eating (a meal- ibid.), then only an action causes a break. The Biur Halacha (ad loc.) says that it is difficult to decide between the different opinions on the matter and urges one to avoid having mental hesech hada’at and then changing his mind during a meal. Let us return to our case. If one were to decide to have a snack of one cookie, then the beracha would never have taken effect on other foods. However, once the intention was open-ended enough to apply to other foods, only positive hesech hada’at removes it. All of the poskim we have found discuss hesech hada’at from the perspective of the present (For example, see the language of the Rambam (ibid.) and the Mishna Berura (206:20).) In other words, one says to himself: “I no longer plan to eat,” which is equivalent to the actions of preparing for Birkat Hamazone. There is no halachic precedent for hesech hada’at on delay (i.e. “I hereby declare that after one more cookie, I will have stopped eating”). Thus, if you continue to think clearly after finishing the cookie that it was indeed the last one, then you have hesech hada’at at that time. As you are referring to a snack, you would need a beracha before eating more. However, if your resolve to stop eating wavers before finishing to eat, then you could continue eating without a new beracha. Car Seat As MuktzehMy family wants to take a cab to the kotel and walk back. We have a stroller for our baby, and we need a car seat for our son. Is the car seat muktzeh (it has no other use)? If so, can I fold it up and put it on the stroller before Shabbat and thereby bring it home?We must deal with three questions. To what category of utensil does the car seat belong? If it is muktzeh, can you find a use for it that allows you to carry it? If it is forbidden to carry, can you push it along with permitted things (i.e. the baby) in the stroller? Category: A car seat is a kli shemelachto l’isur (=ksl’i- a utensil whose main use is for forbidden activity). It is true that the seat is not directly doing the driving, unlike most cases of ksl’i, which are directly involved in a violation (e.g. pen, car, etc.). However, other utensils which serve an otherwise permitted function within the framework of a violation are ksl’i. This includes phone books and car doors (regardless of activating lights) (see Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata (=SSK) 20:17 and more). Possibility to move such an object: One may move a ksl’i only for a permissible function or if it is in the way, but not to protect it (Shulchan Aruch, OC 308:3). You want to protect the car seat from getting lost. But the Magen Avraham (308:8) allows thinking up a use for the ksl’i and moving it with that excuse even if one’s main intention is protecting it. The Mishna Berura (= MB- 308:17) accepts the premise, but perhaps only for a “real need,” but Machatzit Hashekel, Yalkut Yosef (ad loc.) and Rav Sh. Z. Orbach allow contriving a need. However, you have to have a real plan to use the car seat after coming home, and some require that for the use you design, you cannot easily use a non-muktzeh utensil (MB 308:12; SSK 20:8). If you can be creative, great. Carrying with other things: Pushing a stroller with muktzeh in it is indirect moving, which is forbidden if done for the muktzeh’s “welfare” (Shul. Ar. 311:8). In our case, the stroller’s other contents, especially the baby, are more significant than the car seat, and you can push the stroller for their sake (ibid. 309:3). However, the gemara (Shabbat 142a) says that if fruit and a stone are in a basket, one must shake out the stone if he can do so without doing damage. So must you remove the car seat or not put it in to start with? Most poskim rule that even if the only thing to be damaged (or, in this case, lost) is the muktzeh, one need not shake it out (Sha’ar Hatziyun 309:17). So you should be able to leave the car seat in the stroller. Yet there is still a problem. What is the nature of the permission to keep the muktzeh in a case of damage? Is it because when one pushes muktzeh and non-muktzeh together, it is a permissible act unless one refuses the opportunity to remove the muktzeh? Or is it considered moving muktzeh, but it is permitted because of the need? If the latter is true, then the need may be suspect here. After all, you want to create a situation where the car seat, which you may not move to protect, is on the stroller so that you have an excuse not to shake it off. Indeed, Tosafot and the Ritva (on Shabbat 142a) say that carrying the basket with the fruit and stone is carrying muktzeh and is permitted only because of need. (The Rambam, Shabbat 25:16 can be explained either way- Chazon Ish, OC 47:22). We have not found a source discussing purposely creating a “joint basket” of muktzeh and non-muktzeh before Shabbat, and our inclination is that it is not proper. There are those who permit moving a ksl’i if one puts a non-muktzeh object on it (Shul. Ar. 308:5; see MB, ad. loc.). Another possible but not unanimous idea for a fold-up car seat is to carry it in a backpack from before Shabbat. This is because one may continue carrying a ksl’i when he started doing so permissibly (see MB 308:13, SSK 20:26 and sources cited there). Thus, we cannot rule out the grounds and means for leniency, especially in a case of need. Calling OverSeas when it is ShabbatI live in Israel but have a business in America. I speak with some of my managers after work hours. May I call non-Jewish workers on Saturday night, which is still Shabbat in America?It is correct to ask only about non-Jewish workers, as speaking to Jewish workers clearly violates, “lifnei iver lo titen michshol” (not causing one to sin). A non-Jew is obviously not doing anything wrong, but would you violate the rabbinic prohibition against enlisting a non-Jew to do work for you on Shabbat (amira l’nuchri)? One might claim that since at the time you want to talk to the non-Jew, it is not Shabbat for you, the laws of Shabbat, including amira l’nuchri, do not bind you. However, we find that it is forbidden to ask a non-Jew before Shabbat to do work for you on Shabbat (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 307:2). In Bemareh Habazak (V, 43) we dealt with this issue by breaking amira l’nuchri down into its components. There are three basic reasons brought to forbid amira l’nuchri. One is that it violates the rule that one may not discuss matters that pertain to activities that are inappropriate on Shabbat, including melachot (forbidden activities on Shabbat) (Rashi, Avoda Zara 15a). This element stresses the Jew’s involvement and is thus not an issue in our case. After all, your call, which you make after Shabbat, is appropriate for you. Another rationale for amira l’nuchri is that when a non-Jew does work at a Jew’s behest, it is, on a certain level, as if the Jew is doing it through his agent (Rashi, Shabbat 153a). This also should not be a problem, as even if you were to do the melacha yourself at the time that the non-Jew does it on your behalf, it would be permitted, as Shabbat is finished. The Rambam (Shabbat 6:1) has another opinion regarding the idea of amira l’nuchri. He says that it is “so that Shabbat will not be light in their eyes, and they [the Jews] will come to do it themselves.” This also seems to not apply, as one who waits until after Shabbat to ask a non-Jew is not treating Shabbat lightly. Despite all of this, Rav Zilberstein (Melachim Omnayich 3:(15)) entertains the possibility that it is forbidden for a Jew to ask a non-Jew to do melacha for him when it is Shabbat only in the non-Jew’s place. He tries to prove that a non-Jew’s work on Shabbat is considered a (permitted) violation of Shabbat. His proof is from the halacha (Shulchan Aruch, OC 298:5) that one cannot make a beracha at Havdalah on a candle that a non-Jew lit on Shabbat, because it is a “light that did not rest.” He does not fully explain his reasoning, but one could explain the stringency in two ways. First of all, the Rabbis forbade asking a non-Jew, even before Shabbat, to do melacha on Shabbat. Our case may fit under that prohibition’s parameters, and it may not make a difference whether or not the prohibition’s logic applies. (One of the most complicated issues in halacha is if and when a rabbinic injunction that was made under certain circumstances applies to cases where the original logic doesn’t apply.) Another explanation may be based on the Rambam, that treating Shabbat lightly, by having a non-Jew do work on one’s behalf, can lead to real violations. It is possible that as long as it is Shabbat in the non-Jew’s place, there is an element of taking lightly. In the final analysis there is an understandable consensus of recent poskim that our case is permitted (see Bemareh Habazak, ibid.; Yisrael V’hazemanim 34:4) because the logic of the prohibition of amira l’nuchri does not apply. We offer one proviso. If it is publicly known that it is a Jewish-owned business, then even non-Jewish workers should not do work on the premises when it is Shabbat locally, even if it is not Shabbat for the owner (Chelkat Ya’akov, OC 87). This is because the problem of work being done at such a business (Shulchan Aruch, OC 243) is based on the wrong impression to the public (marit ha’ayin), and that depends on the local populace. Beracha on Drinking for a Medical TestWe have developed a diagnostic tool that works as follows. After a full fast of several hours, one drinks a tasteless powder dissolved in a cup of water. A few minutes later, he breathes into a special machine that detects if various organs are working healthily. Does one make a beracha before and/or after drinking the water? Can he drink a little, regular water first to remove the doubt regarding the beracha?The gemara (Berachot 35a) says that we must make a beracha before eating, because one may not benefit from the world before thanking Hashem. However, Chazal, who instituted the specific rules and texts of berachot, did so regarding specific types of benefit. For the type of benefits that one receives from food, there are berachot. For medicinal benefits, no berachot were instituted (Berachot 36a). The main benefit of food responsible for its berachot is its taste (the poskim call it hana’at hacheich, benefit of the palate). Because of the beracha-related importance of taste, if one eats a food for medicinal reasons but also has taste enjoyment from it, he recites the food’s regular beracha (ibid.). Water is an exception to the rule in this regard, because it is assumed to lack a positive taste. So why do we ever make a beracha on water? The mishna (ibid. 44a) says that one recites a beracha on water when he drinks it to quench his thirst. The gemara (ibid. 44b) says that this is as opposed to a case where one drinks to rinse down something that is caught in his throat. The gemara does not say what happens if one drinks water not because of thirst and not to get something out of his throat but for another reason. However, the poskim’s consensus is that only if the water acts to quench thirst does one make a beracha (Biur Halacha on Orach Chayim 204:7). Therefore, if one drinks water to swallow a pill he does not make a beracha before or after drinking (Pitchei Halacha, Berachot p. 135). (We cannot get into all the cases where poskim discuss whether the need to drink water fits into the category of thirst or not.) Generally, quenching thirst regarding water is parallel to providing taste for food. Therefore, it is logical that if one drinks water for medicinal purposes but also is thirsty, then he does make a beracha, as the Mishna Berura (204:41) confirms. However, the difference between water and a tasty food or drink is as follows. When a tasty food is taken for medicinal purposes, our standard assumption is that he will have taste benefit as well. However, the standard assumption is that if one is not aware of being thirsty, the medicinal drinking of water will not provide the type of thirst benefit that warrants a beracha (see Mishna Berura ibid.:40). In your case, the water with powder is drunk for medicinal purposes (it makes no difference whether it is therapeutic or diagnostic). However, since the people being tested fast for several hours before drinking, one can assume that they are thirsty as well. Thus, unless one notes that he is not thirsty, he should make a beracha before and after drinking the water. If one is not sure about the matter, he cannot solve the problem by your suggestion of drinking water before. This is because water drunk in order to solve a halachic problem is not water for thirst and does not get a beracha (Biur Halacha, ibid.). This is, in general, important to remember. Often, a person does not know what beracha to make on a food and wants to solve the problem by making Shehakol on water and covering the food in question. Based on what we have seen, if he is not thirsty, that beracha on the water is itself a beracha l’vatala (a valueless beracha, which is forbidden to make). If those being tested are allowed to eat a small amount of something else, that would be a way of removing doubt. After the test, one can drink as much as he wants to remove doubt about a beracha afterward. However, in most cases, one can confidently make the berachot. Third Person of a ZimunI know that in order to answer to a zimun (a joint bentching, or reciting of Birkat Hamazone) the third person needed does not have the same requirements as the first two. Could you give me some specific parameters?You are correct that there is a difference between the first two and a third. This is primarily because two who ate together form the basis of the zimun, even though they need a third in order to actually do the zimun. The main distinctions are in the following areas, which we present one by one. Looking for a zimun- It is desirable for two who eat together to make some effort (within reason) to include a third to eat with them so that they can make a zimun (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 193:2). Similarly, seven should preferably look for another three to do a zimun of ten, with Hashem’s name (Mishna Berura 193:12). We do not find that one has any reason to look for another two for a zimun. Forcing a third to answer- If two are interested in bentching and the third is not, the two can require the third to take part in a zimun (Shulchan Aruch 200:1). Even if the third does not respond, they fulfill their obligation of zimun, although the third does not, if he did not respond (Mishna Berura 200:3). One person who is ready for Birkat Hamzone cannot demand of the other two to answer for him, although they can if they want. If one bentched without waiting- If three ate together and bentched without a zimun, they lost the opportunity to do so, even if one of them has not yet bentched. However, if only one bentched and two did not, then they can do a zimun, which the third can respond to even after having bentched (Shulchan Aruch 194:1). However, if the third ate something other than bread and recited a beracha acharona (blessing after eating), they cannot include him in the zimun (Mishna Berura 197:9). What they ate- Zimun is only for Birkat Hamazone and not for other berachot acharanot. Thus, two must have eaten at least a c’zayit (app. half a slice) of bread. However, a third person can answer the zimun even after having any food or drink, other than water (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 197:2). However, some Rishonim say that this is the case only regarding turning a regular zimun into a zimun of ten. According to them, if two ate bread and one ate fruit, they cannot do a zimun (ibid.). To stay out of doubt, Sephardim avoid the situation where two who eat bread together invite a third to eat something other than bread (other grain products are a question). If it happened that two ate bread and one ate something else, then they should do a zimun (ibid.). The minhag among Ashkenazim is that if the third prefers not eating bread, it is fine to give him something else to eat or drink and use him for the zimun (Mishna Berura 197:22). Joining after the first two basically finished eating- The three must be united in their eating in some way, in terms of time and place. Yet if two ate together and a third came after they finished eating but had not yet bentched, he can create a zimun with them under the following circumstances. That which the third needs to eat is as above. Even if the two are not going to eat any more, they can still be united in their meal if they halachically may eat and would eat at least a little more if they were served particularly tasty food (Shulchan Aruch 197:1). If they already made preparations for Birkat Hamazone that preclude their continuing the meal (such as mayim acharonim- the details are beyond our present scope) then they cannot do zimun together. In a case where the two are still considered within their meal and the third concludes what he is eating, they may not bentch without zimun. However, if the group neither started nor finished together, they need not do a zimun (Mishna Berura 193:19). However, if they want to do the zimun, the two may use the latecomer even if he has not concluded eating (Piskei Teshuvot 193:6). Making Early ShabbatIt is important for my small children that we make “early Shabbos” (daven Ma’ariv an hour or so before sunset). I feel funny doing so, because it compromises the correct time of davening, which I am careful about. What should I do? Is it better to accept Shabbat early, make Kiddush, eat, and catch Ma’ariv with the late minyan?There is a machloket among Tannaim whether the cut-off between the times of Mincha and Ma’ariv is nightfall or plag hamincha (=pl ham- a proportional hour and a quarter before night) (Berachot 26a). There is also a post-Talmudic machloket whether night begins basically at sunset (G’ra) with bein hash’mashot (halachic twilight) or around an hour later (Rabbeinu Tam). Our communities primarily follow the G’ra that sunset is the main cut-off time. We regularly daven Mincha until sunset and Ma’ariv somewhat afterward. The gemara (ibid. 27a) is flexible regarding the earliest time for Ma’ariv, saying that one can follow either opinion in the machloket of whether the cut-off is night or pl ham. The Shulchan Aruch (OC 233:1) says that one should be consistent about which opinion he follows. Places that daven Mincha until night, should not daven Maariv at that time, barring a situation of specific need (sh’at had’chak). We admire that you try to avoid using a leniency that was accepted only in a sh’at had’chak. However, let us discuss your specific question. The Shulchan Aruch (267:2) says that at Shabbat’s entrance, we daven Ma’ariv earlier than during the week. The Mishna Berura (=MB) (ad loc.:2) explains that we rely on the lenient opinion regarding the earliest time for Ma’ariv to gain the halachic benefits of accepting Shabbat early. The Magen Avraham (ad loc.:1) suggests that because of changes on Shabbat in the service in the Beit Hamikdash that Ma’ariv mirrors, there is an inherent reason to daven Ma’ariv earlier. If we accept the concept that it can be done before halachic night, it should be permitted from pl ham. The MB (233:11) does warn that on a day that we allow Ma’ariv to be done from pl ham, we should be careful to daven Mincha before pl ham to avoid an internal contradiction (tarti d’satri). Even though he raises the possibility of allowing tarti d’satri in certain cases of need, especially on Shabbat, he objects to it being as early as we are discussing (MB 267:3). Let us move on to practical halacha. We believe that if starting one’s Shabbat early during the summer brings significant enhancement, this is sufficient grounds to make “early Shabbos.” If this is the only practical way to meaningfully include one’s children, this is reason to prefer, if not require, doing so. Every father, or probably better, mother, should decide what works for the family. Furthermore, realize that there is an old minhag to make Shabbat Ma’ariv relatively early and a widespread minhag in many communities to do so from pl ham. Just as we take a minhag of strictness seriously, so too we take one of leniency (or one with elements of leniency) seriously. Your idea of accepting Shabbat (after having davened Mincha), eating, and joining a late minyan for Ma’ariv will solve some time problems. (Why Kiddush can be done early is beyond our present scope). The MB (271:11) says that one may do this, if he starts eating a half-hour before night, as otherwise he should wait to daven Ma’ariv. (There is an issue for standard “early Shabbos,” of eating a half-hour before the time for Kri’at Shema, which one recited too early. However, there may be relatively more room for leniency there- see Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 47:(106). Other ideas for leniency in the matter are beyond our scope). Kaf Hachayim 272:3 does cite the Ari’s kabbalistically-based objection to switching the order of Ma’ariv and Kiddush. To us, a greater issue is that the minhag in our communities is to do early Shabbat one way, and going out of one’s way to do it differently can potentially be divisive. If you want to use your system discretely, you have the right to do so, but we should not be the one’s to teach new minhagim. Folding Pages of a SeferIs it permitted to fold the pages of a sefer to make it easier to find a certain page, in place of a bookmark?We have not found a discussion of this particular question, but various sources and ideas on the topic of treating sefarim respectfully should enlighten the matter. The general laws of respect for sifrei Torah are discussed in a few places, including Orach Chayim 154 and Yoreh Deah 282. It is accepted that they apply to printed Torah sefarim of various sorts (see Pitchei Teshuva 282:8; Mishna Berura 154:31), although they are on a lower level of kedusha. The basic question is whether a sefer should be used for a Torah-related use, when an unholy object could be used to do the same thing. The Taz (YD 282:13) forbids using one sefer to raise another one to make it easier to learn from, because he is using something holy for a use for which “wood or stone” works just as well. One can claim that using a sefer’s page as its own bookmark is likewise objectionable. In one way it is better in that the sefer is being used for the purpose of its own use, not to service a different object. Nevertheless, the Taz’s claim that the use of a sefer instead of a mundane object, despite the noble gain intended, is problematic seems to apply. On the other hand, the Taz is probably not grounds to outlaw the practice of folding pages. The Magen Avraham (Yoreh Deah 154:14) argues with the Taz and allows one to bring over a sefer in order to prop up another sefer. His main source is the gemara (Megilla 26b) that one may move over a bima to a place where its presence will prevent tuma (impurity) from entering a beit knesset. One can learn the Magen Avraham in a limiting manner, allowing use of a holy object only if it is not clear why one is bringing it over. However, the context and language of the Chayei Adam (31:48) and Mishna Berura (154:31) indicate that they understand the Magen Avraham in an inclusive manner that applies to our case and agree with him. Nor do they mention that it is permissible only when no other alternative is available. In other words, if the use is not in and of itself degrading to the sefer and the fact that it is being used at all is to aid in a mitzva-oriented activity, it is permitted. If one does the folding carefully, one can all but eliminate the question. There is a machloket among poskim whether the margins of sefarim are holy. Although the margins of a sefer Torah are holy (see Magen Avraham 334:24), the Masat Binyamin (100) says that this applies only to holy parchments, which have a halachic requirement of a margin, not to printed materials. Even according to those who argue, the margins may only have the sanctity of a tashmish kedusha (something which serves a holy object, namely the book’s words) (Tzedaka U’mishpat 16:29 in the name of B’nei Yona). If that is the case, then it is logical that serving the holy text, by helping one find the place, is an appropriate use of the margin. Thus, even the Taz should allow folding the margin alone. (It should not make a difference if by doing so, some of the text is covered.) The remaining question is whether the bending of the page, which leaves a mark, is considered a bizayon (disgrace) for the sefer. Everyone agrees that a sefer should be cherished and preserved. For many, that means that one should be very careful that it not be creased or overly worn. Others feel that a worn looking gemara is a used looking gemara, and that is beautiful, not disgraceful. The fact is that there are many talmidei chachamim who fold the pages of their sefarim and many who do not, and we have no authority or interest to create new prohibitions that do not emerge clearly from classical sources. That being said, our orientation is that as long as bookmarks exist, they are preferable to folding the pages. Shabbat Erev PesachWhat do you suggest we do on Erev Pesach this year, which is on Shabbat, regarding when and what to eat?Challa, the staple of the first two Shabbat meals, is also preferred for seudah shlishit (Shulchan Aruch, OC 291:5), which should be held in the afternoon (ibid.:2). Since the prohibition to eat chametz begins after "four hours" (around two hours before halachic midday- consult a local calendar) something must give. Among the valid solutions to the challenges of Erev Pesach on Shabbat, people must determine the most practical solutions, as much as their rabbis have to present the halachic possibilities. One practical assumption is that people will use only Pesachdik and/or disposable utensils, keeping remaining chametz separate. Let's take a meal-by-meal look. Friday night meal - Halachically, almost anything goes. Those who don't want to worry about keeping chametz around can eat matza according to most poskim. If one has the minhag not to eat matza from the beginning of Nisan, matza ashira, often called "egg matza," is an alternative. Shabbat morning meal - If one finishes eating chametz (not necessarily the whole meal) by the end of the 4th hour, accomplished by davening very early, matters are halachically simple. (How to get rid of crumbs or leftovers by the end of the 5th hour is very solvable, but beyond our present scope.) Matza is desirable for situations when it is hard or nerve-racking to deal with chametz. However, Chazal forbade eating matza on Erev Pesach, according to most, from the beginning of the morning, so that when we eat it at the seder, it will be clear that it is for the mitzva (see Rambam, Chametz U'matza 6:12). It is permitted to eat matza that cannot be used for the mitzva (Shulchan Aruch 471:2). Matza ashira, which is kneaded with liquids other than water, is the main example (see Pesachim 35a). If it contains no water, then most Rishonim rule that it cannot become chametz, which could take away the need to rush. Yet there are two issues. Firstly, as Ashkenazim are stringent to treat matza ashira as possible chametz, which is permitted to eat on Pesach only in cases of great need (Rama 462:4), the time issue reawakens. (Some poskim rely on the Noda B'yehuda (I, OC 21) that it is sufficient to be wary of matza ashira no earlier than midday of Erev Pesach). Secondly, matza ashira may have a status of pat haba'ah b'kisnin, similar to cake, making it a questionable substitute for challa. (Igrot Moshe OC I, 155 explains that this is not a problem on Shabbat, but still seems to prefer challa when it is convenient. To see Rav O. Yosef's preferred solution, see Yechave Da'at I, 91). Seuda shlishit (ss)- We mentioned the two preferred opinions about how to perform ss, which conflict this Shabbat. One is to eat bread at ss. The other is to have ss after midday, at which time chametz and matza are forbidden, and even matza ashira is a problem for Ashkenazim. The Rama (444:1) says that we eat other foods, such as fruit or meat, at this ss. The Mishna Berura (444:8) cites a different solution, of breaking up the morning meal into two, so that one can fulfill ss on challah or matza ashira at that time. He points out that there should be some break between the two meals, to avoid a problem of an unnecessary beracha. However, he does not say how long that should be. Opinions range from a few minutes to half an hour, with some suggesting taking a short walk in between (see Piskei Teshuvot 444:6). One who is not usually careful to have challa at ss throughout the year need not consider this idea. He can eat a normal ss for him (no bread) in the afternoon, preferably earlier than usual to leave a good appetite for the seder. Even those who are stringent about ss can feel fine about following the Rama over the Mishna Berura's suggestion, which is somewhat counter-intuitive and not without halachic problems. Sephardim, who can use matza ashira, must do so before 3 hours before sunset (Shulchan Aruch 471:2). Non-Jewish Caregiver and Food PreparationWe hired a Philippine caregiver to live with my mother, who is barely mobile. Until now, others have cooked most of her food. Can the caregiver now cook or at least reheat the food?We hope that the caregiver will give your mother the help she needs. Most Philippine caregivers are kind and cooperative about following the home’s rules, including kashrut. It is best for all when the rules avoid creating undue pressure, and a good relationships is crucial for the welfare of an infirmed dear one. On the other hand, halacha requires precautions and not relying on general impressions. Sometimes more restrictive rules that are simpler to follow work better than following more complex leniencies, which can cause mistakes and the tensions that come with subsequent scrutinizing and perceived recriminations. While we hope to find a golden mean for your situation, there is room for adjustments and further allowances if the situation warrants them. The basic rules of bishul akum (cooking done by a non-Jew) can be said in a sentence. A non-Jew may not cook food that is not eaten raw, turning it into first-class food, without a Jew’s involvement in the process. Let’s deal very briefly with each component. Cooking- Smoking food is permitted (Shulchan Aruch, YD 113:13). Poskim discuss if microwaving is permitted. While few permit it, it can be a mitigating factor (see Yabia Omer V, YD 9). Not eaten raw- If a non-Jew cooks food that is sometimes eaten raw, even if it is usually cooked, the food is permitted (ibid.:1). A non-Jew may reheat food that a Jew already rendered edible. Not only are boiled milk and water permitted for this reason, but so are coffee and tea, whose principle ingredient is water (Yechave Da’at IV:42). Carrots are another classic example. First-class food- Only food that nobility would serve is included in the prohibition (Shulchan Aruch, ibid.). This subjective criterion likely excludes farina/oatmeal, French-fries and more. The latter categories are society based; many cases are borderline or based on machloket. Thus, we gave few details and warn about over-use. The next category enables developing a reliable plan. Involvement of a Jew- Regarding the related prohibition of bread baked by a non-Jew, the gemara (Avoda Zara 38b) says that it is sufficient for a Jew to light the oven’s fire. The Shulchan Aruch (ibid.: 7) and Sephardic practice, regarding the more stringent laws of bishul akum, require a Jew to put the food on the fire (or light the fire after the food was put there) or stir the food as it cooks. The Rama (ad loc.) and Ashkenazic practice say that a Jew may light a flame, even at the beginning of the day, and have the non-Jew do all of the actual cooking. Furthermore, the Rama suggests having a Jew light the flame used to light the stove. Some apply this leniency to ovens with pilot lights. We can also use it to have a Jew light a “yahrtzeit candle” to light (the match that lights) a gas stove. The Aruch Hashulchan (113:44) says that one should rely on this last opinion only in a case of acute need and in the home of a Jew, but both lenient factors are present here. The significance of it being in a Jewish house is two-fold. Firstly, it is likely that a Jew will do some stirring (Rama 113:4) and also there is an opinion (Tosafot Avoda Zara 37a) that bishul akum applies only to cooking in a non-Jew’s house. Although we do not accept that opinion independently, poskim sometimes use it as a supporting leniency, especially if the one cooking is a hired worker (see Shach 113:7). (Yechave Da’at V, 54 uses that leniency as support regarding Sephardim relying on a Jew lighting the fire in a Jewish-owned restaurant). A Jew would have to turn on electrical appliances. Due to a few kashrut considerations, it is best that the caregiver brings home only kosher food. For cooking, there are two preferable systems. If your mother can be in or around the kitchen, she can supervise its proper use (especially milk-meat) and light the fire. If she rarely gets out of bed, it is best if the food is cooked by a Jew or when one is around. If the caregiver demands freedom to cook for herself, she should have her own clearly marked utensils, which she must clean separately. Eating After Kiddush on ShabbatWhen taking part in a kiddush after davening on Shabbat morning, what are the requirements of how much of what food(s) I have to eat?We will start with the background and the standard instructions for eating after making or hearing kiddush. We will then see some points of possible leniency. It is noteworthy that common practice is to employ leniency regarding this kiddush, and that Poskim confirm the appropriateness of that tendency. Although the basic principles are much the same for kiddush at night and day, the practice and the lenient approach is much more prevalent in the kiddush of the day, to which our discussion is limited. The gemara (Pesachim 101a) brings the opinion of a few Amoraim that kiddush needs to be made at the place of a meal, and the Shulchan Aruch (Orach Chayim 273:3) rules this way . The source is the pasuk in Yeshaya (58:13), “and you shall call Shabbat a delight,” from which we derive that the proclamation of the day of Shabbat (kiddush) should be connected to partaking in delights (a meal). Yet, in describing an actual case, the gemara talks about tasting something after kiddush, from which halachists of all generations understood that a full meal is not necessary to validate the kiddush. But the question remains: how much is needed and of what foods? The Tur (Orach Chayim 273) cites the Geonim as follows: “Even if he ate a little bit or drank a cup of wine upon which he is required to make a beracha, he fulfilled [the obligation of] kiddush ... but only if he ate bread or drank wine, but fruit, no.” The Acharonim (including the Magen Avraham 273:10) reason that the need to have enough for a beracha must refer to the beracha after eating, as before eating, one requires a beracha on any amount. The amount one needs to eat is, therefore, a c’zayit (the size of an olive, or, roughly, 1 fl.oz.) of solid food or a revi’it (roughly, 3 fl. oz.) of wine. (One can argue that revi’it is too much or too little (see Mishna Berura 273:22, 29). We anyway advise avoiding using wine or grape juice to fulfill the meal requirement, because at many(/most?) public kiddushes there is not sufficient wine for many people to drink so much. Of course, derech eretz is an important concern from any healthy, Jewish perspective.) The Magen Avraham (ibid.:11) uses the Geonim’s logic to extend the list of foods one can eat. This is because food made from the five major, grain species are more meal-like than wine, as we find in the context of the requirements of seuda shlishit. Most Acharonim assume that such foods need not be pat haba’ah b’kisnin (cake and the like, which are closer to bread). Rather, any food that gets the beracha acharona of “al hamichya” suffices (see Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 54:22). The preceding are the standard recommendations for meeting the halachic requirements of kiddush. However, we want to mention some less standard, yet legitimate, lenient positions. The Chayei Adam (6:22) says that if one is somewhat weak and does not have grain-based food, he can rely on the opinion that even fruit (or, apparently, any food) is sufficient. The Sha’arei Teshuva (273:7) says that every person who wants to use the kiddush to eat and/or to fulfill the mitzva must himself eat the requisite amount of the correct foods. However, B’tzel Hachuchma (IV, 2) brings a minority view that it is sufficient for one person from a group that took part (recited or listened) in a given recitation of kiddush to eat. Once someone connects the kiddush to a meal, others can rely on the kiddush without connecting it to their own meal. One should know these opinions before correcting others (which should generally be avoided when not absolutely necessary) and to use in extenuating circumstances. Several poskim indicate that circumstances need not be dire in order to apply reasonable leniency in this matter, which, while we do not treat it lightly, is not a particularly severe area of halacha. Such situations include (but are not limited to) cases where there is not enough cake for all or when a person has health concerns about eating carbohydrates at that time. Bread KnifeMany people have a special, pareve bread knife. Is that halachically required?The application of the halacha in this matter has developed over time. After seeing relevant halachic sources, we can discuss the phenomenon of which this practice is a part. A knife creates special kashrut concerns for two reasons. 1) The action of cutting involves friction, which aids in transferring taste between foods and utensils (see Chulin 8b). 2) It often has grease residue that is hard to detect and clean (see Avoda Zara 76b & Rashi, Chulin 112a). One or both factors are responsible for the need for a butcher to use three knives (Chulin 8b) and for the following passage in the Shulchan Aruch (Yoreh Deah 89:4): “It is forbidden to cut cheese (even if cold) with a knife that is usually used to cut meat. Furthermore, even bread that is eaten with cheese, you should not cut with a knife used for cutting meat. Rama: …However, by plunging [the knife] into hard earth it is permitted, but all of Israel already has the practice to have two knives and to mark one of them…” What is halachically important is that one not cut the bread with a knife of the opposite type from that of the meal he is eating. One may cut bread for a dairy meal with a dairy knife and vice versa. (It is generally forbidden to bake milchig or fleishig bread (Shulchan Aruch, YD 97:1). However, in addition to several exceptions mentioned ad loc., there is generally no requirement that bread remain pareve until eaten.) However, more recent Acharonim, starting with the Pri Chadash 89:24 (300 years ago) and picking up steam since, cite and praise the practice of “those who are careful” to have three knives, including a pareve one to cut bread. Few sources discuss the exact reason, but we can mention a sampling among several, practical advantages. One does not have to remember what knife he used to cut the bread. There is no fear that after cutting off half a loaf at a dairy meal, he may eat the soiled other half at a meat meal. The exact reason can affect our application of the practice of using a pareve knife. While there is logic to trying to answer specific questions like whether one needs to use the pareve knife if he plans to finish the loaf in one sitting (as Badei Hashulchan on 89:4 attempts), it almost misses the point, as we will explain. Our Rabbis throughout the ages have tried to create halachot to reduce chances that people will sin wantonly or accidentally. Their binding g’zeirot (injunctions) take on many forms. Yet there are areas of potential pitfalls in which, for various reasons, they decided not to legislate prohibitions. On the other hand, punctilious individuals or groups may develop practices and arrangements to avoid certain situations as a matter of policy, not halacha. This is the case with the pareve knife, which at this point in history, in our communities, is rabbinical encouraged but not mandated. In fact, it is possible that the practice developed from wise housewives rather than poskim. In general, the concept of pareve utensils is rarely mentioned in classical halachic literature. It is a logical kashrut convenience and precaution that developed, aided by changing socio-economic factors. A similar thing can be said about switching all utensils for Pesach, rather than kashering. In kitchens that have every imaginable convenience, doesn’t it make sense to have pareve knives to make careful compliance to the laws of kashrut easier? The practical difference of viewing the issue of a pareve knife as policy rather than halacha is that it is up to the individual and that he also should use common sense to fit his situation. For example, it would be counterproductive to be “machmir” to keep a “pareve” knife in the middle of a fleishig table to make sure that no one cuts bread with a flesihig knife when children with grimy, fleishig fingers will make it dirty. More importantly, one should not look askance at someone who does not have or use a pareve bread knife. Apparently, the Rama didn’t use one either. Vegan Diet on PesachI am asking this question for a cousin in the San Francisco area. She is on a vegan diet because of illness and is about to undergo serious surgery which will debilitate her until around Pesach time. She is concerned about how she will maintain her vegan diet during Pesach. She is involved with a shul in the area, but it is not orthodox and she wants to eat halachically correctly on Pesach. I know that, if health is a concern, kitnios may be eaten on Pesach. Would this apply to her case and what would she need to know about this? Is there a publication that outlines the laws of eating kitnios on Pesach for those of Ashkenazi descent?The prohibition of eating kitnios does not apply to a sick person, even one who is not in danger of their life, if by eating the kitnios one can become stronger. It is preferable to eat all other kinds of kitnios rather than rice, millet or a grain that looks like corn. It is important to check the kitnios before eating them. Kiddush on ShabbatI thought that one must make Kiddush on Shabbat morning by chatzot (astronomical midday). However, I cannot find a source for such a halacha. Does one exist?Your impression has a basis but is not precise. Let us explain. We fulfill the main mitzva of Kiddush on Shabbat at night by making a special beracha (“mekadesh hashabbat”) in tefilla and before eating. In the daytime Kiddush (called Kiddusha Rabba- Pesachim 106a) the main element is to add prominence to the meal by beginning it with wine (Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 50:4) [or possibly a substitute- beyond our present scope]. If, for whatever reason, one did not make Kiddush at the morning meal, then he begins Seuda Shlishit with Kiddush (Sha’ar Hatziyun 291:9). The time element of Kiddush is not an independent issue. Rather, whenever the first Shabbat day meal is, Kiddush should precede it. So the question is whether the meal must be started by chatzot. There are classical sources that talk about the three meals of Shabbat taking place at night, in the morning, and in the afternoon, respectively (Shabbat 117b; Rambam, Shabbat 30:9). However, it is not clear whether the stated times are halachic requirements, assumptions, or suggestions. There is significant discussion among poskim on the questions of whether the first meal must be at night and the third must be in the afternoon. In contrast, there is little discussion about whether the second meal must begin in the morning and the practice is not to be concerned of any such requirement. See an interesting discussion of possible reasons for this phenomenon in Yisrael V’haz’manim (vol. I pp. 432-438). The more serious problem is that of fasting on Shabbat. All agree that under normal circumstances it is forbidden to fast on Shabbat, the day the Torah (Shemot 16:25) and Navi (Yeshaya 58:13) refer to as a day of eating and indulging. The Shulchan Aruch (Orach Chayim 288:1) says that one may not fast on Shabbat until the end of six hours (a standard term for chatzot), even if he does intend to fast (Magen Avraham & Mishna Berura 288:1). The Rama (288:1) rejects the minority opinion (see Beit Yosef, ad loc.) that one who is preoccupied with tefilla or Torah study need not be concerned. So, since one must eat by the end of six hours and he may not eat or drink before Kiddush (Shulchan Aruch, OC 289:1) he ostensibly has no choice but to make Kiddush by chatzot. Of course, this problem is equally solved even if one makes Kiddush before eating cake; he does not need challot at that time. However, there are grounds and means for leniency (if you call not eating, leniency). Most commentators (including Taz 288:1) say that the significance of six hours into the day is that after that time the stomach is so empty that it is not receptive to food, a situation to avoid all week long. The Magen Avraham (157:1) and Mishna Berura (157:2) say that the six hours (z’maniyot), in this regard, are calculated from the time a person awakens. This solves the problem for those who start eating late because shul starts late. However, it is possible that there is an independent problem of fasting until midday, even if one has not been up for six hours (note the aforementioned’s silence in siman 288 and see K’tzotz Hashulchan 90:1 & footnote 1). However, one can remedy this by drinking a cup of water or tea before the beginning of tefilla, after which it is no longer considered a fast. It is unclear whether this also remedies the problem of the empty stomach (see ibid.). In summary, Kiddush per se need not be done by chatzot, but there is an issue not to fast. As most people eat within six hours of awakening, it is possible that there is no problem, and, if there is, it can be remedied by drinking before tefilla. Eating New Fruit During the Three WeeksWhy is eating new fruit considered such a pleasure that it is forbidden during the Three Weeks (between 17 Tammuz and 9 Av)? Also, is it permitted on Shabbat?As far as the actual practices of the Three Weeks and the Nine Days, we would prefer not to rule definitively, as the practices depend very much on family and/or community minhag. These are best dealt with on the more local level. However, it is worthwhile to remove some confusion on the source, rationale, and parameters of this halacha/minhag. The issue is actually not the eating of the fruit per se but the fact that when eating new fruit one is required to make the beracha of Shehechiyanu. The wording of that beracha implies that we are happy to have reached this period of time, but the sadness of this time of the year makes it inappropriate to make such a statement. The source is actually post-Talmudic (as is not uncommon in these halachot). The Sefer Chasidim (840) says: “There are pious ones from the early pious people who would not eat any new fruit between 17 Tammuz and 9 Av, for they said: how can we make the blessing that ‘He gave us life, sustained us, and allowed us to reach this time.’ There are those who make the beracha on new fruit when they came across them on the Shabbatot between 17 Tammuz and 9 Av.” The Shulchan Aruch (Orach Chayim 551:17) phrases it as follows: “It is good to be careful not to say “Shehechiyanu” on fruit and clothes during the Three Weeks, but on a Pidyon Haben you say it and do not lose out on the mitzva.” The weak language of these sources makes it sound as less than a standard halacha or even minhag. The G’ra (ad loc.) calls this practice an extreme stringency. He proves that even a mourner on the day of a parent’s death is permitted to make Shehechiyanu if the need arises, and therefore, there is no way that the Three Weeks could be more severe. The Magen Avraham (551:42) makes a fundamental distinction that many accept (but the G’ra does not). He says that it is not that a person should be in too sad a state to make Shehechiyanu, but that the period of time is a tragic one. The Three Weeks is an objectively sad time for all, as opposed to the time of mourning where the individual is sad, but the time is a normal one. We should point out that the aforementioned sources do not say that it is impossible to make Shehechiyanu during this time, but that the situation should be avoided by not eating new fruit and wearing new clothes. (For clothes, there are additional problems during the Nine Days, beyond the issue of Shehechiyanu (see Shulchan Aruch, ibid.:6)). Not only do we say Shehechiyanu at a Pidyon Haben, but the Rama (551:17) says that if the only time the fruit will be available to make Shehechiyanu is during this time, then one does not lose the opportunity. One common occurrence where there is major discussion among poskim is, as you asked, on Shabbat. On one hand, even though laws of aveilut almost disappear on Shabbat, our issue is praising the time of year, which, despite Shabbat, is a problem during the Three Weeks. On the other hand, because of the mitzva of oneg Shabbat, we do not want to refrain from things that add to our enjoyment. While there is no clear consensus on the matter, different factors can help decide whether it is preferable to eat the foods and make Shehechiyanu or not (see Piskei Teshuvot 551:53). One is how close it is to Tisha B’av. Another is how important eating the new fruit is for the enjoyment of Shabbat. The most important thing, in general, in regard to the laws and customs of the Three Weeks is to keep things in perspective. While many of the specific customs are relatively recent and sometimes one can argue upon them halachically, there should be a pervasive atmosphere of dampened joy. The specific customs are important and often binding vehicles to that end, but the heart of the mitzva is the mood itself. Reading Parasha Sheets During DaveningYou and others publish parasha sheets, which are distributed in shul. You are probably aware that people read these at various times during davening. Is this proper?Reading divrei Torah (to which we will limit this answer) during davening raises several issues: 1) hefseik - an interruption in the midst of a mitzva or text where it is improper; 2) lack of concentration on the matter that one should be involved with; 3) creating a negative atmosphere or precedent, which may be copied improperly; 4) derech eretz. Let’s now analyze each issue. 1) Interruption - One may not speak even divrei Torah in the following places: a) Psukei D’zimra (Shulchan Aruch, OC 51:4); b) Kri’at Shma and its berachot- (Rama, OC 68:1); c) Shmoneh Esrei (see Orach Chayim, siman 104). However, according to most poskim, thinking or even reading is not considered a formal interruption. This is based on the rule “hirhur lav k’dibur” (thinking is not like speaking) - see Berachot 20b; Rama OC 68:1; Har Tzvi, OC 42. While it is proper to concentrate on tefilla during tefilla, reading is not a formal interruption (see a fascinating story about the Vilna Gaon, cited in Yabia Omer IV, OC, 8). 2,3) Lack of concentration, atmosphere – In the midst of Kri’at Hatorah (Shulchan Aruch 146:2; Biur Halacha, ad loc.), Kaddish, Kedusha, Shmoneh Esrei ... one should not be thinking about other things. Regarding Chazarat Hashatz (repetition of Shmoneh Esrei), Magen Avraham 124:8 brings two opinions as to whether it is permissible for one who will be careful to answer “amen” properly to learn. The Mishna Berura (124:17) prefers the strict opinion, out of fear that others will learn to abuse the leniency. Igrot Moshe (OC IV, 19) points out that there need to be at least nine people who are listening to every word in order to entertain such a leniency. In between aliyot one is permitted to learn, while being careful to stop as the next aliya begins (see Mishna Berura 146:6). Before the beginning of Chazarat Hashatz, most poskim permit silent learning. 4) As derech eretz kadma la’torah, it is improper to read during the d’var Torah of the rabbi or a fellow congregant. In summary, while parasha sheets are sometimes read at times when it is forbidden or questionable, they seem to have replaced a lot of talking and less holy thoughts in many of our shuls. Therefore, on the whole, they seem to have added more to the spirituality of our batei knesset than they have detracted. (“Hemdat Yamim” oto karata - at the right time). Hearing Aids on ShabbatIs it permitted to use a hearing aid on Shabbat or do the electrical workings make it forbidden or problematic?While there is what to discuss from a halachic perspective, all of the major poskim who discuss it, permit it. They were well aware that a hearing aid is used in case of significant need and that people see it as an exceptional situation. This helps explain why it wasn’t forbidden or frowned upon despite the fact that it is a very similar mechanism to that of a microphone, which most poskim forbade. There are some poskim who included the need as an integral part of the lenient ruling (see Tzitz Eliezer VI,6) and others who made the absolute need a condition of the ruling (Minchat Yitzchak quotes Rav Henkin z.t.l., who suggests that only those who cannot hear at all without the hearing aid should use it). However, as we know, people who wear hearing aids do so only when the need is substantial, and the minhag has developed to allow them free use on Shabbat. We do not feel that this practice should be changed or discouraged, certainly not at the expense of their quality of life and enjoyment of Shabbat. We will deal now with some of the issues that arise. [We only have the liberty, in this context, to deal with these issues in a superficial manner, and request from our readers not to extrapolate from our discussion to other applications]. The first issue that is dealt with is of creating circuits, which could be a problem of boneh (building) or metaken manne (fixing a utensil). Indeed this is a problem (in one form and reason or another) when one turns on a battery operated device or shuts it off. Therefore, one should leave it on all of Shabbat. Another issue, is the fact that speaking causes there to be an increase in the current. It is far from clear that an increase in an existing current is considered creating something new. Even if it were, there is room for leniency because the change is on the level of something, which has no real substance and is fleeting in duration (Tzitz Eliezer, ibid.). There is a general problem with devices that produce sounds, whether they are included in the prohibition of using musical instruments (see Rama, Orach Chayim 338:1). There are several ways to deal with that question in our context. One is that the sound that is created is not heard to those standing around and but only by the person who wears it in his ear. Also, he who speaks does not come in direct contact with the instrument (see Chelkat Ya’akov OC 120). The fact that it is not generally audible has other advantages (see Shulchan Aruch, OC 252:5). A further question is whether, as a battery-operated device, which is usually used by turning on and off, it shouldn’t be muktzeh. Tzitz Eliezer has a variety of ways to deal with the issue. In summary, he feels that it is, at worst, a kli shemelachto l’issur (a utensil which is generally used by doing an action which is forbidden on Shabbat). Even such an item may be moved in order to use for a permitted purpose or because its place is needed (Shulchan Aruch, OC 308:3). In summary, while this response is not a exhaustive one which deals with the subject in depth or deals with every pertinent question that relates to the use of a hearing aid, we hope to have explained the basis for its use on Shabbat, in general. We think it also displays the interest of the poskim to find room for leniency in a case like this where the need is great, and despite the fact that one could have raised objections on several fronts. Making Late HavdalaMy wife did not feel well on Motzaei Shabbat and went to sleep before I made Havdala. I decided to wait for her, which ended up being until the next morning. Should I have made a full Havdala on Sunday, including the berachot on besamim and ner (Havdala candle)?There are a few questions to deal with here, starting with the question of whether you were correct to wait until the morning to make Havdala. We will assume a situation that you wife is fully capable of making her own Havdala without technical or emotional problems. It is true that it is preferable for a woman to hear Havdala from a man, because of the opinions that she is not obligated in Havdala (see Shulchan Aruch and Rama, Orach Chayim 296:8). However, if she needs to, she may make her own Havdala (ibid.; we wrote more on the topic in last year’s Hemdat Yamim for B’ha’alotcha). So, if there are no problems, it is best to wait for her, but we must see whether there are problems. All of the classical sources (from the gemara (Pesachim 106a) to the Shulchan Aruch (Orach Chayim 299:6)) talk about making Havdala on Motzaei Shabbat. The idea of making Havdala until Tuesday evening sounds as b’dieved (after the unfortunate fact). However, one can claim that the sources just describe the normal situation that one fulfills his mitzva within a reasonable amount of time and does not address a situation where there is reason to wait. There is an interesting machloket between the Rosh (Berachot 3:2) and Maharam (cited by the Rosh) about one who was exempt from Havdala on Motzaei Shabbat because he was awaiting a close relative’s funeral. Is he obligated to make Havdala after the funeral on Sunday? The Taz (Yoreh Deah 396:2) explains that the Rosh, who exempts the mourner, understands that the base obligation of Havdala is only on Motzaei Shabbat, and that which one has until Tuesday is because of tashlumin (making up missed obligations). In this case, there was no obligation of Havdala on Motzaei Shabbat, and he is exempt. The Maharam understands that the base obligation extends beyond Motzaei Shabbat, and the mourner starts his obligation after the burial. According to the Rosh, it should be very problematic to delay Havdala until the morning, unless there is no choice in the matter (and, in this case, there is a choice). However, it appears that we accept the approach of the Maharam as halacha (based on Shulchan Aruch, YD 341:2; see Yabia Omer V, OC 10, who discusses the various indications). A further complication is that one cannot eat or drink (except for water) before Havdala (Shulchan Aruch, OC 299:1). This is even the case upon awakening on Sunday morning, assuming one has the ability to make Havdala (Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 59:10). For Sefardim, the situation is even more problematic, because three pillars of recent Sefardic psak (Ben Ish Chai, Kaf Hachayim (299;26), R. Ovadia Yosef (Yabia Omer VI, 48.13)) rule that if one did eat before Havdala, he is able to make Havdala only if it is still Motzaei Shabbat. If one makes Havdala after Motzaei Shabbat, he does not make the berachot on the ner and besamim (Shulchan Aruch ibid.:5), because only Motzaei Shabbat is the time that fire was created and one needs to compensate for the let-down of the end of Shabbat (Mishna Berura, ad loc.). At first glance, he who waits until the next day will lose these berachot. However, it is possible to make the berachot without the rest of Havdala (Rama, OC 298:1). We conclude that it is halachically preferable for one not to wait until Sunday morning to make Havdala even if refrains from eating and even if it means that his wife will have to make it herself. Since both options are neither perfect nor halachically wrong, there may be circumstances where one will want to wait until the morning (except for the ner and besamim), while not eating. Working on Chol HamoedI am a social worker in a (Jewish) old-age home. I have a certain number of vacation days during the year, and I prefer to take them in the summer. May I work on Chol Hamoed in order to leave my vacation privileges for a different time?Two halachot, one permissive and one restrictive, are at the heart of this question, and we have to see how they interact in this case. The first is that one may do unskilled melacha (work forbidden on Yom Tov) on Chol Hamoed in order to provide for festival needs (tzurchei moed) (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 533:1). The second is that melacha done for tzurchei moed should be done by the one with the needs or by another on his behalf for free, not for pay (Shulchan Aruch, OC 542:1). Now let’s analyze and apply the principles to your case. Our assumption is that your presence at the old-age home on Chol Hamoed enhances the atmosphere for the residents (individually and/or collectively). Thus, any work that you need to do at the job or getting there is permitted, as tzurchei moed, assuming you can avoid skilled work (ma’ase uman), which would be permitted only for the communal needs (Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 68:6). (The qualification of skilled work applies to the technical aspect of the work. For example, writing in a sloppy manner is unskilled work even if one writes complex poetry.) The problem is that one should not be paid to do such work (as above), unless it is while performing community needs (ibid.) which, we imagine, your job includes but is not limited to. If you could do your job while avoiding melacha for the most part on those days then you could apply the Noda B’Yehuda’s leniency. He writes (ed. II, OC 104) that the prohibition of taking money for work on Chol Hamoed is only for melacha or arduous labor, but one can take money for non-melacha activity for tzurchei moed. Thus, for example, it is permitted to take money for regular babysitting on Chol Hamoed (Chol Hamoed K’hilchato 9:39). If your job is, or can be arranged on Chol Hamoed to not be based on melacha, then your pay would relate to permitted activity. Incidental melacha such as turning on lights, which is not an integral part of the job, could be done when it is tzurchei moed without being considered related to your salary. You are not paid to drive to work, and it is permitted for the tzurchei moed elements of the job. Even if you have to do significant amounts of melacha (such as writing- refer to the laws of writing on Chol Hamoed, which are beyond our present scope), it should still be permissible to attend your job. The gemara (Moed Katan 12a) tells that those who set the table at the Exilarch’s home could fix the table on Chol Hamoed if it broke, since they received only the privilege of eating with them and did not get paid separately. The distinction as to the form of payment is that “to receive money on Chol Hamoed is in the manner of the weekday (uvdin d’chol),” whereas to receive the privilege to eat “does not look like renting oneself out” (Beit Yosef, OC 542). Your case is somewhere in the middle. On one hand, you are paid on a yearly basis, not for the job that you do specifically on Chol Hamoed. On the other hand, it is part of your regular job, which you get paid for in a normal, monetary fashion. In several halachic contexts it is permitted to receive payment b’havla’ah (the problematic payment is included in an undifferentiated lump sum together with payment one may receive). Several poskim apply this rule to much more tenuous cases (see Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 66:(163); Moadim U’zemanim VII, 155; Piskei Teshuvot 542:3). Thus, one who is paid on a monthly or yearly basis can certainly rely on these opinions. We would usually suggest that you make an effort to show respect for the moed by taking off, if possible. However, in your case, the quality of life of the residents balances out that factor. [We did not discuss the issue of money loss, which applies to some cases of work on Chol Hamoed, but does not appear to apply in this case.] Mistaken BerachaSomeone made the beracha of “Shehakol” on a food which required a different beracha (for argument’s sake, “Mezonot”). I know he is yotzei b’dieved (fulfilled his obligation, after the fact). However, does that mistaken beracha work to exempt other foods, either those which require “Mezonot” like the food he is eating or those that require “Shehakol” like the beracha he made?In order to answer your question, we will have to investigate some of the concepts which you correctly assume and see how they apply to your case. One does not have to make a separate beracha on every food he eats (even if it is not part of a meal, which he began with bread). Rather a beracha can pertain to any other food that he will eat at that sitting which shares the same beracha (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 206:5). The idea is that while the person’s most direct intention was on the first food upon which the beracha was said, he had some level of intention that other foods would or might be eaten afterward, and that the beracha should pertain to them as well (see Rama, ad loc. and Mishna Berura 206:20). Another assumption you make is that “Shehakol” works for foods that should have gotten a different beracha. This is true and is part of a rule that more general berachot work b’dieved for ones for which a more specific, and, therefore, preferable beracha should have been said (Berachot 40a). When we put these two facts together we have the following problem. If one makes “Shehakol” on milk, and then he is about to eat cookies, why should he make a beracha on them, as the “Shehakol” which was already said (b’dieved) is capable of exempting even cookies from a beracha? Rashi (Berachot 41a) answers that the idea of being yotzei with the more general beracha applies only when one makes it mistakenly on a certain food, but it does not extend to exempt other foods. Rabbeinu Yona (ad loc.) says that it actually all depends on intention. If one is correctly making “Ha’adama” on a vegetable, there is no reason to interpret his intention as one to exempt a beracha on a fruit that he will eat at the same sitting, as “Ha’etz” is the beracha it rightly deserves. The Shulchan Aruch (206:1), adopting Rabbeinu Yona’s approach says that if for some reason, one had in mind to use the beracha of “Ha’adama” for the vegetable and a fruit that was there as well, then he would not subsequently make “Ha’etz.” Along similar lines, one who makes “Shehakol” on something which he later realized requires “Mezonot” had in mind (generally) not only for that food but also for everything else with that beracha, and all “Shehakol” foods are exempted (based on Mishna Berura 209:8). As we have seen, it is his intention that is crucial, not the fact that the new foods being brought out have a different beracha from the food he mistakenly made “Shehakol” on. On the other hand, foods that require “Mezonot” are not exempted, because he did not have them in mind when making “Shehakol,” as, to the best of his knowledge, it was the wrong beracha, l’chatchila. The more interesting question is in regard to foods which share the beracha that he made, yet he presumably did not have them in mind. This can occur if the mistake was not in identifying the beracha of the food, but that he intended to correctly say “Mezonot” and “Shehakol” slipped out. In this case, the Har Tzvi (Orach Chayim 106-7) says that his intention for “Mezonot” foods excludes “Shehakol” foods from the beracha, and they would require a new beracha. He implies (and Piskei Teshuvot 206:6 states) that “Mezonot” foods are exempted with the “Shehakol,” because he intended to make a “Mezonot.” The siituation may be different for foods that were not present when the mistaken beracha was made, but that discussion is beyond our present scope. ChallahWhat is the meaning of challah and why do we say hamotzi with two loafs on Shabbat?Challah (in this context) is just another name for bread. It is a mitzva to celebrate the Shabbat in several ways, including eating three meals (Rambam, Shabbat 30:9). Two of these meals must be complete ones, which include the eating of bread. We use two complete loaves to start the meal, even if we only eat one. This is to commemorate the double portion of manna that fell for the Jewish people in the wilderness on Fridays so that they wouldn't need to work (by gathering the food) on the Shabbat. Hamotzi is the blessing that we make every day if we eat bread. However, during the week it isn’t necessary to have bread in a meal, while on Shabbat, the meal is one of the ways of honoring the day. Therefore, we make sure that the meal begins with challah. Gravy on ShabbatI just wanted to know how I can heat up gravy on shabbos day and how I avoid the problem of turning cold solid gravy from the refrigerator into liquid. I am not talking about juices from the chicken or meat, but rather the gravy made to enhance the meats taste.As far as the problem of cooking and reheating, it is not a problem if it is a place where it can not reach the temperature that is called “yad soledet bo” (110° F). One can’t put the gravy somewhere with the intention of removing it before it reaches this temperature, if this area is warm enough that the gravy could have become this temperature. There is an additional problem of nolad, creating a new state in the object, by causing it to go from solid to liquid. The Shulchan Aruch (318:16) is lenient on the matter but the Rama (ibid.) is stringent except in cases of need. If you put a container that has some liquid gravy to start with and then the “melting” congealed gravy slips into it slowly in such a way that you cannot discern it as a separate, newly created substance, it is permitted. If its consistency makes it float or otherwise be discernable on top, than there are those who are stringent (Mishna Berura 318:105). Furthermore, if the melted gravy gets reabsorbed back into the solid food, this would pose no problem. Showering on ShabbatI was wondering if it is ok to shower using hot water on shabbos. I have heard conflicting answers to this question.Please see our previous response below, which gives background in why it is forbidden. Please take note of footnote 4, which is important in several contexts and not everyone is aware of it. Laws of Washing on Yom Tov and Shabbat Answer: Washing your entire body, with water that was heated in a permissible manner, is forbidden on Shabbat and permitted on Yom Tov. Some are stringent and say that even on Yom Tov it is forbidden. Following is a summary of the laws of washing on Shabbat and Yom Tov. Laws of washing on Shabbat It is forbidden to use water that was heated in a prohibited manner on Shabbat. It is permissible to use water that was heated before Shabbat by electricity or by fire, or heated on Shabbat in a permissible manner. One may use this water to wash his face, hands or feet, however not his entire body. Obviously, this applies if taking the water from the appliance is done in a manner permissible on Shabbat. The reason for this prohibition is “g’zerat merchatza’ot”: The people working in the bathhouses used to heat the water on Shabbat in a prohibited manner but claim that they heated the water before Shabbat. Therefore there was a decree that prohibited the washing on Shabbat, even with water that was heated in a permissible manner. The Acharonim debate the issue regarding water that is heated with a solar heater. There are some who say that the law is like the case of water that is heated electrically in a permissible manner, and there are some that say that the law is more lenient and it is permissible to wash your entire body with this water. One should be stringent in this matter. Laws of washing on Yom Tov It is forbidden to heat water on Yom Tov for the purpose of washing ones entire body, rather only to wash ones face, hands and feet. The Rishonim debate the reason for this: Most of the Rishonim are of the opinion, and the Shulchan Aruch writes here , that the prohibition is rabbinic, because of “g’zerat merchatza’ot”,: as the decree includes Yom Tov as well as Shabbat. There are Rishonim who are of the opinion that the prohibition is a Torah-based prohibition because washing is not considered a benefit which is of value to everyone”. The Rama and the Mishna Berurah are stringent like the second opinion. According to the Shulchan Aruch, one may wash ones entire body with water that was heated in a permissible manner, or heated before Yom Tov. According to the Mishna Berura and the Rema, this is prohibited. We should mention two lenient opinions regarding washing on Yom Tov, even for those who are more stringent, like the Rama: 1. In the case of a solar heater, where no act of heating is performed by a person. 2. Nowadays, there is reason to consider washing as something “of value to everyone”, because everyone has a shower in his home. Therefore, using water heated with a solar heater is permitted. In a time of need, it is also permitted to use water heated electrically in a permissible manner. If one is uncomfortable as a result of not washing, according to all opinions one is permitted to wash with water that was heated in a permissible manner. This applies even on Shabbat, and even regarding washing ones entire body. Note: There are two issues that have not been dealt with in this answer: 1. Using different types of soap 2. Drying. Kitniyot Pots for AshkenaziMay I (an Ashkenazi) eat on Pesach at the house of a Sephardi friend food that was cooked in pots that he uses to cook kitniyot? If so, why? (They have assured me that all ingredients will be kitniyot free.)The various questions of kitniyot on Pesach seem to have become so divisive over the last period of time that one can barely open his mouth on the topic without fear of attack or offending someone. However, the answer to this question should be acceptable to all combatants on the topic. The Terumat Hadeshen (one of the pillars of early Ashkenazic p’sak) (Responsa 113) says that although we are strict not to eat kitniyot, if a grain of kitniyot falls into a pot on Pesach, we are not so strict as to forbid the food, for the prohibition on a mixture containing any amount (mashehu) of chametz on Pesach does not apply to kitniyot. The Rama (Orach Chayim 453:1) concurs that if kitniyot fall into a pot we do not forbid the contents of the pot. (If one can find the kitniyot they must be removed- Mishna Berura ad loc.:8). The Terumat Hadeshen apparently permits the food in the pot only when there is a tiny amount, which would be batel (nullified) by standard food prohibitions, other than chametz on Pesach. However, most poskim understand that the Rama includes in his leniency any case where the kitniyot is a minority (Pri Chadash :1; Chuk Yaakov :5; Mishna Berura :9; see Bemareh Habazak IV, 51). Thus, while we never know exactly how much flavor comes out of the walls of a pot which has absorbed non-kosher food, we know that there will not be a majority of kitniyot in the “kosher for Ashkenazim” food that is cooked in the pots in question. One might want to claim that our case is more severe than that which the Rama discussed, because here one is purposely setting up the situation where he will rely on the fact that the minority kitniyot will be batel. (There, the grain fell in.) There is much to say about this, but we will concentrate on the question at hand, dealing with utensils, not b’en (actual pieces or juices of a forbidden object that are in the food directly, not expelled from the walls of the pot). We have precedents of foods that are permitted by certain communities and forbidden by others. (Regarding kitniyot, it is quite clear that the stringency, while binding on Ashkenzaic communities, is not something that is forbidden on its own merits, but based on custom- see Beit Yosef, OC 453). The Rama (Yoreh Deah 64:9) discusses the custom of the Jews of the Rhine area to eat a certain type of animal fat that most other Jewish communities felt was forbidden. He rules that although members of other communities should not eat from this fat or from a food that contains 1/60th of it, these others may use the utensils that this fat was cooked in. From here we see that there is more room to allow cooking in the utensils of those who are more lenient than others on a certain matter than to eat from a food that contains a significant minority of such questionable food. As we have already seen, most poskim permit eating a food that has in it a significant minority of kitniyot. It is also quite clear that the likelihood of a serious prohibition is stronger by the fat than by kitniyot. Thus, it follows that it is permitted according to the Rama (who is the decisor for the Ashkenazi custom on kitniyot) to eat from “kitniyot pots.” See also Yechave Da’at V, 32, who comes to this conclusion after presenting several more precedents. Although stringency on Pesach has positive elements and times exist when one has cause to consider where he should be eating, it is neither healthy nor halachically warranted in our case to preclude such a large group of Jews from hosting another large group (see Rashi, Yevamot 88a). Warming up dry foods and liquids on ShabbatDry food (chicken, kugel, rice, etc) in a container may be placed directly on a blech on Shabbat. Foods that are liquidy (spaghetti with sauce, etc) may not be placed directly on the blech but can be placed on the cover of something like a soup pot that is already on the blech.Is this correct?We must distinguish between two sets of halachot of Shabbat. There is an issue that re-heating could actually be part of the cooking process. A separate concern is that returning items to the fire might prompt one to adjust the fire and/or may appear like cooking.The differentiation between liquid and solid relates to the issue of actual cooking. Where you put it makes no difference. What matters is whether the laws of cooking apply to this food (i.e.- it is not fully cooked or it is liquidy) and how hot the food becomes.The idea of the blech and placing the food on the cover of a pot is to alleviate the fear one might adjust the flame and avoid the appearance of cooking by serving as reminders that this is not the regular cooking process.According to Ashkenazic poskim, it is prohibited to place a dry, cooked, cold food on the blech unless it is on the second level, meaning there is a pot in between the blech and the container one wishes to return. Regarding liquidy food, one cannot put it anywhere where it will reach the temperature of “yad soldet bo” (approximately 45º C, 113º F), or, if congealed, it will turn liquidy by reheating. According to Sephardic poskim, it is permissible to place a cold, dry, cooked food directly on the blech. Shmittah for Shared GardenI live in an apartment building in which most of the residents do not keep the laws of Shmittah and they plan to continue tending to the garden in the usual way. I doubt I will be able to change their minds and am concerned about creating animosity. How am I to proceed?Certainly, the residents should be following the laws of Shmittah fully in regard to the garden. The Heter Mechira was never permitted for ornamental gardens.It is forbidden to take part in the regular expenses of the va’ad bayit (residents’ council), unless proper care of the garden will be insured. Regular payments (without subtracting your percentage of the gardening costs) would make the gardener an agent of yours and would also be a violation of aiding in the sinning of others. (The Torah prohibition of “Lifnei Iveir” doesn’t apply because the sin will happen even without your participation).In a situation where you will be likely to be forced by law to pay, you may pay. In such a case, your payment is interpreted as avoiding a court case, not participating in the sin. If withholding part of your payment will cause significant friction, then it is included in the leniency of helping Shmittah violators “mipnei darchei shalom” ( for reasons of keeping peace) - see Gittin 61a. In these cases it is proper to inform the va’ad bayit that your payment is, from your perspective, intended for other expenses and not for the gardening, which you object to. A practical idea which may help obtain understanding for your position, is to buy something for the building of equal or greater value than the amount you request to withhold.Not paying is not the only issue, as many poskim say it is forbidden to allow your land to be worked. Therefore, it is best to also “be mafkeer” (relinquish rights) to your part in the garden in three steps:1. Be mafkeer the upper layer of earth permanently.2. Be mafkeer your rights to the plot of land for the duration of shmittah.3. Be mafkeer your rights to the ground totally, while retaining for yourself the rights to the airspace.This triple hefker is recommended by Rav Y. F. Adler in “Bisharayich Yerushalayim”, pg. 313, because of the problem of each individual form of hefker. Eating Before DaveningI have always been careful not to eat or drink anything prior to davening, even on Shabbat. Now that I’m serving as a rabbi on shlichut, giving a shiur before davening and often serving as shaliach tzibbur, it is quite difficult for me to concentrate. Do I need hatarat nedarim (nullification of vows) before following the regular halacha? As I understand, I can drink water, tea or coffee. What about sugar in the tea and coffee?One may drink water, tea and coffee, especially if it enables one to function properly during davening. It is proper to say Birchot Ha-shachar, Birchot Ha-Torah, and the first parasha of Kri-at Shema before drinking (see Mishna Berurah 89:22). As far as sugar in the tea and coffee, the Mishna Berurah objects, but Rav Ovadia Yosef justifies the common practice of adding sugar (Yabia Omer IV, Orach Chayim 11). The question of hatarat nedarim is quite interesting. The Rama, Orach Chayim 581:2, says that even those who have the custom to fast on the day before Rosh Hashana may eat at a brit milah. The Magen Avraham 581:12 says that no hatarat nedarim is needed (see parallel case in Rama 568:2) and that this leniency can be extended to one who is mildly sick (see also Mishna Berurah 581:19). On the other hand, the Shulchan Aruch, Yoreh Deah 214:1 says that one who wants to forgo this fast because of poor health needs hatarat nedarim (and the Rama does not argue). The Shach 214:2 claims that when people take up the custom of fasting, they mentally exclude cases of brit milah but do not contemplate cases of sickness. The Dagul Mer’vavah (ad loc.) considers this a difficult distinction. He, himself, distinguishes between temporary suspension of a good minhag under specific circumstances, which does not require hatarat nedarim (since he plans to resume the minhag), and the situation in Yoreh Deah 214 which he claims is dealing with one who plans to stop fasting permanently because of a weakened constitution. The Dagul Mer’vavah brings the aforementioned Magen Avraham as support. [Ed. note - the simple understanding of the Magen Avraham is not identical to the Dagul Mer’vavah. The Magen Avraham distinguishes between those who fast due to a widespread practice and those who go out of their way to accept a stringent practice. The latter require hatarat nedarim, and the simple implication is that it applies even if they want to stop the minhag temporarily - see L’Vushei Srad, ad loc.]. Based on the Dagul Mer’vavah, Rav Mordechai Eliyahu ruled that if you want to drink before davening only during the period of your shlichut, which presents a special situation, you would not require hatarat nedarim. Eating Meat and Fish TogetherWhy are we prohibited from eating fish and meat together if fish is pareve?The prohibition of eating fish and meat together is based on a fear of danger (not forbidden foods) and is governed by the rule “Chameira sakanta” (danger is more harsh than prohibitions, Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 173:2). The gemara (Pesachim 76b) writes that fish which is roasted with meat is forbidden to eat because it is bad for tzara’at (roughly, leprosy). The consensus of poskim is that it applies to fowl, in addition to meat (Pitchei Tshuva, Yoreh Deah 116:2). This statement in the above gemara assumes there is a halachically significant transfer of matter from one food to another when roasted together (see Rashi ad loc.). Since we don’t normally subscribe to that assumption, some authorities say that the problem exists only when the meat and fish are cooked together, not when roasted (Taz, Yoreh Deah 116:2). There is also a question if gravy of one fell into the pot of the other and there is less than 1/60th of one of them, whether one can employ the halachic rule of bitul b’shishim (nullification of the minority substance). The gemara (Chulin 111b) seems to imply that fish may be cooked in a fleishig pot, while some argue (see Taz, Yoreh Deah 95:3). It would seem that one can be lenient in these and other related questions. This is because several major poskim point out that the danger Chazal referred to is no longer prevalent (see Magen Avraham, Orach Chayim 173:1; Pitchei Tshuva, Yoreh Deah 116:3, in the name of Chatam Sofer; Aruch Hashulchan, Yoreh Deah 116:10). It is perhaps for that reason that the Rambam doesn’t mention the prohibition of mixing fish and meat. While we will not permit that which was forbidden, this can explain our tendency toward leniency (see Chatam Sofer, ibid.). The prohibition applies, of course, not only to cooking, but also to eating fish and meat together (Shulchan Aruch, Yoreh Deah 116:2). According to the Shulchan Aruch, we are required to wash our hands and mouth (ibid., 3). However, the Rama (ad loc.) rules that it is sufficient to eat and drink something between the fish and meat and we need not wash the hands or mouth. We also change or clean cutlery and plates in between, although one could argue whether the letter of the law requires this. Why is Chicken Considered MeatIf the prohibition against meat and milk is based on the Biblical passage: "You shall not cook a kid in its mother’s milk", why does it apply to chicken? We don't get milk from chicken, so how could that ever happen?The prohibition of meat and milk is a chok, a commandment whose reason is not readily apparent. Chazal taught that “kid” and “mother” are examples of meat and milk, but there are laws based on the choice of words. R. Akiva learns from the three-fold repetition of “a kid” that fowl and certain other animals are excluded from the prohibition. R. Yossi Hag’lili says that it applies to any mammal which requires shechita. According to him, only species that have no mother’s milk (like fowl) are excluded (Chulin 113a). R. Akiva and R. Yossi also argue if there is a rabbinic prohibition on meat and milk (ibid., 116a). The halachah is like R. Akiva, that the Torah prohibition of eating meat and milk that have been cooked together applies rabbinically to fowl (Shulchan Aruch, Yoreh Deah 87:3). The reason for the rabbinic prohibition is that if people become used to eating the meat of chicken in milk, they are likely to forget the aforementioned distinction and eat beef cooked in milk. Some of the regular stringencies of meat and milk apply to fowl as well. One cannot eat fowl and milk together even if they were not cooked together, cannot have milk on the table when he is eating fowl without a separation (ibid., 88:1), and must wait up to six hours between eating fowl and dairy (ibid., 89:1). There are, however, some differences. We learn from the three-fold repetition that the prohibition is not only eating meat and milk cooked together, but also the act of cooking itself and deriving benefit from it. When eating is prohibited only rabbinically, then cooking and deriving benefit are permitted (ibid., 87:3). Thus, one could, for example, cook fowl and milk together in order to sell to a non-Jew. (Of course, the pot would then be unfit for cooking food for a Jew). Eating on Shabbat Which is Erev PesachWhat do you suggest we do on the Shabbat before Pesach (which, this year, is on Erev Pesach) regarding when and what to eat?Regarding the morning meal, the minhag is to daven very early and eat chametz or matza ashira (flour kneaded with eggs or fruit juice without water) before the end of the 4th hour of the morning, when chametz becomes forbidden. The rest of the meal can be completed after that time. For technical reasons, many prefer to remove all chometz before Shabbat. They can use matza ashira, although for Sefardim, its status for “hamotzi” is questionable (see Yechave Da’at I, 91.11). Matza ashira is the food of choice for seuda shlishit, for Sefardim (although Yechave Da’at, ibid., has a complicated solution he prefers). That is because matza ashira is “lechem” which is neither chometz (Shulcah Aruch, Orach Chayim 462:4) nor matza (see Moreshet Shaul). However, Ashkenazim have the minhag to treat matza ashira as possible chometz and thus should not eat it after the 4th hour (Rama, Orach Chayim 444:1). Those who are always careful to have seuda shlishit on bread and can work it out, may prefer to have a small meal right after davening, say birkat hamazone, wait half an hour, and start an early seuda shlishit when chometz can still be eaten (Mishna Berura 444:8). The simpler thing to do is to have seuda shlishit in the afternoon without “hamotzi” (Rama, ibid.). Sefardim must finish matza ashira by the 10th hour of the day (approximately three hours before nightfall) (Shulchan Aruch, 444:1) and, in any case, one should try not to eat too much of any food too close to Pesach (Mishna Berura, ibid.). FastingIf one is supposed to fast on a certain day and mistakenly eats, does he need to continue his fast or does it not pay since he anyway didn’t fast?We should first understand the conceptual basis of fast days, explore distinctions between different fast days and then answer your question. One element of fasting highlighted in your question is the mitzva of going a day without eating. When this is the only element of a fast day, we indeed do say that once one has eaten, there is nothing more to lose. (Please note that eating, in this context, means eating a c’zayit within k’dei achilat pras (roughly, one sitting) which is a full violation of the fast. Even though it is forbidden to eat any amount on a fast day, one who just takes a small taste and/or spits out the food has not fully broken the fast and must certainly continue (Mishna Berura 568:5)). If one makes a vow to fast a day but does not incorporate the date of the fast in his vow, then there is no purpose to continue, as this day will not count toward fulfilling his vow in any case. Similarly, some explain the idea that a firstborn who partakes in the celebration of a siyum on Erev Pesach may eat the whole day, based on the assumption that ta’anit bechorot was accepted with only the aforementioned dimension (Eretz Hatzvi, cited in Minchat Yitzchak VIII, 45). A second element of some fast days is the prohibition to eat. On Yom Kippur, there is certainly a prohibition to eat, above and beyond the mitzvah to fast (Pesachim 36a provides one of many applications of this idea). Thus, just as one who violates Shabbat may not continue doing so, so too, one who ate on Yom Kippur may not continue eating. The Shulchan Aruch (Orach Chayim 568:1) rules that whenever the day one fasts has a specific significance, one who eats cannot decide to switch the date after failing to fast the whole day, since fasting on a future day does not replace the need to fast on this day. He applies this logic to the four principal, rabbinic fast days, one who fasts on a yahrzeit, and one who specifies even an arbitrary day in his vow to fast. The same logic applies when one takes part in the fast of “Behab,” “Yom Kippur Katan,” or any, even optional, public fast which is set for a given day. Whether one is required to fast another day to make up for not successfully fasting on the appointed day is a somewhat complicated question, beyond the scope of this response. You can start your research with the Rama 568:1 and the Biur Halacha, ad loc. Berachot on Non-Kosher FoodWhat does one do about training children in a Jewish school to make berachot when many of them will be eating non-kosher food?[We do not refer, in this response, to the educational challenges which educators in such a sensitive situation must deal with, but this factor is taken into consideration]. The mishna (Berachot 45a) says that people who eat non-kosher food together do not make a zimun. The Ra'avad (Berachot 1:19) sees this as a specific rule pertaining to zimun, an act which adds prominence to joint eating and blessing. However, the Rambam (ad loc.) interprets the mishna broadly, that one does not make a bracha on forbidden food, neither before nor after eating. Thanking Hashem for enabling us to do something which He told us not to do is blasphemy, not a blessing (Rashi, Berachot 47a). The Shulchan Aruch (Orach Chayim 196:1) rules in favor of the Rambam that one does not make a bracha on forbidden food, unless it was permitted to eat (i.e. pikuach nefesh) (ibid.:2). Regarding children, the laws of forbidden foods fully apply, to the extent that one who feeds a child forbidden foods violates a Torah prohibition (Yevamot 114a; Shulchan Aruch, O. C. 343:1) even though the child is not personally culpable. Therefore, they, too, must not make a bracha on such food (see Bemareh Habazak II, p. 17). We do not train children in mitzvot in such a way that if they were adults, their actions would be improper. This applies even when the action is neutral (see Biur Halacha on Shulchan Aruch 657:1), all the more so when it pertains to a forbidden action. Even when a Jewish school cannot convince the children to eat only kosher food, it is still able to train them to make berachot properly. Make sure that the children have been given some kosher food and have them make the berachot on it. Even if the children get so used to making berachot that they will do so at home on non-kosher food, that is not a reason for the educators to refrain from teaching their students the important mitzva of berachot. Furthermore, even if at the same meal, non-kosher food will be eaten, as long as the bracha was said on the kosher food, the bracha was proper. Thus, if you give the children bread and they say hamotzi and bircat hamazone together, you cover almost all beracha issues. If a food other than bread is given out, the joint beracha would be on that food. If the majority of the children are eating kosher, then one should encourage the group to make the berachot in any case. Even when a minority are eating kosher, a teacher can still make a bracha out loud on his food and have the children say "amen." Wheat Allergy and Matza on PesachI have developed an allergy to wheat. What am I to do regarding eating matza at the seder?The Talmud (Pesachim 35a) talks about five grains which can be used for making matzot, two of which are in the wheat family and three in the barley family. The important point is not really its botanical name but rather the fact that it can leaven in the way that wheat and barley do (ibid.). However, it is difficult to make assumptions about which grains are included in the list without precedent in classic sources. If there are grains which you are not allergic to, we will try to research whether they can be used for matza. Some are already being marketed (and, of course, should have proper rabbinical supervision). Those who have trouble eating matza due to its texture may eat it broken into fine pieces (Biur Halacha 461:1) or soaked in water if it hasn't dissolved (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 461:4). (I doubt this helps with an allergy, but it can be useful regarding other health issues). We tend to be particularly stringent on the amount of matza we eat on seder night. It may be that the absolute minimum shiur of a c'zayit, according to the letter of the law, will not affect you adversely. [We leave out this shiur in our public discussion, as not to raise unnecessary issues for those who are, baruch Hashem, healthy and can eat the customary amounts]. What happens if none of this is possible? Certainly if there is even a faint possibility of a violent, dangerous reaction, one should not take chances. However, if the reaction is less severe, the matter is more complex. The overwhelming majority of poskim agree that one does not need to make himself sick by performing a mitzva, even if it is not dangerous (Binyan Shlomo, 47; Mikraei Kodesh Pesach II, 32; Tzitz Eliezer XIV, 27; Chazon Ovadiah I: 32). Some learn this from the fact that one need not spend more than a fifth of one's property (and perhaps less) to fulfill a mitzva (Igrot Moshe, Orach Chayim I, 172). It appears from most of these sources that if only an unpleasant reaction will occur, but it is less than sickness, which is usually described as being bed-ridden (see Shulchan Orach, Orach Chayim 328:1 and Mishna Berura, ad loc.), that one would be obligated. Certainly, one wouldn't give a large sum of money to prevent a mild headache. We find that one is supposed to push himself to drink wine on seder night even if it effects him adversely (Shulchan Aruch, OC 472:10). (Grape juice was not available in early spring in the era before vacuum packing and refrigeration were developed). The extent of the effect of the wine and the question whether the drinking of wine is unique are discussed (see Mikraei Kodesh and Chazon Ovadia, ibid.). The question of how likely a reaction is is pertinent as well (Chazon Ovadia, ibid.). In summary, one should not be reckless and need not be a “hero” in fulfilling the mitzva of matza with expected, significant, negative reactions. However, one should look for alternatives and should be willing to sacrifice a fair measure of comfort if it is required to fulfill a mitzva. Waiting Between Eating Milk and Meat- Halacha and MinhagI am very confused about a certain attitude among Orthodox people. Many people place a lot of importance on how long you wait between eating milk and meat. However, let us look at the source of waiting between milk and meat. It is just a rabbinic geder (fence) not to eat them together (when cooked separately) and a further geder not to eat them in the same meal. As a result, people in different cultures who had a meat meal would end up waiting the amount of time until the next meal to eat milk. The whole six hour/three hour thing doesn’t seem to be so important, yet people make you feel so guilty if you take on a more lenient custom.I understand your confusion and frustration. Let me try to put things in perspective a little bit. There is a system behind how halacha and minhag have developed over the centuries. However, there is a lot of fluidity which allows for both Divine intervention, rabbinic ingenuity and socio-religious developments. It is sometimes hard to know how certain rulings/minhagim have developed (although there has been some good research on the topic). Without a doubt, certain issues seem to have taken on a certain “blown out of proportion” importance in comparison to other issues which would appear more crucial. In certain areas, stringency has been added onto stringency, while in other areas, leniency has been added onto leniency. At times, it is proper for rabbinic leaders to step in and return things to proper proportion. However, most of the time, there is a certain trust in the dynamics of the development of normative practice which causes the rabbinic community to keep hands off. There are two, divergent statements in Chazal on the issue, which happen to start with the same words. One source says: “Leave Yisrael alone; if they aren’t prophets, they are the sons of prophets” (Pesachim 66a). The other says: “Leave Yisrael alone; it is better that they sin unintentionally than that they sin intentionally” (Beitza 30a). (There is a responsa of Terumat Hadeshen (II, 78) where he ends off with the words, “Leave Israel alone, etc.” The poskim try to figure out which of the two quotes he is alluding to and, thus, how enthusiastic he is about the discussed practice). The first quote refers to a confidence in Divine approval of the development of a given minhag. The other refers to a degree of fatalism, that even when a minhag is regrettable, it is difficult (and often unwise) to alter it. Regarding your specific issue, I agree that we seem to be very stringent, and I discourage people from being overly judgmental of others. However, I also remind you that just as sometimes a minhag (or the weight given to it) is particularly stringent, so too, minhagim can be surprisingly lenient. As traditional Jews, we usually take the phenomenon as a whole, and we follow the stream in most cases, accepting the accepted stringencies along with the leniencies. Passing on family traditions and community minhagim is an important part of our tradition and our spiritual survival and should not be taken lightly. Waiting Between Eating Milk and MeatWe wait 6 hours between eating meat and milk. Some keep less. Where does this come from? Why can’t we eat them as long as they’re not cooked together, as the Torah says?You are correct that the Torah prohibition refers only to meat and milk that were cooked together in a way that their tastes merge (Chulin 108a). However, the Rabbis extended the prohibition to not eating together meat and milk which were prepared separately and gave guidelines as to what is considered eating together. Following eating milk products, one needs to take steps to ensure that his hands and mouth are clean before eating meat (see details in Shulchan Aruch, Yoreh Deah 89:2). Following eating meat products, one needs to wait before eating milk products. Two reasons are given: 1. Pieces of meat are likely to remain between the teeth, and the situation resembles eating meat and milk together (Rambam, Ma’achalot Asurot 9:28); 2. The taste of the meat remains in the system a significant amount of time (Tur, YD 89). The halacha in a few cases depends on which is the main reason. The gemara (Chulin 105a) tells of Amoraim who related that when they ate meat at one meal, they wouldn’t eat milk products until the next meal. Since the reason for waiting has to do with actual physical situations, the Rishonim understood that “the next meal” must refer to a set amount of time between the last eating of meat at one meal and the eating of milk at the next one. Several opinions and customs arose in applying the concept. The most prevalent ones relate to the Rambam’s (ibid.) statement that it is “like 6 hours” (which leads to opinions of a full 6 hours, 5.5 hours, or a bit more than 5 hours). A minority opinion gives a minimal break of 1 hour between meals (Dutch Jews) while a third approach compromises on 3 hours (German Jews). All should follow their family minhag. While some require waiting only after eating actual meat (not meat gravy alone), most wait 6 hours after eating a food cooked with meat (Rama, Yoreh Deah 89:2). However, after pareve food cooked in a fleishig pot one does not have to wait at all (ibid.) even if there may have been a small residue of gravy in the pot (Shach, ad loc.: 19). Minor Inspecting Grains for InfestationIf someone under the age of bar/bat mitzvah inspects grains or vegetables for infestation, etc., is that inspection sufficient?Your question is a very important and broad one. The applications are too many and complex to exhaust and so, we will address mainly the principles. The gemara (Pesachim 4a) says that minors are believed to attest that a house was checked for chametz. The gemara explains that this is so, because, assuming bitul chametz was done, the problem of possessing chametz is only d’rabbanan (rabbinic). Thus, we have our first distinction, between cases where we need to trust a child regarding a Torah law or a rabbinic one. However, the case in Pesachim may be lenient for two additional reasons: 1) there is no known pre-existing prohibition which needs to be rectified (lo itchazeik isura) – Rama, Yoreh Deah 127:3); 2) the child who is doing the attesting has the ability to rectify the situation himself (b’yado) –Tosafot, ad loc. The Rama (ibid.) rules that only when these three lenient factors coincide, namely: a rabbinic law where the prohibition is not known to have pre-existed and the child can rectify the situation himself, is a minor believed. Many take issue on the Rama (including Shach, ad loc.:31) and say that when it is b’yado, a minor is believed even by itchazeik isura. A specific case where poskim hammer out the issues is on the question whether a minor is believed that he performed tevilat keilim (immersing utensils). The Shulchan Aruch, Yoreh Deah 120:14) rules that a minor is not believed. The Shach (ad loc.:16) explains that this is because tevilat keilim is a Torah law. A major machloket acharonim exists regarding tevilat keilim of a glass utensil, which only has a rabbinic obligation of tevilah (see R. Akiva Eiger and Pitchei Teshuva, ad loc. and a summary in “Tevillat Keilim” (Cohen), 8: (2*)). Regarding checking food for problems, it really depends on several factors. Since there is no knowledge that a problem did exist, there is no problem of itchazeik isura. On the other hand, there is a factor that it requires concentration and toil to properly check (many foods). We would say as follows. In cases where there is not a very high likelihood of problem, a child can be believed because there is only a rabbinic requirement to check. Tosafot (Eruvin 31b) requires that the child himself will be relying upon his own testimony (e.g.- eating the food), and some poskim prefer that we rely on their checking only in such a case (see “Bedikat Hamazone Kahalacha 6:2). In certain cases, where there is a Torah requirement to check, a child is not believed. Of course, any leniency must assume that the specific child is fully capable of doing a proper job. Women Drinking Before Shabbat Morning KiddushMay a woman drink water, tea or coffee before kiddush on Shabbat morning?First we need to understand the halacha for men, and then we can apply the logic to the case of women. Although prior to kiddush, one can usually not eat or drink anything, a man, upon awaking on Shabbat morning, can drink the same light drinks that he can any day before davening (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 289:1). This includes water, tea or coffee without sugar (one can put a sugar cube in his mouth – B’Mareh Habazak III, 49) and, according to the custom of many, one may put sugar or milk in the tea or coffee (Mishna Berura 89:22). The reason that kiddush is not a problem is that before davening, there is no obligation to make kiddush. That is because kiddush must be accompanied by a meal of some sort, which is forbidden before Shacharit. If a woman always davens Shacharit before eating (and doesn’t rely on a short request from Hashem after netilat yadayim, as was once customary), then her situation is identical to that of a man regarding kiddush. However, if she doesn’t daven Shacharit regularly or if she eats before davening, then she is immediately obligated in kiddush and should not drink before making it (Pri Megadim, Eshel Avraham 209:4). If a woman feels somewhat weak when she gets up or as the morning wears on (not to mention if she is actually sick), and she cannot make kiddush at the time, then she can eat as needed before kiddush (Minchat Yitzchak IV, 28.3). The rationale for the leniency includes the fact that there is an opinion that women are not obligated to participate in kiddush on Shabbat morning. It would seem that a woman who can make her own kiddush but, on the one hand, feels uncomfortable doing so before her husband comes home and, on the other hand, not drinking anything affects her oneg Shabbat, can also rely on that opinion and eat. Minors Fasting on Yom KippurI have children from age 10 and down. What should my policy be about their fasting on Yom Kippur?Children Below 9: There are no limitations on these children’s eating on Yom Kippur (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 616:2). There is discussion whether this halacha is a result of a fear of danger or because the mitzva to fast does not apply to them (see Mikraei Kodesh (Frank) Yamim Noraim 43). However, the practical halacha is to let such a child eat as much as he wants whenever he wants (Yalkut Yosef V, pg. 92). Even if the child wants to fast, we do not allow him (Rama, OC 616:2). This does not mean that the child must be forced to eat right away, but that any degree of refraining from eating which parents would deem unhealthy under normal circumstances should not be allowed on Yom Kippur. Children 9 and above: The gemara (Yoma 82a) says that healthy children of 9 (or weak children of 10) should fast “for hours” as chinuch. The gemara, explaining the above term, says that he should eat his morning meal an hour after the time he usually does. The Shulchan Aruch (ibid.) adds that the amount of the delay in eating depends on the strength of the child. The gemara discusses delaying the morning meal. Some acharonim understand this as a sign that the child had not eaten until this point, including Yom Kippur night. Only if a child of this age complains of great thirst should he be given to drink at night (Yalkut Yosef, ibid.) Others understand the gemara as meaning that all meals should be delayed during the course of the day (Shmirat Shabbat K’hilchata, ed. I, 32:41). However, it would seem that if the child broke his fast already and will eat the same amount of food anyway, it should not make any difference whether his next meal is earlier or later. (See Shulchan Aruch OC 562, regarding the concept of “fasts for hours”- we cannot discuss the matter further in this forum). In a case where a child is permitted to eat, adults are allowed to feed him (see Mikraei Kodesh (Frank) ibid. and Har’rei Kodesh ad loc., regarding the reason). Vegetarians and HalachaI have read a lot about the negative effects of a diet that contains dairy and/or meat. Is it halachic to be a vegetarian? What does one do on the holidays when the celebration of our faith includes meat?There’s nothing whatsoever wrong with refraining from milk and/or meat for health reasons. If one does not want to eat these foods, it is possible to do without them on festivals as well. The Rambam (Maimonides) gave much advice regarding the healthy foods to eat. It is not for us to give advice about what is or isn’t healthy, but if you are convinced that a given kosher diet is healthy (and have a reasonable basis for your conviction), then halacha looks on your efforts to keep healthy most favorably. Let us now deal with Shabbat and Yom Tov (festivals). Even though we have not merited in our time to have a Beit Mikdash and bring and eat from the festival sacrifices, we still have a mitzva to indulge in festive meals. On Shabbat, this is referred to as “oneg” (delight) (Rambam, Shabbat 30:7); on Yom Tov, as “simcha” (joy) (Rambam, Yom Tov 6:17-18). Classically, this includes eating meat and drinking wine (for children, candies) (ibid). However, if someone has a dislike for meat, he need not force himself to have it. If one prefers fish or some other food, it is halachically valid to use it as a substitute. What is crucial is to treat the meal with the proper festive mood, which is to a great extent affected by the menu. The specifics depend on the particular person (Mishna Berurah 242:2). If one enjoys meat but refrains from eating it for health reasons, then the matter depends on how important the dietary considerations are. If one anyway bends his dietary “rules” for special occasions from time to time without significant consequences, then Shabbat and Yom Tov would be the time to do so, at least in moderation. If one is strict about his diet, one may refrain from meat and find an appropriate substitute. Cooking School and Kashrut IssuesI wish to attend a prestigious cooking school. I have several issues to deal with. I would be dealing with non-kosher items on a daily basis. Am I allowed to taste a small amount of them? Also, I will need to cook milk and meat together. Is this permissible, or is non-monetary benefit (the grade) also forbidden?Tasting a small amount: Although the full punishment for eating forbidden food requires a certain amount (usually, the size of an olive), the Torah prohibits eating any amount (following R. Yochanan’s opinion in Yoma 73a– Rambam, Shvitat Asor 2:3). Tasting (without swallowing) forbidden foods is prohibited rabbinically (Pitchei Teshuva, Yoreh Deah 98:1). Possibility of eating: Although not a simple matter, a person in need may cook non-kosher food for non-Jews without fear he may eat from it (Yabia Omer, IV, YD 6). Cooking: The primary problem with cooking the milk and meat in your case is not the hana’ah (benefit) but the cooking itself. The prohibition of milk and meat is written in the Torah in terms of cooking and is repeated three times to teach us that the cooking itself and, subsequently, eating or benefiting from the cooked mixture are all forbidden. Thus, even cooking without eating or benefiting afterwards is forbidden. There are two pertinent areas of potential leniency: 1. Regarding fowl, which is considered meat only rabbinically, only eating was forbidden, whereas cooking and benefiting are permitted (Shulchan Aruch, YD 87:3). 2. The prohibitions of cooking and benefit apply only when the meat and the milk are from kosher animals (Chulin 113a). Thus, it is permitted to cook pork and milk even if you receive benefit. However, if the meat of a kosher species is forbidden because it wasn’t slaughtered according to halacha, then it may not be cooked in milk from a kosher animal (Rambam, Maachalot Asurot 9:6; Pitchei Teshuva, YD 87:6). There are complicating factors here, as well. The Rama (YD 87:4) seems to say that such cooking would be forbidden because of marit ayin (people won’t realize that it is pork or fowl). However, one who is in great need can rely on the Shulchan Aruch (YD 87:3) and Shach, (ad loc.), especially in a context where people won’t suspect that he will eat the meat and milk, that one can allow the cooking. A Sefardic Jew could certainly be lenient. According to many poskim, one cannot cook (even without eating) milk in a fleishig pot (or vice versa) which has been used within 24 hours (Yabia Omer, ibid.). Here too, there is some room for leniency in a case of significant need. If you could somehow provide your own pots and utensils and had different categories (kosher meat, kosher dairy, non-kosher meat, non-kosher dairy, pork and chicken), it would be much preferred. Transition of Shabbat into Tisha B'avCould you please explain how to handle the transition from Shabbat into Tisha B’Av (which falls on Motzei Shabbat) regarding seuda shlishit, havdalah and changing clothes?Seuda Shlishit: One should have normal Shabbat meals (Ta’anit 29b) including seuda shlishit (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 552:10). However, he must finish eating before sunset (Rama, ad loc.). Havdalah: One says havdalah in tefilla or in the declaration of “Baruch Hamavdil…,” which enables him to do actions forbidden on Shabbat. Havdalah over a cup of wine is done after Tisha B’Av (Shulchan Aruch OC 556:1). However, the minhag regarding the bracha on the fire, which is specific to Motzaei Shabbat and does not require a cup, is to say it in shul after davening, before the reading of Eicha (Mishna Berurah 556:1). There are those who say that a woman should avoid making havdalah, because of the doubt whether she is obligated especially in the bracha of “me’orei ha’eish”, which is not directly related to Shabbat (Biur Halacha 296:8). Therefore, one should be particularly careful that she hear “borei me’orei haeish” from a man who has not yet fulfilled the mitzva, and, thus, avoid a safeik bracha (Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 62:(98)). There is no bracha on b’samim that week. Taking off shoes: One may not do a noticeable act of mourning before Shabbat is over. While avoiding eating or washing is not noticeable, taking off shoes is. There are two minhagim: 1) wait 20 minutes after sunset, say “hamavdil” and then change clothes and go to shul (hopefully, they will wait to give people time to arrive); 2) take off shoes after “borchu” of Ma’ariv. One who takes the second approach should bring sneakers and Eicha/Kinot (unless he uses the book a little before Shabbat ends) to shul before Shabbat to avoid the problem of hachana (preparations for after Shabbat) (see Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 62:39-40). Oven Use for Milk and MeatI use my oven for baking fleishig foods. If I haven’t used the oven for 24 hours and bake a pareve cake, can I eat it with milk?Please be aware that there are diverse minhagim in different communities regarding the use of ovens for different types of foods. What we write here is not intended to delegitimize any ruling you have received from a competent, rabbinic authority.We start with the case that you use a fleishig baking pan. Does the fleishig taste, which entered the pan, exit it, enter the pareve food and turn it into fleishig. This double-removed taste, known as nat bar nat, is the subject of a major machloket between the Shulchan Aruch and the Rama (Yoreh Deah 95:2), with the Rama ruling for Ashkenazic Jewry that it is proper to treat the formerly pareve food as fleishig.However, if the pan has not been used for 24 hours, then the taste remaining in it is not halachically significant. It is true that Chazal did not allow us to use non-kosher utensils that have remained unused for 24 hours. However, since, in this case, even within 24 hours, the fleishig status of the food is far from clear, the cake you refer to is considered pareve. For this reason, the Gra (ad loc.:9) permitted the use of such a pan for the purpose you describe. On the other hand, many acharonim prescribe to the opinion of the Chuchmat Adam (48:2) (with which the Rama (ibid.) mildly implies that he agrees) that one should not set up such a situation l’chatchila (of his own choice). In other words, if one planned to eat the cake with fleishig or pareve and then a situation arose where he decided to eat it with milchig, he could do so. However, he should not bake with the intention to eat the cake with milk.Thus, the proper thing, from this perspective, is to use a pareve or disposable pan. The problem is that the oven might cause problems. The Rama (YD 108:1) rules that taste is transferred from one food to another when they were baked or roasted in an oven at different times only if there was condensation (zeiah) from both foods on the walls of the oven. A “fleishig oven” presumably had fleishig condensation at some time during its use. But it is unclear how liquid does a food and how insulated does an oven have to be in order that there be zeiah to bring the fleishig from the walls to the food (see Igrot Moshe YD I:40). Bread and relatively dry cake dough probably do not create zeiah in a normal oven and will remain pareve. (One must make sure that the pan doesn’t touch a surface with fleishig residue on it.) However, a liquid batter may create zeiah. When this is so, the zeiah compromises the pareve status of both the cake and the pan. (If the oven was well cleaned and had not been used within 24 hours, the pan would not need to be kashered). There are at least two legitimate solutions to this problem. One is to cover the cake batter (where feasible) so that escaping moisture is insufficient to transfer taste (Rama, ibid.). The other is to do libun kal on the oven before baking the cake to remove the fleishig taste from the walls and burn any surface residue. A half-hour of heating at the oven’s highest temperature is usually sufficient. (More time is needed if there is significant spillage which one did not remove prior to heating.) Even one who relies on the aforementioned Gra must ensure that there is no edible residue on the walls of the oven in a case where zeiah could bring residue into the food, even though tiny quantities will not ruin the food b’dieved (after the fact) (see Igrot Moshe I:40; Gilyon Maharsha 99:6). Hot Plate on a Shabbat ClockMay I operate a Shabbat hot plate with a Shabbat clock, so that it is off at night and goes on in the morning to heat the food? In general, how may I use it to heat up food?We will focus on the rabbinic laws of shehiya and chazara (leaving on and returning to the fire). To avoid actual cooking, the food must be fully cooked, and if it has cooled off, it must also be dry.There are two major problems regarding heating up food on Shabbat. One is called shema y’chate (lest one stoke the coals), with the modern application being, adjusting the fire. The other is michzi k’mevashel (placing food on the fire looks like cooking).Some Shabbat hot plates solve both problems; others do not. If the hot plate has only one setting, then shema y’chate is not a concern, at least in regard to leaving the food on the fire before Shabbat. If it also doesn’t get hot enough to cook, then it isn’t deemed michzi k’mevashel, and it is likely permitted to place cooked food on it on Shabbat (Rav Moshe Feinstein, brought in Hilchot Shabbat Rav S. Eider, note 564, in contradiction to Shemirat Shabbat K’Hilchata 1:(72)). Some rabbinically certified “Shabbat hot plates” are non-adjustable but can be used to cook. Their certification (according to one certifying organization, with which we spoke) was meant only to permit placing food before Shabbat without a blech. One must check out his specific type of hot plate.We cannot cover here the whole issue of how one can return food on Shabbat morning in this forum. Let us just point out that one is permitted to put the food in a place where the food will not reach 45˚C even if left there all day. Additionally, one may place food on top of a pot which is sitting on the fire (Biur Halacha 253:3). Many permit placing the food on top of an overturned, empty pot. In the latter cases, the leniency is stronger where there are halachic remedies for the problem of stoking the coals (e.g. a blech or a non-adjustable heat source).A Shabbat clock can be used and could be helpful. Returning food to the fire on Shabbat (chazara) is more stringent than leaving food where it will be heated on Shabbat (shehiya). Is placing food on Shabbat in a place which is not a heat source at that time but will be later (when the clock turns it on) like shehiya or chazara? The Rama (OC 253:5) allows a non-Jew to put food on a cold furnace, which will later be lit by another non-Jew. The Chazon Ish (OC 37:21) discusses why chazara isn’t a problem when the furnace goes on. According to his more convincing suggestion, the stricter laws of chazara apply only when a person placed the food when the heat is on. Thus, there is logic to permit putting food on a non-adjustable hot plate on Shabbat before the Shabbat clock turns it on. This idea can certainly be combined with other grounds for leniency in various cases.Much of the above is based on an article by Rav Mordechai Willig of Yeshiva U. (Beit Yitzchak, vol. 29). Sleeping on Rosh Hashana AfternoonIs it permitted to sleep on Rosh Hashana afternoon?It is tricky to try to balance the various aspects of Rosh Hashana. It is, at once, a day of fear and of festivity (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 597:1; see Nechemia 8). The minhag you refer to stems from the fear of judgment, and many take it very seriously. We will review the sources and suggest to the individual to choose his practice based on his custom, his strength, and his circumstances. The Rama (OC 583:1) brings and praises the minhag not to sleep on Rosh Hashana. The source given is a Yerushalmi that he who sleeps on Rosh Hashana, his mazal sleeps, implying that his judgment may not go as well as it could. (Acharonim point out that our editions of the Yerushalmi are missing this quote). Certainly we have precedent in Tanach that it is considered foolish to sleep when one’s fate hangs in the balance (see Yonah 1:6). The Mishnah Berura (583:9) and others quote the Ari z”l that after chatzot (midday), the Heavenly situation is such that one can sleep. As few people finish davening and eating by chatzot, this minhag seems to have little impact on most of us. However, not all agree with the Ari on this matter. (Our mentor, Harav Yisraeli z.t.l. was lenient on this matter). The Bach (OC 597) cites the Ram who was totally lenient on the matter of sleep on Rosh Hashana (possibly because he didn’t feel the minhag should affect the ability to enjoy the yom tov on a physical level). It is of note that, according to the logical opinion of some, many “miss the boat” in regard to this minhag. The source doesn’t say, “not to go to sleep” during the day of Rosh Hashana but “not to sleep.” According to some, this means that one should wake up before the day begins, which may be as early as alot hashachar, more than an hour before sunrise (Kaf Hachayim 583:39; Ben Ish Chai, cited ibid.). (The simple implication of Aruch Hashulchan (597:2) and perhaps Chayei Adam (139:8) is not that way.) There is room for leniency until sunrise (Piskei Teshuvot 583:(65)) even according to this approach. Leniency becomes more appropriate if waking up so early will affect one’s concentration during tefilla. However, there are strong grounds to say that if one is capable of getting up early, it is counterproductive to sleep longer in order to stay up in the afternoon (Ben Ish Chai, ibid.). The impact of refraining from sleep is cited as a factor elsewhere. The Mishna Berura (ibid.) says that not sleeping is not the goal in and of itself. Rather, the time should be spent on spiritually worthwhile activities such as learning Torah and saying Tehillim (ibid.; Chayei Adam 139:11). If a little sleep will facilitate learning, then it is a worthwhile tradeoff (ibid.). The Mishna Berura goes on to say that wasting one’s time is equivalent to sleeping. As the first day is the main day of Rosh Hashana and its judgment, there is even more room for leniency on the second day of Rosh Hashana (Piskei Teshuvot 583:10). Dishes and Food at the End of a Shabbat MealHow does one deal with dishes and food that remain at the end of a Shabbat meal when they will not be needed on Shabbat, avoiding problems of hachana (preparations for after Shabbat)?The idea of hachana is simple, but its practical parameters are difficult to define. One must not do actions which do not enhance one’s Shabbat but whose purpose is to enhance one’s situation after Shabbat. An action which enhances Shabbat is permitted even if it enhances the weekday more, provided one doesn’t add on to the action because of the weekday (Shmirat Shabbat K’hilchata 28:70). When one finishes a meal, he usually has a few reasons to clear the table. In addition to preparing it for the next meal (which might be after Shabbat), most people are interested in a tidy dining room. Thus, one may clear. However, it is problematic to scrub the table or do a thorough sweeping job if it looks fully presentable for Shabbat. Similarly, if the dining area is off to the side and is neither used nor seen until Shabbat’s conclusion, there must be other grounds for leniency. The Magen Avraham (321:7) and Mishna Berura (321:21) say that one may take action on Shabbat to prevent damage to an object that is needed after Shabbat. Indeed, one is allowed to move a non-muktzeh item “from the sun to the shade” in order to protect it (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 308), and it is not mentioned that this is only when the owner may use the item on Shabbat. This is the main heter for refrigerating leftover foods on Shabbat and even freezing them for later use (Minchat Yitzchak VIII,24- see his discussion if one is allowed to freeze liquids). (In many cases, there is probably another reason for leniency. When one clears off the food, he has to find some place to put it. Since the refrigerator and freezer are as legitimate storage places as anywhere else, one has the right to store the food there, even if one also gains for the weekday. Only if the food is already removed from sight, and one decides to put it in the freezer for longer-term storage do we need the heter of loss). Shmirat Shabbat K’hilchata (12:2) extends the leniency of loss to the fear that leaving food to rot or crumbs on the floor will attract bugs and ants (where this is an actual concern). There are two further innovative points of leniency which Rav Sh. Z. Orbach (quoted in Shmirat Shabbat K’hilchata 28:81; see Minchat Yitzchak, ed. II,36) arrived at. One dramatically expands the idea of loss. Not only may one take steps to prevent a loss, but one can take steps to preserve a status quo from deterioration even though the deterioration is easily rectified. His example is to soak dishes in water so that the residue will not harden, making washing dishes after Shabbat harder than it would be to wash them right away. (This would not permit rinsing the dishes to remove residue, which is an additional action to save time after Shabbat, not to preserve the status quo). It appears that many previous poskim (including the quoted Magen Avraham and Mishna Berura) did not assume this logic. A second idea, which is more compelling but hard to delineate, is that actions that one does naturally under standard circumstances, without giving a second thought, do not constitute hachana. Let us present some examples. One who returns sefarim as a matter of course after finishing using them may do so even if, in this case, that action has value only after Shabbat (e.g. a siddur after Mincha; a birkon after seuda shlishit). One who removes his utensils and leftover food right after eating may do so after seuda shlishit. One mustn’t say he is doing so to prepare for after Shabbat (Shmirat Shabbat K’hilchata, ibid.). Talking Between Handwashing and BerachaWhen and why are we not to talk in between netilat yadayim and making “hamotzi”?There are three different stages to deal with in this context. People are not always aware of the different levels of severity of hefsek between these stages. The beracha connected to a mitzva usually precedes it. By netilat yadayim, we make the beracha after the action, because sometimes one cannot make the beracha beforehand due to dirty hands (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 158:11). In order not to make a break between the main part of the mitzva and the following beracha, one should not talk once he starts washing. The second stage, in between the beracha of netilat yadayim and “hamotzi” is actually the most lenient. We are quiet and try to minimize the break between the two because of the gemara’s (Berachot 42a) statement that right after washing comes the beracha. However, there are different opinions about which washing the gemara is referring to (see Beit Yosef, Orach Chayim 166). In any case, if one did speak, no berachot were severed from their mitzva, and there is no need to repeat anything (Mishna Berura 66:6). Only if one got so involved in other things that he forgot about keeping his hands clean, does he need to repeat netilat yadayim. The final stage is the most stringent. The bracha of “hamotzi” must directly precede the eating. Therefore, one should not stop, and certainly not speak, between the beracha and what the beracha refers to, i.e. the eating. If one talks about anything other than needs related to the food, he must repeat the beracha (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 167:6). Since the beracha is related to the main part of the eating process, i.e. swallowing, one should not talk until that point (Mishna Berura 167:34). However, since chewing is the beginning of the eating process and it is usually accompanied by swallowing some of the food’s flavor, one does not repeat the beracha if he spoke after beginning to chew (Biur Halacha, ad loc.) Deciding Which Mitzvot to DoI am confused about how I am to choose the right things to do with my time. I want to do the biggest mitzvot I can, yet it seems that most of one’s time is spent on mundane matters. Are things like making a living or caring for a family really the biggest mitzvot one can be doing?It is difficult to know what the biggest mitzva is in a given situation. Furthermore, the question of a mitzva’s size, while asked with beautiful intentions, is not the right one. The real question is: what does Hashem want us to do? People spend a large part of their days seeing to such mundane needs as sleeping, eating, etc. These may not be the most uplifting activities, but Hashem created us in such a way that they are necessary and expected. While it is best not to spend more time than necessary on these activities, it is wrong to neglect them significantly over time. One needs to learn how to balance his time. Just as there are basic, bodily needs, there are also other needs and responsibilities that, as Hashem created man and his society, need to be addressed. Such time-consuming activities such as earning a living and tending to a house and a myriad of family needs have both mundane and spiritual elements to them (much depends on the proper intentions and use of the family’s blessings). A husband is required by halacha (see Ketubot 46b) to support his wife in a respectable manner, and should not, under normal circumstances, forsake this obligation, with the excuse that he is too busy doing this or that “bigger mitzva.” A wife is usually required to take care of several household needs (see Ketubot 59b), and should not, under normal circumstances, neglect these, with the logical sounding excuse that she was busy with chesed all day and had no time to take care of her familial obligations. Even when involved in chesed, one does not look only at what the objectively biggest chesed is. One is obligated to give tzedaka to one’s needy relatives and neighbors before giving to more distant people (Shulchan Aruch, YD 251:2), even if the distant people are more needy (Shut Chatam Sofer, YD 231). In mitzvot, the mitzva of learning Torah is, on the one hand, the most prominent of all mitzvot, but, on the other hand, is pushed off by “smaller” mitzvot that are incumbent on a person at a given time. The critical element is proper balance between the “more mundane” activities and even mitzvot that are a person’s personal obligation, and the fulfillment of some special chesed or mitzva opportunities that require putting the normal activities on hold. To a great extent, it is halacha’s job to instruct a person how to reach a balance between conflicting, positive activities. (For example, Aruch Hashulchan YD 251:5 rules that although relatives have precedence regarding tzedaka, it is clear that one who can afford it must leave funds for unconnected poor people). Halacha cannot address every scenario in a person’s life, nor the different abilities and circumstances that apply to and affect the proper advice to different people asking the same question. Therefore, many decisions are left to the individual. One must be aware of the great value of family and professional obligations, as well as the critical importance of limud Torah, chesed, and other mitzvot. Then he has tools to try to implement the sage advice: “It is good that you seize this, but also from that do not release your hand” (Kohelet 7:18). Incorrect Beracha on FoodSomeone made the beracha of “Shehakol” on a food which required a different beracha (for argument’s sake, “Mezonot”). I know he is yotzei b’dieved (fulfilled his obligation, after the fact). However, does that mistaken beracha work to exempt other foods, either those which require “Mezonot” like the food he is eating or those that require “Shehakol” like the beracha he made?In order to answer your question, we will have to investigate some of the concepts which you correctly assume and see how they apply to your case. One does not have to make a separate beracha on every food he eats (even if it is not part of a meal, which he began with bread). Rather a beracha can pertain to any other food that he will eat at that sitting which shares the same beracha (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 206:5). The idea is that while the person’s most direct intention was on the first food upon which the beracha was said, he had some level of intention that other foods would or might be eaten afterward, and that the beracha should pertain to them as well (see Rama, ad loc. and Mishna Berura 206:20). Another assumption you make is that “Shehakol” works for foods that should have gotten a different beracha. This is true and is part of a rule that more general berachot work b’dieved for ones for which a more specific, and, therefore, preferable beracha should have been said (Berachot 40a). When we put these two facts together we have the following problem. If one makes “Shehakol” on milk, and then he is about to eat cookies, why should he make a beracha on them, as the “Shehakol” which was already said (b’dieved) is capable of exempting even cookies from a beracha? Rashi (Berachot 41a) answers that the idea of being yotzei with the more general beracha applies only when one makes it mistakenly on a certain food, but it does not extend to exempt other foods. Rabbeinu Yona (ad loc.) says that it actually all depends on intention. If one is correctly making “Ha’adama” on a vegetable, there is no reason to interpret his intention as one to exempt a beracha on a fruit that he will eat at the same sitting, as “Ha’etz” is the beracha it rightly deserves. The Shulchan Aruch (206:1), adopting Rabbeinu Yona’s approach says that if for some reason, one had in mind to use the beracha of “Ha’adama” for the vegetable and a fruit that was there as well, then he would not subsequently make “Ha’etz.” Along similar lines, one who makes “Shehakol” on something which he later realized requires “Mezonot” had in mind (generally) not only for that food but also for everything else with that beracha, and all “Shehakol” foods are exempted (based on Mishna Berura 209:8). As we have seen, it is his intention that is crucial, not the fact that the new foods being brought out have a different beracha from the food he mistakenly made “Shehakol” on. On the other hand, foods that require “Mezonot” are not exempted, because he did not have them in mind when making “Shehakol,” as, to the best of his knowledge, it was the wrong beracha, l’chatchila. The more interesting question is in regard to foods which share the beracha that he made, yet he presumably did not have them in mind. This can occur if the mistake was not in identifying the beracha of the food, but that he intended to correctly say “Mezonot” and “Shehakol” slipped out. In this case, the Har Tzvi (Orach Chayim 106-7) says that his intention for “Mezonot” foods excludes “Shehakol” foods from the beracha, and they would require a new beracha. He implies (and Piskei Teshuvot 206:6 states) that “Mezonot” foods are exempted with the “Shehakol,” because he intended to make a “Mezonot.” The siituation may be different for foods that were not present when the mistaken beracha was made, but that discussion is beyond our present scope. Breakfast Before DaveningI often am asked to go to a significantly later minyan than I like in order to ensure a minyan in a house of mourning. On those days, I do not have time for breakfast between davening and work. To further complicate matters, in the morning, I have to take medicines that cannot be eaten on an empty stomach. May I have breakfast before davening under these circumstances?The gemara (Berachot 10b) brings two p’sukim as the basis for the prohibition on eating before Shacharit. While the first one seems to indicate an objective problem, Chazal interpret the second in a manner that implies that it is an act of haughtiness to involve oneself in eating before addressing Hashem, his Creator and King. The Beit Yosef (Orach Chayim 89) understands that the prohibition is rabbinic and the p’sukim are only an asmachta (an informal basis within Tanach for a rabbinic law). He explains that Chazal formulated the derivation in a way that would imply that they forbade eating only when it, subjectively, displays haughtiness. What are some examples where eating before Shacharit is permitted under these guidelines? The Avi Haezri (cited by Rosh, Berachot 1:10 and accepted by Shulchan Aruch (OC 89:3)) says that drinking water is not indulging enough to be considered haughty. Mahari Abuhav (accepted by Shulchan Aruch, ibid.) says that, by the same logic, one can eat foods whose purpose is medicinal. The Biur Halacha (ad loc.), based on the Pri Chadash and Pri Megadim, says that in a medicinal context, it is permitted to eat even if one is capable of waiting until after Shacharit. Another scenario is where one is too thirsty or hungry to daven with proper concentration. According to the strict letter of the law, one should not pray in such a state of mind (Rambam, Tefilla 5:2). Even though we are resigned to sufficing with a lower than proper level of concentration, one has the right to eat or drink as necessary to enable better concentration (Beit Yosef, ibid.). The Pri Megadim (Eshel Avraham 89:13) says that this too is not considered an act of haughtiness and was never included in the prohibition. The question, in your case, is whether eating which is not medicinal, but is preparatory for taking medicine, is permitted before Shacharit? The Pri Chadash (89: 4) is bothered by the need for special permission given to one who is thirsty to drink before davening. After all, one can drink water even if he is not particularly thirsty. He re-reads the Shulchan Aruch to say that if one is thirsty but considers it unhealthy to drink water on an empty stomach, he can even eat to enable him to drink. So we see that any eating which is necessary to enable an activity which halacha deems important before davening (including taking medicine) is permitted. The Biur Halacha (ibid.) suggests that before eating, one should at least say Kriat Shma (first paragraph), which needs to be preceded by Birchot Hatorah. Others add a suggestion to say a prayer that contains an element of supplication and/or Birchot Hashachar. Since these anyway need to be said before P’sukei D’zimra, it is not a big deal to say them a little earlier, before eating. The only limitation is that the poskim are strict about extending these leniencies beyond the necessary minimum. (See, for example, the Mishna Berura (89: 21) regarding what one who needs to drink tea in order to concentrate can put into it and many other sources.) Thus, while you are permitted to eat the amount necessary to prevent the medicine from having a detrimental effect on your health (consult your doctor), that would not permit you to take the opportunity to have a full breakfast at that time. It is wonderful that you are willing to arrange your schedule in order to accommodate mourners. We hope you can find a way to start the morning with the nutrition and calm needed to get a good start, but without compromising the primacy of tefilla as the beginning of one’s activities. We assume that, with further planning and continued dedication to doing things right, you can work out the situation in the best possible way. Lights Adjusted by a Toddler on ShabbatMy three-year-old son mischievously turned off and back on the dining room lights on Shabbat. Were we allowed to continue eating in the room?Your question raises standard Shabbat questions, which we will address briefly, along with a rarely discussed question about melacha (forbidden work) done by a child on Shabbat. We will not discuss the contentious question of when, if ever, it is permitted to have a child do something on Shabbat that is forbidden for an adult (see Orach Chayim 343). The prohibition of receiving benefit from melacha done on Shabbat arises in the Talmud in two contexts. One is as a k’nas (injunction) on a Jew who violates Shabbat, so that he will not benefit or will even lose from desecrating it (see Ketubot 34a and Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 318:1). The second is not to benefit from melacha done by a non-Jew on Shabbat on behalf of a Jew, even though the non-Jew did nothing wrong. Rashi (Beitza 24b) says that it is an intrinsic (rabbinic) problem of benefiting from the melacha of a non-Jew on Shabbat. Tosafot (ad loc.) explains it as a concern that if a Jew gets used to benefiting in such a way, he may come to ask the non-Jew to do the work for him in a forbidden manner. What about a child’s melacha? No injunction is appropriate regarding a child, who is halachically no worse (and is likely better) than one who violates Shabbat accidentally, even if he has reached the age of chinuch (serious education). (We will leave that issue alone, as a three-year-old, even one who “knows” about Shabbat, is beneath the age of chinuch.) The question is only whether the prohibition on benefit, lest one come to ask the child to do melacha, applies. What do the sources say? The gemara (Yevamot 114a), in discussing whether one has to prevent a minor from doing what is an aveira for an adult, brings the following story. Someone lost keys in the public domain on Shabbat and was, thus, forbidden to retrieve them. Rabbi Pedat suggested that small children be taken to the area to play, so that they might find and retrieve the keys. Tosafot (Shabbat 122a) asks that, whether or not one can let a child take the keys or has to stop them, it should have been forbidden to benefit from the keys, as in a case that a non-Jew had retrieved them. Tosafot answers that it was permitted because the children brought the keys without having the needs of others in mind. (When non-Jews do melacha for themselves, Jews may benefit from it). The Magen Avraham (325:22) infers from here that if a child does melacha for someone else, it is forbidden to benefit from it. The Pri Megadim (ad loc.) explains that it is because of a fear that the adults will not think it is a big deal to ask the minor to do the melacha, which is forbidden (see Yevamot, ibid.). One leniency that can be implied from Tosafot is that if the child brings more than he needs, then we do not have to fear that the extra amount is considered for others, as we do by a non-Jew (see Magen Avraham. ibid. and commentaries). Let’s go back to your case. If your son turned the lights off and on in one act of mischief, then it was all done for his own purposes, and there is no problem of receiving benefit. But perhaps he shut them and, after regretting the situation that everyone was sitting in the dark, decided later to put them back on to improve the situation for his family. In that case, there should be a problem, because we look at the turning on as causing benefit for others, even if he hoped it would save him from punishment. However, without reviewing all the laws of benefit from melacha on Shabbat, let us recall one rule. Any use of a room that one could have had, even with difficulty, without the melacha is not considered forbidden benefit (Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 30:58). Most homes have enough light that, even if the dining room lights go off, it is possible to eat the meal. Thus, the only question was probably about reading, and it depends on the circumstances. Deadline For a MinyanWe have a minyan for Mincha at work. Although there is a set time for the minyan, most of the members come from different buildings and tend to come later, so as not to wait until the minyan forms. As a consequence, the actual formation time of the minyan becomes delayed unpredictably. One solution that has been raised is to establish a solid deadline of, say, 5 minutes after the nominal minyan gathering time, after which the minyan would be abandoned for that day. That would pressure people to make it on time. Is it halachically permissible to set such a deadline, or is it required to wait until it's clearly hopeless?This is a hard call to make, as much of the question is psychological. What will make this group of people come on time, and what will cause it to disband? We cannot judge that from here. There are also pertinent factors that are not clear. One question is how many people will find a minyan at a different time or place. This is only one factor. It is not against halacha to set a time for the minyan, even if it means that some will miss a minyan altogether. Just as you are not required to wait for a few stragglers after a minyan has arrived, so you do not have to wait for 10 stragglers. If people cannot "get their act together" then they will have to make personal decisions as to where they will find a minyan. It is also possible, as you suggest, that by abandoning the minyan a few times, you will actually enable more people to daven with a minyan more consistently. Regarding how much time to expend getting to a minyan and waiting for its formation, the apparent amount of time is 36 minutes, not including the davening itself (see Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 90:16-17, which can be applied here in different ways). On the other hand, there are times that a person simply cannot afford that much time, which brings us to our next point. The most prominent variable to consider is whether the time that is wasted by waiting is people's personal time or time that is "borrowed" from work. Certainly, halacha is very strict regarding not wasting an employer's time. In our specific context, the Shulchan Aruch (ibid. 110:2) says that a hired worker should say a shortened Shmoneh Esrei if his employer does not want to extend his break. The Mishna Berura (ad loc.) adds that he cannot take out the extra time to daven with a minyan without his employer's permission. Thus, if the time waiting causes people to be missing longer than they are allotted, it would be wrong to wait unless the time can be made up in a way that is acceptable to his employer. One should be extra careful not to contribute to creating an impression that religious Jews have a tendency of disappearing from work for extended periods of time, which is a serious chillul Hashem. If the waiting time is on free time, then there is more reason to try to be flexible and forgiving to stragglers, unless this is counterproductive. One could even think about some worthwhile, creative solutions. One would be to start group learning (something which lends itself to starting and stopping on short notice) or at least having learning materials available. This way the waiting time can be productive, and hopefully will encourage people to come earlier and/or be less agitated when waiting for stragglers. If the situation warrants it, you could arrange matters that if the minyan gets together on time, then you do a full chazarat hashatz, and if it is late, then you will do a shortened one. This is a little dangerous if the minyan's longstanding minhag is to do the full one, and it is phased out because of negligence. We cannot judge from here if the situation warrants the risk. Rushing to Eat the Afikoman by ChatzotIt seems that every year we have a conflict between those who want to rush to eat the afikoman by chatzot (astronomical midnight) and those who want to allow the seder to advance at its own pace. What should we do?It is hard enough to try to decide for someone whether or not to be stringent. In this case, resolve to be stringent on the time of afikoman often causes reduced observance of other elements of the seder. In addition to the feelings of a wife/(grand)mother who slaved to prepare a meal fit for those celebrating liberation, there is the issue of curtailing the mitzva d’oraita of sipur y’tziat Mitzrayim (telling the story of the Exodus) or rushing the children, whom Chazal saw as central figures in the seder experience. So, one cannot compare the situation of those who can easily make it by chatzot with a little planning and those who have understandable difficulty. Study of the sources is needed to put the matter into perspective. There are two main elements to the eating of afikoman. Firstly, it is part of the mitzva to eat matza on seder night, and, according to a minority of Rishonim (Rashi, Rashbam on Pesachim 119b), is the main fulfillment of this mitzva. The Rosh (Pesachim 10:38) puts the stress on the idea that afikoman is a reminder of the korban pesach, which we no longer have, and, therefore, it is eaten on a relatively full stomach and is not to be followed by other food. By when do these elements need to be done? R. Elazar b. Azaria and R. Akiva dispute if the korban pesach needs to be eaten by chatzot or by the morning (Pesachim 120b). Rava (ibid.) says that the time for eating the korban pesach is also the time for eating matza. Thus, both elements of the afikoman depend on this machloket. The Rambam (Chametz U’matza 6:1) and apparently the Rif pasken like R. Akiva, that we have until the morning. Yet, the Shulchan Aruch (Orach Chayim 477:1) writes: “One should be careful to eat [the afikoman] before chatzot.” This is either out of deference to those who pasken like R. Elazar or because R. Akiva agrees that one should distance himself from possible sin and eat the korban pesach and the matza by chatzot (Gra, ad loc.). Usually, the terminology of “one should be careful” in the Shulchan Aruch is somewhat more than a suggestion but somewhat less than an outright, binding halachic decision, and this is logical based on the sources we have seen. We must remember also that we are not talking about eating the korban pesach itself or our first matza of the night after chatzot, just the additional element of the afikoman (the Mishna Berura 477:6 makes this distinction). Therefore, the following guidelines should provide a good balance. Try to start the seder promptly. Proceed through it without looking at the face of the clock, but at the faces of the children and others who should be learning, sharing in, and enjoying the full experience of the seder. During the meal is when one should start trying to “make it by chatzot.” It is best if all concerned get used to the idea that there is usually too much food at the seder. If less is prepared, and we remember that there are 7-8 days to partake in the bounty, there will be less chance of insult if dessert is skipped. Also, while the afikoman should be eaten on a full stomach, it is best that there be some appetite left for eating the afikoman (Rama 476:1; Mishna Berura ad loc.:6). However, habits are hard to break, and feelings should not be ignored. (Some are aware of a sharp halachic trick to obviate the problem. It has both merit and some potential problems and is beyond the scope of our discussion.) Shabbat and Yom Tov CandlesIs there a minimum time that Shabbat and Yom Tov candles must remain lit?There are two elements to candle lighting. The main element is to help ensure that the spirit of festivity and tranquility appropriate for the special day is maintained. The other element is to fulfill the rabbinic mitzva that this positive atmosphere is accomplished by taking the active step of lighting candles before Shabbat in its honor. Because of this element, if the house were filled with candles or other lights well before Shabbat, we would extinguish the candles and light them again soon before Shabbat for the purpose of honoring the Shabbat (or Yom Tov) (Rama, Orach Chayim 263:4).We have not found an absolute minimum amount of time for the candles to be lit and assume that your question is what is the minimum appropriate time. Let’s start with what is best and work our way down. It is appropriate to have candles lit for as long as they serve a purpose. However, that has changed dramatically with the advent of electric lights. (We will not have the opportunity to get into the pertinent question of the extent to which electric lights can themselves be considered “Shabbat lights.”) The main element of having as much light as we need is usually accomplished by means of electricity. For that reason, we no longer have the practice to light candles in all the rooms and hallways of the house where light improves the “quality of life” (see Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 43:15).The location and setting where the second element, of adding a positive, additional light to honor Shabbat, is most important is the place where one eats the Shabbat meal (Mishna Berura 263:45). It, therefore, stands to reason that the more of the meal is accompanied by the special Shabbat lights, the better, and preferably it should last for the whole meal (Kitzur Shulchan Aruch 75:2; Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 43:17). The most critical part of the meal is in the beginning, when one makes kiddush. There is even an opinion in the Shulchan Aruch (Orach Chayim 273:7) that one cannot make kiddush without the lights being present, although it is sufficient that those lights be electric ones (see Perisha, Orach Chayim 273:6). It is rare for one to use candles that do not last at least until kiddush.The main question arises when one is eating away from home but lights candles in her own home before leaving. (Regarding the different factors that determine when to light at home and when it is better to light in the home of the hosts, see Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 45). In such a case, the optimal suggestion is to use candles that are long enough that one can expect them to be lit when the family returns and to put them in a place where they will be of value when they return. It is best that, when putting on electric lights (especially incandescent ones) around the house, to do so right before lighting the candles with the intention that they are part of the mitzva to light (see Riv’vot Ephrayim I, 83). That way, even if one doesn’t benefit from the candles upon returning home, she can rely partially on the benefit from the electric lights. If this is not possible, then it would be required that someone wait in the house until it begins to get dark and benefit from the light of the candles. If one needs to leave before that and certainly if one leaves the house more than an hour and a quarter before sunset, then one should light at the home of the host. Washing Netillat YadayimParashat Chayei Sara 5768 It seems wrong that people decide not to wash (netillat yadayim) and eat bread at the beginning of a meal and thus not bentch (recite Birkat Hamazon). One who has a meal should bentch and if it takes eating a little bread, so be it. However, someone told me that if you eat only a little piece of bread, you have to make individual berachot throughout the meal. Is that so?One is not required to eat bread at a meal, even if it means that he will not bentch (except on Shabbat and Yom Tov when one needs a meal including bread). Nevertheless, regularly avoiding eating bread because he doesn’t want to be bothered with bentching is regrettable. If one has the philosophy that you espouse to try to wash and bentch at every meal, he should be careful not to cause more halachic problems than it is worth. One issue involves netillat yadayim. Although it is good to be stringent and wash before eating any amount of bread (see Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 158:3), the obligation likely begins only with a k’zayit (size of an olive) and possibly even a k’beitza (size of an egg). Therefore, one may not make a beracha on netillat yadayim for less than that amount (ibid.:2) (the questions of one who eats in between a k’zayit and a k’beitza and of how to calculate the sizes are beyond our present scope). Eating small amounts of bread in order to cover all the berachot under the umbrella of the meal’s berachot (Hamotzi and Birkat Hamazon) raises another problem. The gemara (Berachot 41b) says that wine exempts all other drinks from a beracha because of its importance and that bread exempts other foods that are eaten during the meal. However, according to the accepted opinion, Hamotzi can exempt foods only when they are subsumed under the meal. Based on this, the Magen Avraham (177:1) suggests that if one eats a little bread in order to exempt other foods, then the other foods do not revolve around the bread and the Hamotzi may not exempt them from their berachot. He counters that it is possible that the exemption was instituted across the board, regardless of one’s intention. However, according to the more accepted understanding of the Magen Avraham (see Machatzit Hashekel, ad loc.; Mishna Berura 177:3), one should not set up a situation where he is eating bread just in order to subsume other foods or presumably to set up a situation where he will have to bentch. Admittedly, some prominent authorities say that other foods are exempted even in that case (Even Ha’ozer 174:12; Aruch Hashulchan 177:2; Igrot Moshe OC IV, 41). However, this is hardly an optimal situation that we would suggest for one who would be happy not to eat bread at all. If one would eat bread for its own sake but would prefer not to “be bothered” with washing and bentching, it would be fine to convince him to regularly eat some bread and the Magen Avraham’s issue would not apply (see V’zot Haberacha, pg. 71). If one does not eat even a k’zayit of bread then although he still recites Hamotzi, almost all authorities say he must make all of the individual berachot. Furthermore, he will not be able to bentch in any case and will have to make the appropriate berachot after eating. One also has to eat the k’zayit within k’dei achilat pras (a contested amount of time, which is within the range of a single digit of minutes) (Mishna Berura 210:1). While we have not weighed all of the plusses and minuses (including the issue of one who eats bread-like foods during a full meal without bread- see Igrot Moshe, ibid.), we can fairly say that if a person is not interested in eating approximately a slice of bread, he should feel free to go without eating bread and “washing and bentching.” Whichever approach one takes, he should become familiar with the several halachic questions that arise in “bread meals” and “non-bread meals.”
Men Fulfilling His Mitzva on a Woman's BerachaParashat Toldot 5768 My boyfriend and I went out to eat with my friend and her husband, who are much more religious than we. I made Hamotzi on behalf of everyone, but afterwards my friend’s husband made his own Hamotzi. I was quite insulted. Is there a halacha that a man cannot fulfill his mitzva by answering Amen to a woman’s beracha?Let us begin with a story, whose relevance should be clear later. An Ashkenzi boy got engaged to a Sephardi girl. At the engagement party, the girl’s father wished the boy’s father that soon he would have a grandchild named after him. The recipient of the “blessing” got upset, and the “good wisher” took it as a sign that he did not want to share grandchildren with the latter. It took some explaining for the Ashkenazi to realize that Sephardim covet grandchildren named after them while they are alive and he intended to bless his new mechutan. The Sephardi learned the hard way that Ashkenazim do not name after live grandparents, explaining the negative reaction. The gemara (Berachot 42b) spells out when a person can make a beracha on behalf of others who are eating with him. Basically, there are two scenarios: they recline to eat together; they make a statement that they intend to eat together. The Shulchan Aruch (Orach Chayim 167:11) points out that nowadays when people rarely recline when eating, the first criterion depends on whether they sit down to eat at one table. In your case, both criteria were apparently met (one is sufficient) and, therefore, you had reason to consider it appropriate that one person would make Hamotzi and the others would only answer and eat. In fact, when starting the meal as one group, there is a benefit in one making the beracha on behalf of all, based on the concept of “with a multitude of people, it is a glory for the King” (Mishlei 14:28) (Bi’ur Halacha to 167:11). (Regarding Birkat Hamazon after the meal, only if there is a zimun (three reciting Birkat Hamazon as a group) is it proper for one to listen and answer rather than recite separately (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 193:1).) May a woman make Hamotzi on behalf of others? Only one who is fully obligated in a mitzva can perform it on behalf of others who are fully obligated (Berachot 20b). Women, who are not obligated in shofar blowing, cannot blow shofar for men to fulfill their mitzva (Rosh Hashana 29a). However, women are obligated (rabbinically, like men) to make berachot before eating and can exempt men. Indeed, in some fine families, the wife makes Hamotzi at the Shabbat meal. It is understandable then that you might feel that your friend’s husband acted on an insulting social/political basis by making his own beracha, but it may be similar to the story above. Without crawling into his head, it is likely that he just followed a broad minhag (which you apparently do not share), which is well over a century old, that people generally make their own berachot rather than suffice by listening to another. One reason given is that we fear that one will speak between answering the beracha and eating (Shulchan Aruch Harav, Orach Chayim 167:18). A convincing reason for the general custom regarding many berachot is that we are afraid that people will not focus in a manner that enables them to be exempted by another’s beracha (Mishna Berura 8:13). Only on Shabbat and Yom Tov is it still widely practiced that one person makes the beracha on everyone’s behalf, and this is because there is usually only one set of lechem mishneh (double loaves) upon which the beracha is recited. If one makes his own beracha on a piece of bread, it is questionable whether he is connected to the two loaves (see Mishna Berura 274:8 and Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 55:19). Even then, there are communities where people make their own beracha after the central one was made (see ibid.).
Changing Minhagim upon DivorceI am a woman of Sephardi descent who married an Ashkenazi man, and I have since been divorced. Should I revert back to my Sephardic customs and rulings?We must start by seeing why a wife takes on her husband’s origin’s customs and rulings. The oldest direct source we know regarding a wife conforming to her husband’s traditions is the Tashbetz (III, 179). He says that it is inconceivable that a husband and wife would live together governed by different practices. There are varied explanations of this concept. Rav Moshe Feinstein (Igrot Moshe OC I, 159) compares the husband’s home to a community and says that when his wife joins his household, she takes on “the place’s practices” just like a new permanent resident of a community (Shulchan Aruch, OC 468:4). Others (Admat Kodesh II, OC 2; see Igrot Moshe, ibid.) claim that a woman was not fully connected to her father’s traditions, as the expectation always had been that she would leave to join her husband’s family and accept his minhagim. What happens when a couple gets divorced (or widowed)? If the matter is that they cannot have different minhagim under one roof, then when they no longer live under one roof, the woman would revert to her former minhagim. In fact, the Tashbetz says this but with a major proviso. If the woman becomes widowed and her husband leaves her with children she would maintain her husband’s family’s minhagim. One of the precedents he brings is from a halacha from the Torah in regard to the eating of terumah. The daughter of a kohen eats terumah because of her father until she marries. If she marries a non-kohen she no longer eats terumah, but if he dies or divorces her she goes back to her father’s house, and his terumah. However, if she has children from the non-kohen husband, she does not return to eat terumah (see Vayikra 22:13). Thus, we see, says the Tashbetz, that a widowed woman with children retains the family status of her marriage. Rav Yosef Engel (Gilyonei Hashas, Yevamot 86a) takes this comparison very formally and also understands it to work by linking her to her ex-husband. It sounds from the Tashbetz that her relationship with the children prevents her from reverting back naturally to her father’s household and way of life. It is also likely that this concept is based not on a halachic derivation but on a sociological situation that the Torah recognized. Namely, the mother of children who have their father’s halachic status is expected to continue to act in a way that is consistent with their upbringing. This then would apply even if she was divorced, as the Tashbetz himself states. Even when they are grown up, although she no longer has to raise them, halacha recognizes the likelihood that she will be very connected to them and may spend much time with them (see Ketubot 54a; Even Ha’ezer). Therefore it makes sense that she should not be more connected to her father than to them and it is not necessarily appropriate to change to her childhood minhagim. Igrot Moshe does not rule on what happens in the case that a wife is widowed or divorced. However, his logic seems to imply that if practically she went back to interacting with her former community she could and maybe should go back to their minhagim. He does raise the possibility (within his explanation of the Rambam’s minority approach) that a woman waits until she marries to accept her lifetime minhag and that she should keep it thereafter (at least until she remarries). In the final analysis it seems that a divorcee without children should revert to her old minhagim and that children, who play a pivotal role in the divorcee’s lifestyle, should prompt her to retain their joint minhagim. In general, though, if she has chosen either her old or her adopted community as her religious/cultural center, she can follow its minhagim.
Fulfilling Tosefet ShabbatCan one fulfill the mitzva of tosefet Shabbat (extending Shabbat) by deciding a few minutes before that she is accepting Shabbat?The concept of tosefet arises in connection with holy days (or Shemitta years), originally regarding Yom Kippur. The gemara (Yoma 81b) learns from the Torah’s mention of fasting from 9 Tishrei in the evening until the next evening that the fast begins a little before day’s end and ends a little after it. It shows that one should act similarly regarding refraining from melacha (forbidden work) on Shabbat and Yom Tov. Admittedly, the Rambam omits this concept in the laws of Shabbat and even in the laws of Yom Kippur mentions it in regard only to fasting (see Maggid Mishneh, Shvitat Asor 1:6). However, the Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 261:2 requires tosefet Shabbat. There are two or three elements to tosefet. 1) One violates tosefet if he ignores the coming day’s laws until it begins (Beitza 30a, regarding those who ate “until dark” on Yom Kippur. 2) One’s acceptance of the new day is binding even if he did so earlier than necessary (Shulchan Aruch, OC 263:10). 3) It is a mitzva or even an obligation to accept tosefet actively. It is #3, which is not clear, about which you are inquiring. The Mishna Berura (261:21) says that accepting Shabbat is accomplished orally. He cites the Rama (608:3 and 553:1) that cognitive acceptance without speech is invalid and therefore one who only mentally decided to end eating before a fast may eat again. The Mishna Berura (553:2) cites important poskim who feel that a mental decision is binding and does not seem to decide between the approaches. Based on these passages, the Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata (46:2) says that one is required to accept Shabbat before day’s end, preferably with speech, although it is possibly binding with a cognitive decision. Neither author mentions dissenters to this concept (#3). Two things trouble us. First, few observant Jews or shuls are careful to actively accept Shabbat early. In fact, many shuls finish Mincha moments before or even after sunset, at which time tosefet has likely kicked in automatically and one has lost the mitzva. (It is unclear how long tosefet is but it is a matter of (almost certainly single digits of) minutes- see opinions in Piskei Teshuvot 261:2). It is also strange that the Mishna Berura does not cite a source for the need to accept Shabbat early. The Rama he cites refers only to element #2, that oral voluntary acceptance is binding. Possibly, it just makes sense that one should accept (even though it is not done before Shemitta or at Shabbat’s end) rather than be forced into tosefet and that it is meaningful only if done in a binding manner. However, it is still troubling that the classical sources do not seem to mention this requirement, even regarding Yom Kippur, the original source (see Shulchan Aruch, OC 608:1). In fact, it is not clear that explicit acceptance is necessary. Rav O. Yosef (Yabia Omer VII, OC 34) argues that if one is in a shul where Mincha (which must be done before Shabbat) will finish after sunset, he may daven without accepting Shabbat, claiming that the essence of tosefet is simply refraining from melacha. Shevet Halevi (I, 50) is also not convinced that acceptance is necessary, although he says that many Rishonim consider it a mitzva (mentally may suffice). Ohr L’Tzion (18:2) concurs and understands even the Mishna Berura to have been referring only to element #2. There is little reason not to actively accept Shabbat a few minutes before sunset, when it is unlikely to need to do melacha. However, the fact that most people do not do so need not be a mistake. For Ashkenazi women, the matter is a non-issue, as they normally accept Shabbat when lighting Shabbat candles (Rama, OC 263:10). When they do not do so, their status is like a man’s.
Bishul AkumI would like to ask you a question that recently came up. In a non kosher restaurant can one ask the waiter to cook a piece of kosher fish double wrapped in aluminum foil? Please address the issues of Bishul Akum regarding fish, a baked potato, vegetables. Is steaming ok? Is there a concern regarding the knife that's used to cut the fish?The prohibition of bishul akum, is a rabbinic enactment. The general principal of bishul akum is that anything that is impossible to eat when uncooked—anything that needs to be cooked in order to become edible—and is “suitable to be served on the table of kings”, if a non-Jew cooked it, the food is forbidden to eat. Even if the food item was made in a Jewish-owned vessel and in a Jewish home, the food would still be forbidden to eat. The reason for the enactment is a fear of intermarriage. It follows that food items that are not considered fit to be served to royalty or things that are eaten uncooked since it is not the manner of people to invite one’s friend—in such cases, the Sages did not prohibit (Shulchan Aruch, Yoreh Deah, 113:1; Taz, Ibid., sif katan 1). You should know that if a Jew participates in the cooking or baking process, there is no prohibition of bishul akum, eating food cooked by a non-Jew. The Shulchan Aruch and the Rama are in disagreement what constitutes participation. According to the Rama, it is enough for a Jew to merely ignite the oven. However, according to the Shulchan Aruch, merely lighting the oven is not enough. Rather, the Jew must place the actual food item on the fire (Shulchan Aruch, Ibid, sif 7). You must make an effort not to eat in a restaurant without kashrut supervision. In a place where the only way to eat kosher food is by double-wrapping the kosher food and cooking it or heating it in the restaurant’s or hotel’s oven is not kosher, you must ensure that a Jew lights the oven (for Ashkenazim) or (for Sefardim or Ashkenazim) that a Jew will put the food in the oven. Regarding the use of knife to cut fish: If the knife is clean, you can use it to cut the fish, but only if the fish is cold (cf. Shulchan Aruch, Yoreh Deah 94:7, and in Sefer “Derashot”, perek 23, 25). Regarding the type of cooking: There is no difference whether the food is cooked, roasted, fried, or toasted. The prohibition of bishul akum applies to all forms of cooking (cf. Sefer Bein Yisrael LeNochri, Inyanei Yoreh Deah 10:3). Fish are not [generally] eaten raw. Fish dishes certainly are fit for royalty. Therefore, the prohibition of bishul akum applies. Vegetables: It depends if they are eaten raw (like cucumbers, tomatoes, peppers), then no prohibition of bishul akum exists. If they are only eaten cooked (like beets), the prohibition of bishul akum applies. Potatoes: Halachic authorities debate their status whether they are considered to be served on the table of royalty or not. The Aruch HaShulchan (113:11) is inclined to permit (although he concluded, “one should ponder the matter”). The Chachmat Adam, however, prohibits eating potatoes that were cooked by non-Jews. He considers potatoes as fit for royalty (66:4). Rav Shmuel HaLevi Wosner is also inclined to side with the Chachmat Adam’s opinion (Shevet HaLevi, volume 2, siman 45). It also seems to be the generally accepted practice in our times. Therefore, potatoes that were cooked by non-Jews are prohibited. Payment for "Kashrut Questionable" AffairX hired Y to cater a mehadrin (specially strict level of kashrut) affair. Due to a mix-up, Y rented utensils (=keilim) from a service that he was only slightly familiar with. Before the affair, X found reasons to believe that the utensils’ kashrut was suspect, which was confirmed afterward. X wants all his money back, citing internal embarrassment that he caused his guests to eat non-kosher food. Y, who had offered to compensate by providing some free catering, is no longer willing to return money due to X’s alleged harassment. What does halacha have to say about this?The response is based on the information provided.] Apparently, those who ate from the questionable keilim violated no Torah prohibition. Involved discussion of this question’s kashrut element is beyond this presentation’s scope, but the most pertinent point follows. If the taste given off by a k’li has a negative impact on the food with which it came in contact, which is assumed if the k’li had not been used in 24 hours, the food remains kosher (Yoreh Deah 103). One who is unaware of the recent use of a non-kosher k’li can assume that food heated in it remains kosher because it was likely not used that day and, even if it was, the taste may combine negatively with the new food (see Shulchan Aruch, YD 122:7 with commentaries). However, it is rabbinically forbidden to use a non-kosher k’li even if it was not used within 24 hours in a manner that it may give off taste (Avoda Zara 76a). If one sells another Jew non-kosher food without disclosure, the buyer can void the sale (Shulchan Aruch, Choshen Mishpat 234:3). The mishna (Bechorot 37a) says that even if the buyer ate the food and thus cannot return it to the seller, the seller must return all of the money. Rashi (ad loc.) posits that this is a penalty against the seller, prompting the Shach (YD 119:25) to say that this would not apply if the seller was unaware of the problem. The S’ma (234:4) adds that any benefit the buyer received was counteracted by the disgust of eating non-kosher food. The Shulchan Aruch (ibid.) says that if the prohibition on the food was only rabbinic, the seller does not have to return the money when it was eaten. Although the Pri Chadash (YD 119:24) says the buyer recovers the price difference between non-kosher food and that which he paid, most poskim say that the seller returns nothing. How can the seller withhold the kashrut problem and end up getting a higher price than the food’s market value? The Maharit Algazi (Bechorot 5:51) explains that since the buyer got the same benefit as if it had been kosher and would have anyway paid the price of kosher food (and the seller did lose when the buyer ate it) he must pay the planned price of the enjoyment. The Shach (ibid.:27) says that when the Rabbis instituted food prohibitions, they stipulated that the prohibition should not cause the extracting of money between litigants. According to the Maharit Algazi, ostensibly since X was willing to pay the amount he did and benefited as if it were mehadrin, he should not get any money back. However, the Shach’s novel idea to treat rabbinically non-kosher food like kosher food regarding money is limited. When one pays extra for a special feature, whether it be for “environmentally friendly” or for mehadrin, he should not pay the higher price if he received instead something standard. We should consider also that since X was troubled already during the affair about the kashrut questionability, he did not get the feeling of security that people who want mehadrin pay for. Despite the reasons to return this extra amount of the money (and the Pri Chadash’s aforementioned minority opinion), it is difficult to extract money from Y. However, it is appropriate, based on compromise, for Y to return the difference between kosher and mehadrin (approximately 10%), as Y was originally willing to do.
Must One Own Their Own Matza at the Seder?Someone showed me a gemara that says that one has to own his matza on seder night. Yet I have never seen people being careful to acquire ownership when they have the seder in someone else’s home. Can we reconcile the practice with the sources?The gemara (Pesachim 38a) does appears to say that one must own his matza. In discussing matza that is made from ma’aser sheni (produce that can be eaten only in Yerushalayim when it possesses a status of kedusha), it says that according to the opinion that ma’aser sheni is considered Hashem’s property, one cannot use it to fulfill the mitzva of eating matza. This is derived from the textual comparison between matza and challa taken from dough, which applies to one’s own dough. We accept the opinion that ma’aser sheni is owned by its human owner, and thus the question is moot in that regard. However, the concept finds expression in the halacha that one does not fulfill the mitzva with stolen matza, which, according to the Mishna Berura (454:15), is due to a lack of ownership over stolen matza. Therefore, even if one “steals” matza unintentionally and no one cares (e.g., two people mix up their matzot), there is a problem to rectify (ibid.). Why then do we not find people being careful to make a halachic acquisition (kinyan) on the matza? In regard to general approach to halacha, it is crucial not only that standard practice ignores the issue but also that the classical poskim are silent on the subject. This phenomenon, called setimat haposkim, is also a major halachic factor. Therefore, we do not suggest going out of one’s way to be stringent and make a kinyan because creating a chumra that is clearly a new one on a common matter is not warranted. (Regarding unusual occurrences, it is more reasonable to say that the lack of a source or a minhag of stringency is due to a dearth of discussion about rare cases … but that cannot be said here). Let us, then, explore why there is no problem. The Sefat Emet (Sukka 35a) suggests that we can apply the Rosh’s position that when a groom borrows a ring to effectuate a marriage, we assume it was given to him to halachically acquire it, for if not, the marriage cannot take effect. This explanation is somewhat difficult, as many people are not aware that they need to own matza and so the assumption of intention may be unreasonable. Another idea is that one acquires matza when he makes a change to it by chewing it. He fulfills the mitzva later when swallowing. This does not help for stolen matza (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 454:4) because there, the chewing, which begins the mitzva, is forbidden. Since the chewing is necessary to acquire the matza, the entire mitzva is disqualified (see Mishna Berura 649:3). This explanation is difficult because changes to an object alter ownership only in cases like that of a thief, who already did an action of bringing the object into his control; this is missing here. Some poskim (Imrei Bina, Pesach 23; Tzitz Eliezer II, 37) argue with the premise that one needs to own matza. They argue, based on the comparison to challa, that one needs only full permission to freely eat the food, not ownership. Guests and family members certainly have this. The Mishna Berura (454:15) hints at a strong answer. Intention for acquistion is pertinent when one could either be acquiring or borrowing. If the object will return to its original owner, it is borrowing unless something makes it an acquisition. When one receives matza with permission to eat it, the piece will not return; thus there is effective intention to acquire it. Putting food into or onto one’s body is a kinyan (see Gittin 77a). Thus one acquires matza before he swallows it. So as long as you’re not stealing someone’s matza, eat it without worries on this account. When and What to Eat When Erev Pessah Falls on ShabbatWhat do you suggest we do on Erev Pesach this year, which is on Shabbat, regarding when and what to eat?People must determine the most practical solutions among the valid solutions to the challenges of Erev Pesach on Shabbat, according to the halachic possibilities their rabbis present. One practical assumption is that people will use only Pesachdik and/or disposable utensils, keeping remaining chametz separate. Some form of bread is needed for the first two Shabbat meals and is preferred for seuda shlishit (Shulchan Aruch, OC 291:5), which should be held in the afternoon (ibid.:2). Since the prohibition to eat chametz begins after “four hours” (around two hours before halachic midday- consult a local calendar) something must give. Let’s take a meal-by-meal look. Friday night meal - Halachically, almost anything goes. Those who don’t want to worry about keeping chametz around can eat matza according to most poskim. If one has the minhag not to eat matza from the beginning of Nisan, matza ashira, often called “egg matza,” is an alternative.
Shabbat morning meal - If one finishes eating the chametz part of the meal by the end of the 4th hour, accomplished by davening early, matters are halachically simple. (How to get rid of crumbs or leftovers by the end of the 5th hour is beyond our present scope.) Matza is desirable for situations when it is hard or nerve-racking to deal with chametz. However, Chazal forbade eating matza on Erev Pesach, according to most, from the beginning of the morning, so that when we eat it at the seder, it will be clear that it is for the mitzva (see Rambam, Chametz U’matza 6:12). However, one may eat matza that cannot be used for the mitzva (Shulchan Aruch 471:2), primarily, matza ashira, which is kneaded with liquids other than water (see Pesachim 35a). If it contains no water, most Rishonim rule that it cannot become chametz, and one would seemingly not need to rush.
Yet there are two issues. Firstly, as Ashkenazim are stringent to treat matza ashira as possible chametz and are permitted to eat it on Pesach only in cases of great need (Rama 462:4), the time issue reawakens. (Some poskim rely on the Noda B’yehuda (I, OC 21) that it is sufficient to be wary of matza ashira only after midday of Erev Pesach). Secondly, matza ashira may have a status of pat haba’ah b’kisnin, similar to cake, making it a questionable substitute for challa. (Igrot Moshe OC I, 155 explains that this is not a problem on Shabbat but still seems to prefer challa when convenient. To see Rav O. Yosef’s preferred solution, see Yechave Da’at I, 91).
May One Share a Monthly Bus Pass (from Hemdat Yamim Parashat Kedoshim 5768)I was on a bus the other day and saw two young men share a chofshi chodshi (monthly pass), which Egged clearly forbids. Was I required to say something to the boys? If they would not listen, was I required to tell the driver? Is it a problem of lashon hara?We will explore three halachic issues, starting with lashon hara. If one sees Reuven wronging Shimon monetarily, he may take steps to protect Shimon’s rights at the expense of defaming Reuven if seven conditions are met (Chafetz Chayim, Lashon Hara 10). If you were sure of what you saw, the only questionable condition here is the need to rebuke the culprit in a soft manner before causing him embarrassment in order to give him the opportunity to rectify the matter without embarrassment (ibid. based on Rambam, De’ot 6:8). If that proves ineffective, you would not have to worry about lashon hara before approaching the driver and enabling him to rectify the situation. The next question is whether it is permitted or required to take such steps. In general, there is a mitzva from the Torah to rebuke for a sin (Vayikra 19:17). It makes little difference whether one rebukes in order to encourage possible rectification or to cause remorse and a decision not to repeat the sin (like the steps of teshuva we know of from our preparations for Yom Kippur). This mitzva is strongly related to the responsibility of afrushei mei’isura, to distance our counterpart from sin. In your case, the youngsters continued to illegally make use of the bus apparently with no intention to pay. Yet, if one thinks about it, we have ample opportunities to rebuke people on the bus, and, for better or for worse, we rarely do so. For example, if we someone eating without a beracha or telling lashon hara, we have an, at least theoretical, obligation to rebuke him and/or prevent the continuation of the sin. Our general working assumption is that since our generation is not proficient at rebuking and receiving rebuke, respectively, we have more to lose than to gain by doing so. One could argue that a clear man-to-man sin such as sneaking onto a bus is one that everyone would admit is inexcusable and the rebuke would work. However, many, likely including the youngsters you saw, are able to rationalize away such activity or don’t care if it is wrong. The final issue is hashavat aveida (returning something lost). Although the most famous discussions of hashavat aveida refer to physical objects, the mitzva refers to a variety of actions that need to be taken to prevent loss to our friend. For example, if one sees that his friend’s property is in danger of being damaged, he must protect it (Bava Metzia 31a). Furthermore, it appears that according to at least most poskim, one is required to take steps to enable his friend to receive the money he is owed. One example is that, in addition to the specific mitzva to testify on a friend’s behalf, several poskim say that the general mitzva of hashavat aveida also mandates testimony (Netivot Hamishpat 28:1; Sha’ar Mishpat 28:2; see Pitchei Choshen, Aveida 1:(63-65)). No matter how we classify the aveira of getting on a bus without paying (stealing for using property without permission, withholding fees due, etc.; analysis is beyond our present scope), Egged deserves to be paid and your action could have ostensibly enabled them to receive payment. However, it is likely that you were still not required to do so. First of all, it is likely that even if the driver would have decided to confront the cheats, they would have gotten off the bus rather than pay, and thus the money would not have been gained. More fundamentally, though, one is not required to put himself in a situation of significant embarrassment in order to do hashavat aveida (Berachot 19b). Since asking the offender to pay and/or going to the bus driver to snitch is likely to be a very upsetting experience, you were likely exempt from doing it.
Making Kiddush for Others Before Accepting ShabbatA friend of mine goes to a local hospital that has Jewish patients who are not able to make Kiddush and does it on their behalf. When Shabbat begins late and people eat before Shabbat, he makes Kiddush before accepting Shabbat and returns home. May he make Kiddush for others before he himself accepts Shabbat?At first glance, your friend is making Kiddush at a time when he is not obligated to do so on behalf of those who have (presumably) accepted (or are accepting) Shabbat and are thus obligated in Kiddush. In general, one who has already discharged his obligation of a certain mitzva can perform the mitzva with its beracha to fulfill the obligation of one who has not yet done so (based on the concept of arvut) (Rosh Hashana 29a). However, the mishna limits this. The one who performs the mitzva must be as obligated in it as the one for whom he is doing it. We must consider: is your friend considered obligated in Kiddush because generally it applies to him, like one who already fulfilled his obligation? Or should we say that one for whom the time is such that the mitzva does not apply is not considered obligated at all? Regarding cases similar to this, Acharonim cite a Yerushalmi (see Tosafot, Yevamot 14a) that says that inhabitants of un-walled cities cannot read the megilla on behalf of those from walled cities (whose obligation is a day later). We see that one who is obligated in theory but not at this time is not considered obligated. R. Akiva Eiger (to Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 277) in regard to our case, raises the following distinction. Here, the one who has not accepted Shabbat can accept it and become obligated immediately. Therefore, the obligation is considered relevant even before he did so. However, R. Akiva Eiger left the matter as an unsolved doubt. In the past generation, several poskim have tried to resolve the doubt. Tosafot (Berachot 48b) says that one who did not eat is considered obligated in regard to performing Birkat Hamazon on behalf of one who ate because he could eat. Rav S.Z. Orbach (Minchat Shlomo I, 3), makes the following distinction between that case and ours. At the time of Birkat Hamazon, the mitzva applies to the one who has not eaten if only the circumstances were that he had eaten. In contrast, before Shabbat is simply not a time that Kiddush is relevant for one who has not accepted Shabbat even if he could do so. On the other hand, we should consider whether it is clear that Kiddush is inappropriate before Shabbat. The Rambam apparently does not accept the concept of tosefet Shabbat (the ability/obligation) to usher in Shabbat early. Yet he (Shabbat 29:11) says that it is possible to recite Kiddush toward the end of Friday afternoon. This lends credence to the concept that Kiddush (as well as its parallel, Havdala) applies and can be done close to the time of the transition between Shabbat and weekday. Thus the obligation of Kiddush may already apply on a certain level soon before Shabbat even for one who has not accepted Shabbat. While it is difficult to rely on this thesis, it can be thrown in to the mix when contemplating grounds for leniency in various related cases (see Minchat Shlomo, ibid.). Some of our generation’s important poskim have differed as to whether it is proper to rely on R. Akiva Eiger’s more lenient position and allow one who has not accepted Shabbat to make Kiddush for others. In a case such as ours where one is doing a mitzva by doing so and it is not easy to replace him with someone else who can make Kiddush in a better way, we feel that it is proper to be lenient on the matter (see Tzitz Eliezer XII, 25; Yabia Omer VIII, OC 46). While it is best if someone who is hearing the Kiddush should be eating upon it at that time, it is possible that even this is not an absolute necessity (Tzitz Eliezer XII, 24). (The details of that issue are beyond our present scope.)
OrlahWe have bought land in a tropical region in order to plant noni trees (which is for tropical fruit, which and we plan to use for vitamins and juice). We just found out there could be a problem with orlah - we cannot use or benefit from the fruit! Is that true? That would be a tremendous loss for us. Someone mentioned that we may be able to work around it if we have a non-Jew who is a partner . We have an opportunity to put a non-Jew in charge of planting and growing the noni and harvesting it to the point of sales. His salary is 25% of what is sold, while we get the rest.Intermediate Response: It is true that orlah applies outside Eretz Yisrael based on a äìëä ìîùä îñéðé (an oral tradition given to Moshe, but not mentioned in the text of the Torah) (Kiddushin 39a). The reason most people don’t know about it, is that it applies only when one knows that the fruit is orlah, so the consumer needs no certification before buying (ibid.). Of course, that won’t help you. The gemara in Avoda Zara 22a compares (and contrasts) a partnership with a non-Jew in a new orchard to a partnership with a non-Jew in a business which one wants/needs to keep open on Shabbat. If done in the proper way, a non-Jew can buy a partnership in the land and trees before the fruit grow and he will get all the fruit of the first three years whereas you will get in subsequent years. Is this feasible? If so, we will send you more details.
Question (part II): Your suggestion will not help us. No one will give us money up front, but the money isn’t the issue. We need to get the business going under our control (machinery, marketing) and start selling. There is a shortage of noni fruit world wide and we need to position ourselves in the market now. We are willing to give all the profits to tzedaka for the first three years! Can’t we sell everything, in name, to a non-Jew like we do with chametz (even though we keep possession of the chometz)?
By the way, noni fruits taste and smell horrible. they are extremely important for health purposes, but can be used only for vitamins and in a juice, where, they cab make up no more than 10%. Does that make a difference?
Answer (part II): I was very glad to receive the crucial information in your last update Rav S.Z. Orbach zt”l in Minchat Shlomo 71.4 writes that it would appear to him that orlah does not apply to fruits that are not edible themselves and can be used only for their extract. The logic is as follows. It is true that benefit from orlah applies even to uses that have nothing to do with eating (burning, making paint - see Pesachim 22b). However, that is only when one is taking them from fruits of “food-producing trees” (see Vayikra 16:23). However, if the fruit cannot be eaten, but only used for extract, then the fruit is not included in the prohibition of orlah. Although he is not fully conclusive that one can rely upon this idea, there is a rule by orlah that when there is a doubt, then one should be stringent in Israel and lenient outside of it (Brachot 36a). Therefore, you can rely on that opinion, that, according to your description of the noni fruit, no restrictions of orlah apply.
Let us conclude with your situation had we been discussing a regular fruit.
The gemara in Avoda Zara 22a compares and contrasts partnerships with non-Jews in businesses open on Shabbat and in a field of orlah trees. In both, one is allowed to make a stipulation when one receives the business/field that the non-Jew will have the sole obligations and benefits of ownership on Shabbat and the first three years of fruit, respectively. It is not that the fruit becomes permitted when there is ownership of the non-Jew but rather that he is not receiving benefit from the fruit. If they are owned by non-Jews and then end up in his hand or control, one may still not benefit from them. One thus cannot sell the fruit, even if he plans to give the money to tzedakah. In the meantime, he has received benefit and his future intentions don’t help. Even if all the profit goes directly to the non-Jew, it is still not a problem. There is a violation to be involved in commerce in forbidden foods (Yoreh Deah, 117).
Additionally, since you would be using the fruit to obtain a desired market share, even if you did it for free, it would be considered your benefit (especially if you choose how to market the fruit in such a way that you will be in a better market situation after the three years are up). The Rama, Yoreh Deah 294:8 rules that you cannot even pick a non-Jew’s orlah fruit for free because you benefit from the fact that he owes you a favor.
By the way, it is dissimilar to the sale of chometz. There the problem is the ownership of the chometz. Once you sell it, there is no ownership and possession. Whatever benefit you will get is after Pesach is over where that very same chometz is permitted to receive benefit from. Here, the fruit is forbidden in benefit forever, and when you sell it, you are receiving benefit.
Thank you for your patience. The above approach was upheld by Rav Yehuda Amichai, head of the Institute of the Torah and the Land. If you read Hebrew and would like a copy of the Teshuva that he wrote, please send us a fax number and we will fax it to you.
How Much Does One Need to Eat From the Lechem Mishneh?Does one have to eat a k’zayit (size of an olive; assumed to be 1 fl. oz.) from the lechem mishneh (two loaves of bread for Shabbat)? What happens if the lechem mishneh is too small for everyone to get a sizable piece or if someone prefers another challa?The Rama (Orach Chayim 167:1), in describing how much of a loaf one should properly cut off after reciting Hamotzi,says: “That which one should not pull off more than a k’beitza (the size of an egg) is only during the week when one is eating by himself. However, on Shabbat or when one is eating with many people and needs to give from the removed piece a k’zayit to everyone, one can pull off as much as he wants.” Ostensibly then we assume that everyone should receive a k’zayit of the main bread upon which the beracha was made. However, let us put the matter in perspective based on the sources and issues.
The poskim (see Tur/Beit Yosef, OC 167) say that one should not normally cut off a large piece of bread from his loaf because it looks gluttonous (based on Berachot 39b). However, the gemara (ibid.) says that if one does so specifically on Shabbat, it is fine, as he is seen as one who approaches the mitzva to eat on Shabbat enthusiastically. The Rambam (Berachot 7:3) also says that one should not cut off too small a piece because that looks stingy. The Beit Yosef corroborates with a gemara that shows the importance of a host giving nice sized pieces to his guests. Thus, one can easily understand the Rama as just dealing with matters of manners with no implication about whether the guests are halachic supposed to eat a k’zayit from the main loaf (see Mishna Berura 167:15).
The Magen Avraham (167:7; cited ibid.), though, understands that there may be a beracha-related reason to have a k’zayit. He points out that the minhag is not to be careful on the matter but says it is preferable to have a k’zayit (see also Dagul Me’revava, ad loc.). That being said, these sources do not say that even preferably the whole k’zayit must come from the loaf upon which the beracha was made. In fact, if the guests have bread in front of them, they can use the host’s beracha and immediately eat from their own bread (Shulchan Aruch ibid.:15).
The question is on Shabbat, where everyone must be connected to the lechem mishneh and wait to receive a piece (ibid.). We find that on Shabbat it is best to cut off a big enough piece in the beginning to suffice for the whole meal (ibid. 274:2). However, there does not seem to be a requirement for individuals to eat specifically a k’zayit from the lechem mishneh. (A person should eat a k’zayit of bread for it to be a meal and recite Birkat Hamazon and a k’beitza to justify the beracha on netilat yadayim.) However, being connected to the lechem mishneh and the beracha made on it can be accomplished with eating any quantity (Igrot Moshe, OC V, 16; Teshuvot V’hanhagot II, 171).
This being said, there are sources that indicate that a piece less than a half of a k’zayit is not considered significant (see Eliya Rabba 174:2) and that one should show respect to the bread to which the mitzva is related (see Levush, OC 174:14). Therefore, people would do well to eat a half of a k’zayit (without exaggerating the size of k’zayit as many of us do on Pesach) from the lechem mishneh. However, one who dislikes the challa the host used for lechem mishneh or has health concerns with it can follow the basic halacha that he can go on to other bread after a small taste from the lechem mishneh. Similarly, hosts who make Hamotzi on a loafthat may not provide a k’zayit or even a half for all (e.g., with large groups or for those who use rolls or matza for lechem mishneh at seuda shlishit and then serve sliced bread or leftovers) need not feel guilty. One who is careful to provide a k’zayit to each guest from the lechem mishneh is praiseworthy (see Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 55:24 and footnote 15). drying one’s hands with an electric hand dryer instead of a towel after netilat yadayimAfter washing one’s hands for netillat yadayim (=ny) before eating bread, is it permitted to dry one’s hands with an electric (blow) hand dryer instead of a towel?Your assumption that there is a need for niguv (drying of the hands) is basically correct, but the reason behind it will impact on the requirements for this niguv.
One of the rationales that Tosafot (Pesachim 7b) gives for the practice of making a beracha on ny after the washing occurs (usually the beracha precedes the mitzva)is that ny is not finished until after the niguv. This seems to give a halachic status to the practice, but Tosafot does not explain why this is so. One suggestion has to do with the fact that the water one uses for ny can become tameh (impure) after the first washing and steps need to be taken to remove it. The main solution is to wash a second time, but some understand that niguv is a final part of the removal process (see Beit Yosef, Orach Chayim 158).
The gemara (Sota 4b) discusses how to make sure that water of ny should not pick up impurity and then return to make the hands impure. The gemara then says: “Whoever eats bread without drying his hands is like eating impure bread.” It brings a pasuk that talks about impure hands, and according to Rashi, we see from it that matters of mi’us (unsightliness) can be called impure. The simple understanding, then, is that niguv is a matter of manners (wet hands make bread soggy) which, in this case, Torah sources equate with impurity.
It is difficult, though, to say that mi’us is the only issue. The Tosefta (Yadayim 2:1) says that niguv is required only after ny, not tevillat yadayim (immersing hands). If the issue is the halachic issues of tumeh, the matter is understandable, as after immersion, all the water is pure. However, according to the approach of mi’us, why should there be a difference between moisture from washing or immersing? (The Taz (158:13) rejects the possibility that the gemara argues on the Tosefta).
Therefore, a third approach is suggested (Taz ibid., based on the Maharshal), which includes elements of the first two. The heart of the problem is mi’us, but the Rabbis instituted that their rabbinic mechanism of ny would be incomplete until niguv is done. However, in regard to tevillat yadayim, which is a throwback to the Torah laws of tevilla, the need for niguv was not formalized.
A difference between the approach of removing tumah and that of a formal requirement related to mi’us is in regard to one who does ny with at least a revi’it (3-4 ounces) of water for the first washing. The Shulchan Aruch (OC 158:13) says that since in that case, there is no impure water, niguv is unnecessary. The Maharshal says that since there is an issue of mi’us and since this is under the framework of netilla, niguv is required. The latter approach is the prevalent one (Mishna Berura 158:46), and, therefore, even after ny with a lot of water (which is now commonplace), niguv is needed.
The Levush (OC 158:13) makes a claim that is pertinent to our question. He says that the Tosefta never denied a need for dry hands after immersing, but meant only that it need not be done in a formal and more halachically effective drying, using something absorbent. Rather, after tevilla,one can allow the hands to dry by themselves in order to avoid mi’us. In contrast, in order to remove tameh water, an absorbent material must be used. Several poskim (see Shulchan Aruch Harav, OC 158:17; Kaf Hachayim, OC 158:87) accept the Levush’s stringency (the Chazon Ish, OC 25:10 does not). In all probability, using an electric dryer is considered a means of speeding up the natural process of hands drying themselves and would not suffice according to the Levush. However, if a revi’it of water was used on the first washing and the issue is only mi’us, the Levush’s concern does not apply and all would agree that an electric dryer is fine (B’tzel Hachochma IV, 141). Two Out of a Group Who Want to do a ZimunI know that if two people want to do a zimun and a third does not want to yet, the two can force the third to answer. What about if there are five or six people? Can two of them pick one to force to join them?The gemara (Berachot 45b) says that if three eat together, one stops to answer for two who want to bentch, but two do not stop for one. Rashi explains that one should show proper manners to answer, implying that there is no halachic imperative that he must take a break in his eating to do so. However, the Shulchan Aruch (Orach Chayim 200:1) rules like the Rishonim who say that it is halachically required for the third to answer, and even if he refuses to answer, the two (only) fulfill the requirement of zimun. In order to answer your question, regarding two who want to use a third when there are more than three participants in the meal, we need to understand the reasoning behind the halacha above. Poskim explain that it is based on the concept of rov (majority) (Birkei Yosef, OC 200:5; Mishna Berura 200:2). The minority that is not yet ready to bentch has to follow the majority of the group that is interested. According to important poskim, this idea of rov can be extended to other groups. The Eliyah Rabba (OC 200:6), for example, says that six who want to do a zimun with Hashem’s Name also create a majority to force four to answer. If the matter depends on rov, it does not appear that a minority of a group can force a majority or even two sub-groups of the same number of people cannot force one another to do a zimun. The Birkei Yosef (200:5) assumes simply that which the Eliyah Rabba implies: five cannot make five answer. One could claim that the important thing is to have a majority of the necessary quorum who are ready to bentch and then they can use whomever they want. Thus two could force any one they wanted, while five, which is only half way to the zimun of ten, could not. However, the language of the poskim implies that it is a matter of deciding when the most appropriate time is for the group to do the zimun. There is no reason to assume that two can select one from the main group and turn him into their minority. The exact definition of what constitutes a rov in this regard is important for the following common case. One person wants to bentch, and a second is not yet finished but is interested in helping his friend and agrees to be the second. Can those two force the third? The Birkei Yosef (ibid.) (discussing five and five with one of the “non-bentchers” volunteering) leans toward the view that he cannot. The person who volunteers is still not an interested party who creates a rov who are bentching. On the other hand, Rav Kook (Orach Mishpat, OC 40) leans toward the approach that even when only one of the two is bentching now, the two can force the third. His impression is based on the following gemara (Berachot 45b). Rav Papa was eating with his son and a third person. Only his son was ready to bentch, and Rav Papa accommodated him. The gemara says that Rav Papa had gone beyond the letter of the law in agreeing. Rav Kook understands that once Rav Papa agreed, the third’s willingness was irrelevant. (One can deflect the proof and say that, given Rav Papa’s stature, it was clear that the third person would not object.) It seems that a majority of poskim accept the Birkei Yosef’s approach that only two who are actually bentching can force a third. In practice, most people do accommodate their friends anyway, which is good. (Vaya’an Avraham (OC 16) suggests the possibility that if the second agrees because he is halachically required to respect the person who wants to bentch, it would be considered a rov; he himself rejects the suggestion). It is worthwhile to recall that, for Ashkenazim, when someone answers zimun before bentching, he must wait until the end of the first beracha before resuming eating (Rama, OC 200:2). Eating before feeding one’s fishI have a fish tank, if my wife takes care of the fish may I eat breakfast before she is feeding the fish?As long as someone is responsible for feeding the fish at the proper time, you may eat beforehand (see Yad Ephraim to the Shulchan Aruch Orach Chaim 167:6). Is it Better to Daven Without a Minyan or to Start Working Before Davening?Is it better to daven without a minyan before work or do some work first and daven with a minyan later (at a halachically acceptable time)?Is it better to daven without a minyan before work or do some work first and daven with a minyan later (at a halachically acceptable time)? Answer: Work is one of the things that one should not do before davening once alot hashachar (some 72 minutes before sunrise) has come (Berachot 14a; Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 89:3). Work, in this regard, is not limited to the place one goes to earn money but includes a wide variety of household tasks of even moderate time duration. The logic is that when one gets up in the morning, addressing his Maker should be the first concern. Therefore, there are significant similarities in logic and halachic parameters between this restriction and those of not traveling, eating, or greeting people before davening (Berachot ibid. and 10b; various places in OC 89). Generally, if the activity one is involved in is mitzva-related and cannot wait until after tefilla, it is permitted because it is not considered an affront to Hashem (Mishna Berura 89:36). In such cases, one should first recite Kri’at Shema, which is a mitzva from the Torah, (and probably Birkot Hashachar- see below and Ishei Yisrael 13:(61)) before doing the work (Mishna Berura 250:1). Sometimes steps still need to be taken to reduce the concern that one may get carried away and miss davening on time altogether (see Shulchan Aruch, ibid.:6 regarding learning). The obvious first reaction to your question is that it is better to daven with a minyan before working. However, in cases of significant need, the pre-davening restrictions can be waved. One of the classic examples is going on the road before davening when the caravan will not wait until after one davens (see Mishna Berura 89:20). One should consider whether such a trip is justified (but such distinctions as between a potential loss of money and an opportunity to gain money (see Mishna Berura 90:29) are beyond our present scope). The Ishei Yisrael (13:(47)) says that under similar circumstances of need one could also do work before davening. These circumstances are certainly grounds for missing a minyan (see Mishna Berura, ibid.). Assuming that the fact is that you will not be able to both daven with a minyan and before starting work, the question is which factor should take precedence. There do not appear to be many sources on the matter but the consensus is that it is better to daven before work than to start working in order to get a minyan later (Ishei Yisrael 12:13 and Riv’vot Ephrayim I, 66 in the name of Rav Hadaya). The ruling is readily understandable. It is forbidden to work before davening. In contrast, it is not forbidden to daven without a minyan. Rather, davening with a minyan is an important element of tefilla, which also makes it more effective (Berachot 8a- see also Living the Halachic Process A-5). Since a serious inconvenience is grounds to miss a minyan (see Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 90:16 and Mishna Berura 90:52), avoiding a prohibition is also grounds. That being said, the case for always davening first alone is not iron-clad. Firstly, the Rama (Orach Chayim 89:3) cites and does not totally reject the opinion that after saying Birkot Hashachar one may do work. Although we would not normally condone this, when it “buys time” to allow someone to daven with a minyan, it is not unreasonable. Secondly, those who have to daven so early may be saying Shemoneh Esrei before sunrise, which is permitted only under pressing circumstances (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 89:8). Thus, if the minyan alternative would also have the benefit of being at or after sunrise, this might tip the scale. Finally, if the quality of the davening, from a practical or even psychological perspective, is enhanced at the minyan (see Mishna Berura 89:39), this too is a major factor. Therefore, we suggest that you discuss the different considerations and options with a rabbi who knows you and your situation well. Using Others’ Religious ArticlesI understand that Ashkenazim may borrow religious articles from each other without permission but Sephardim may not. May an Ashkenazi borrow a Sephardi’s religious article without permission?Your assumption is overstated, as we will explain, but your question is fascinating to explore regarding cases where the assumptions apply. It is forbidden (as theft) to borrow other people’s objects without permission. Where we believe that the owner would want the borrower to take it, the matter is more complicated (see Ask the Rabbi, Pinchas 5765). However, regarding an object that people generally are happy for others to use, they may do so. Rishonim (see Beit Yosef, Orach Chayim 14) say that people are happy to let others borrow an object to be used for a mitzva (based on Pesachim 4b that one is happy for his money to be involved in a mitzva). The Shulchan Aruch (OC 14:4), following this assumption, allows one to borrow a tallit that he finds in shul. The Rama (ad loc.) adds that one can do the same with tefillin and elsewhere (OC 649:5) says the same for a lulav. Indications (from the Beit Yosef and commentators) are that the Shulchan Aruch and Sephardi poskim agree. The question of borrowing religious articles does not have a yes or no answer. The Shulchan Aruch (ibid.) makes a condition that one returns the tallit folded if it was found that way. The Magen Avraham (14:7) permits it only on occasion and requires that the object remain in the building where it was found. The Rama (ibid.) says that one may not similarly borrow sefarim to learn from. The reason is that the concern that the sefarim will get ripped makes it unclear that the owner would be happy to lend them. The Pri Megadim (Mishbetzot Zahav 14:7) claims that the minhag is to borrow siddurim in shul without permission. He opposes the minhag based on the Rama’s and others’ rulings. The Aruch Hashulchan, a more recent leading posek, who tends to be very minhag-oriented, turns everything upside down. Regarding a tallit, he not only interprets the classical leniency narrowly but observes that people are now more particular about others borrowing their tallitot (OC 14:11). On the other hand, he says that people are no longer disturbed by others borrowing their siddurim and sefarim and, therefore, that should now be permitted (ibid.:13). Actually, even classically, when one asked a talmid chacham to watch sefarim for him, the latter could use them because of an assumption that the owner who said nothing would let (Rama, Choshen Mishpat 292:20). So, we find fluidity based on the circumstances and we do not find explicit, major differences between Ashkenazi and Sephardi poskim (see Kaf Hachayim, OC 14:31). In practice, the matter is disputed, and different places (especially yeshivot) have different practices. However, regarding using sefarim at their place, considering their relative low cost and high durability, few mind. We will now re-ask your question. If one received a p’sak that he can borrow, can he borrow from one who has a p’sak not to borrow or vice versa? Presumably, the machloket arises because owners’ intentions are borderline and/or depend on how much to adapt classical rulings when recent observers sense that the situation has changed somewhat. These questions are for the borrower(’s rabbi) to determine and do not depend on the specific owner/lender. If a ruling became very famous among a group, we might say that the p’sak became a self-fulfilling prophecy, creating a minhag to allow or forbid others’ use. As far as we are aware, neither Ashkenazim nor Sephardim have broad, well-known practices on the matter. However, one who enters a yeshiva or shul where there is a stated policy can assume that the sefarim owners there conform to the local standard, and we would follow the lender’s presumed position. (One should look at a sefer’s inside cover to see if the owner left contrary instructions). How to properly shorten the Pesach Seder in a situation of needI surely know that Pesach sedorim need to be conducted after dark. I have always trained young children to wait, etc. for the proper time. My Shayla arises because of an adult family member who wishes to be at the Sedorim, but is quite ill, and for whom waiting till the "proper" time will be extremely difficult, especially the night of the second. What am I permitted to do, to make it possible for him to participate?1. The agreement of the halachic authorities is that one should not start the Passover Seder prior to nightfall. 2. If one is in unusual circumstances (such as one who is ill), one could recite an abbreviated portion of the Magid section, but one should make sure to say the parts dealing with enslavement. The minimum sections to recite from Magid are: a. The verses that start with the words, “Avadim Hayinu leFaroh…,” “We were slaves unto Pharaoh…” b. The verses that start with the words, “Raban Gamliel omer… Pesach…Matzah Zu… Maror zeh…,” “Rabbi Gamliel said…What does the paschal offering represent...What does this matzah represent... What do these bitter herbs represent...?” c. The blessing “asher go’alnu,” “that You have Redeemed us.” If one is able to prolong the Seder slightly further, one should also say the section of “Mitchilah ovdei avodah zarah hayu…, “We were originally idolaters…”, and the section of “Be’chol dor va’dor chayav adam…,” “Throughout every generation, one is obligated…” If one is able to recite the entire Magid without skipping, it is preferable. After the Seder, one could understandably complete the sections that were skipped. 3. If by one’s eating prior to Seder Night, one could recite the Seder at the proper time and not need to abbreviate it, then it is recommended to eat a meal before night (Notwithstanding that one is usually not permitted to eat after the ‘tenth hour,’ in this case, one’s purpose in eating is so one could fulfill the mitzvah of the Seder – eating matzah, drinking four cups of wine, reciting Magid, etc., in the proper time – it is permitted for him to eat). 4. If there is no possibility at all to wait until nightfall due to medical reasons, etc., then that person is except due to circumstances beyond his or her control. (Sources: Shulchan Aruch, siman 477, Shulchan Aruch HaRav, siman 473. We recommend reading our responsa regarding a similar question in the responsa BaMareh Bazaq, volume 3, 55).
Making Egg Matzot Available to Guests at a HotelI run a hotel that has many guests for Pesach. Can we put a box of egg matzot on each table so that those who need them will find them easily or must we be concerned of the very likely possibility that some will, out of ignorance or lack of interest, take these matzot when it is not warranted? Would it be considered lifnei iver (placing a stumbling block before the “‘blind”‘)?Although you are aware of the basic bottom line on egg matzot, it is worthwhile to review relevant sources. The gemara (Pesachim 35b) says that fruit juices do not leaven flour. According to most Rishonim this applies to eggs as well (see Tur and Beit Yosef, Orach Chayim 462). However, there are several problems with using this ruling to make various types of what we call egg matzot a simple Pesach solution. (Realize that different brands of egg matzos use different liquids other than water. We will call all of them egg matzot for simplicity’s sake.) According to many Rishonim and the Shulchan Aruch (OC 462:2), not only can fruit juice mixed with water that is kneaded with flour become chametz, but it is expected to happen quicker than with flour and water alone. Thus, a hashgacha would have to ensure that the flour was not exposed to water before its preparation and not included in the egg matza dough. There is also a dispute between Rashi (stringent) and Tosafot (lenient) (Pesachim 35b) whether the gemara meant that egg matzot do not become chametz at all or just that their leavening is not complete enough for one who eats it to be chayav karet but that there is a lesser prohibition. Most Rishonim, including the Rambam (Chametz U’Matza 5:2) agree with Tosafot, but the Rama (OC 462:4) says that the minhag is like Rashi. The Rama’s compromise is that only when there is a pressing need to be lenient, such as a sick or a very old person, may one eat egg matzot on Pesach. The Shulchan Aruch (ad loc.) is lenient, and thus Sephardic practice is to allow eating egg matzot on Pesach (see Yechaveh Da’at 1:10). In any case, it would be wrong for healthy Ashkenazim to eat egg matzot on Pesach (They are allowed to possess them and eat them after Pesach- Mishna Berura 462:18). On seder night there is an additional problem. An egg matza, even if not chametz, is matza ashira (rich), which is not valid for fulfilling the mitzva of the night. Therefore, even Sephardim and the sick should not have egg matza where matza is required for the seder. (Other alternatives for those who don’t chew or digest “regular matza” well exist but are beyond our present scope). It is a good question whether putting egg matzot on tables, knowing that some people who shouldn’t be eating them will, is a violation of lifnei iver. (See Yechaveh Da’at (ibid.) who demonstrates that even a Sephardi, who may eat egg matza, may not give them to an Ashkenazi). If you are not aware of the status of the people at each table, then you could use the principle of t’liyah (see Yoreh Deah 251). This means that when it is quite possible that the object one is giving will be used properly, it is permitted to give it to another even though there is a good chance it will be used improperly. While this is a legitimate approach to take in cases with problems without easy solutions (e.g., someone who runs a large store and cannot keep track of who is buying what), it is not acceptable here. Firstly, what do you, your waiter, or your mashgiach do when he learns who is who and sees them acting improperly? Also, how could you allow those who were told the kashrut is good to make a mistake and eat that which was on the table? A simple solution is to have a table in the corner with egg matzot with a large sign that identifies the egg matzot as something that Ashkenazim may eat only when the situation is pressing. You may suggest that those with questions should ask the rabbi/mashgiach. beracha acharonaIf I have half a k’zayit of one food that gets a Me’ein Shalosh (the long beracha acharona that summarizes the elements of Birkat Hamazon; it is often called Al Hamichya, for one of its possible openings) and half a k’zayit of another food that gets Borei Nefashot, what beracha acharona do I make, if any?We will focus on only a few of this question’s many permutations. We first assume that you refer to foods that are eaten as separate entities (e.g., a piece of cake and a piece of apple), not in a combined manner (e.g., a k’zayit of cake that has fruit filling). The general rule is that one cannot fulfill the obligation of Me’ein Shalosh by reciting Borei Nefashot or vice versa, even b’dieved (Mishna Berura 208:62). (An exception is that if one is already making an Al Ha’etz on fruit of the seven species, this exempts him from Borei Nefashot on fruit of trees that are not of the seven species- Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 208:13). Therefore, when one is not sure whether he should recite Me’ein Shalosh or Borei Nefashot, he is in a bind because if he guesses wrong, he will be making an inappropriate beracha (see Rama, Orach Chayim 208:18 and Mishna Berura 208:80). We do not say that Borei Nefashot is a generic beracha (as its text may imply) that works b’dieved for any food as we do regarding Shehakol (Magen Avraham 208:26). Some Acharonim (Igrot Moshe, Orach Chayim I, 74; Kaf Hachayim 202:79) argue at least partially and say that if it will be impossible (for halachic or technical reasons) to recite Me’ein Shalosh, then saying Borei Nefashot is not a beracha levatala and is better than saying nothing. Nevertheless, the Magen Avraham (210:1) says that if one ate half a k’zayit of Me’ein Shalosh food and half a k’zayit of a Borei Nefashot food, he makes a Borei Nefashot. The Machatzit Hashekel explains that Borei Nefashot does apply on a basic level to all foods. If a food is of a higher level of importance, so that it receives a Me’ein Shalosh, Borei Nefashot becomes the wrong beracha, and one is not yotzei with it. However, if there are certainly not grounds for Me’ein Shalosh (i.e., he had less than a k’zayit of that type of food) then the basic applicability of Borei Nefashot can connect it to another food to warrant a joint Borei Nefashot. The Sha’ar Hatziyun (210:2) adds another justification for the Magen Avraham’s ruling. That is that some Rishonim say that just as one must make a beracha before eating any amount of food, so must one recite at least the simple beracha of Borei Nefashot after eating any amount of any food where a higher beracha acharona is not recited. In order to recite Borei Nefashot on less than a shiur (the amount one needs to eat to require the beracha) of foods that join together to be a shiur, it is necessary that the two foods share a shiur. Therefore, half a k’zayit of a food and half a revi’it of a liquid do not join to require Borei Nefashot (Magen Avraham 210:1). Regarding foods that combine two different ingredients (regarding beracha) in one food, there are different opinions and minhagim. Regarding a beracha rishona, as long as there is a significant amount of flour from the major grains, one makes Mezonot, but regarding beracha acharona one needs to have a k’zayit of the major grains without the help of other grains (Shulchan Aruch, OC 208:9). The question is, though, if the flour is joined by only supplementary foods such as sugar and spices, whether one would make Al Hamichya only if there is a k’zayit of flour or even a k’zayit of cake is sufficient. (The Mishna Berura 208:48 takes the latter opinion, but some argue. Further discussion is beyond our present scope.) Eating at someone's house whose business stays open on ShabbatMay I eat on Shabbat in the house of someone whose business (in Europe) stays open on Shabbat? If the owner works in the store on Shabbat, one has to assume that he has the status of a mechallel Shabbat b’farhesia (one who desecrates Shabbat publicly), who loses all halachic ne’emanut (credibility) (Shulchan Aruch, Yoreh Deah 119:6; see Shut Chatam Sofer, Choshen Mishpat 175 regarding operating a store on Shabbat). If, though, a wife who does not violate prohibitions vouches for all the food’s purchase and preparation it would be permitted to eat there. Your question implies that the owner only keeps the store open, and let’s assume with non-Jews selling and working. You also imply that the person seems to generally follow the laws of the Torah. Since you give no details, we cannot say whether your acquaintance’s store is allowed to be open on Shabbat with non-Jews working in it. Some relevant factors include whether there is a non-Jewish partner and the nature of the partnership; whether it is known publicly that it is a Jewish-owned business; how the workers are paid and whether they are required to open on Shabbat. We will work with your apparent assumption that the owner violates a rabbinic prohibition by keeping it open. There is considerable debate, without a clear consensus, regarding whether the sweeping disqualification for chillul Shabbat b’farhesia applies to the violation of rabbinic prohibitions of Shabbat (see Baer Heitev, Yoreh Deah 2:15; Pitchei Teshuva, YD 2:8; Rabbi Akiva Eiger, ad loc.; Aruch Hashulchan, YD 2:16). Besides the special disqualification of a mechallel Shabbat, there is the general matter that one who does follow a halacha loses credibility. The gemara (Bechorot 30a) cites a machloket Tannaim whether one who is not trustworthy in one area of halacha is not trusted for anything or whether he is trusted in areas that are more severe and thus it is less likely that he would violate them. We accept the opinion that one is still believed regarding matters that are more severe (Shulchan Aruch, ibid.:5). On one hand, one who violated rabbinic prohibitions should not be suspected to violate ones of Torah origin (Bechorot 30a). On the other hand, when one eats by someone, he has to be sure that not only are there are not Torah violations but that there are also not rabbinic violations. Regarding questions of general kashrut, this should not be a problem because the transfer of distrust from a severe violation to a lighter one applies only when the violations are of the same general type (i.e., from forbidden food to forbidden food) and would not apply from Shabbat to kashrut (see Shach 119:12). Yet, if one wants to eat in this person’s house on Shabbat, don’t we have to be concerned that he will violate a rabbinic prohibition of Shabbat as he did regarding the store? The solution to these problems is found in the Rama (YD 119:7). One does not lose his reliability if he violated a prohibition that people don’t think is a real prohibition. Since there are cases where one can have his store operated on Shabbat and since, for a long time in many places, there has been an atmosphere where many believed that doing so in general is not forbidden, the storeowner is not categorized as a mechallel Shabbat nor is he considered one who is suspect of sinning. Of course, it may be questionable if someone of this level knows enough to keep a sufficiently kosher home, but the matter of the store per se should not make it forbidden to eat in his house even on Shabbat.
Eating on Yom Kippur for health reasonsIf someone has to eat for health reasons on Yom Kippur in a manner that he has to eat, at times, more than a shiur (the amount that constitutes a full violation), does he have to be careful about the shiur the rest of the day?When possible, a sick person who must eat ingests food and drink in small quantities to minimize the level of the necessary violation of eating on Yom Kippur (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 618:8). (You are apparently aware of how this is done.) Your question is whether or not this effort is all or nothing. In other words, if he anyway has to fully break the fast, does it makes a difference how many times this happens? (We are assuming that the need to be careful each time is not itself going to negatively impact the sick person.) If the question related to other eating violations (e.g., a sick person had to eat non-kosher food), the answer is simple. Just because one was forced to perform a major violation once is no reason for it to be less severe later. The question is whether eating on Yom Kippur is a normal "eating violation," wherein every shiur of food is a violation, or whether it is a violation of the obligation to fast. If the latter is true, then arguably, once one was forced to suspend his fast, further eating does not fundamentally change things. The Shulchan Aruch (OC 568:1) says that when one has to fast on a specific day (even if it is self-imposed) but ate, he must continue fasting and cannot say that fasting the rest of the day will not help. This would seem to answer our question. However, the Binyan Tzion (34) suggests that this requirement to continue the fast might only apply if he ate improperly. In contrast, when halacha allowed him to break his fast (by eating a full shiur), we might say that there no longer is a fast to continue. At that point, whether or not he eats a full shiur or is careful to eat small amounts and take breaks might be irrelevant. The Mikraei Kodesh (Yamim Noraim, 39) goes a step further, saying that even if one were to get better and not need to eat any more, it would still arguably be halachically permitted to eat. There are certain indications that eating on Yom Kippur is not a classical prohibition on eating but a mitzva to go through a day-long fast: The Torah says (Vayikra 23:27) to “afflict yourselves” (as opposed to “do not eat”); in that context, it says from “evening to evening,” implying that there is a single unit; the shiur is not the usual k’zayit but a larger one that “puts his mind at ease” (Yoma 81a). (The matter of putting the mind at ease should not be exaggerated. The violation is not when one goes from a state of hunger to one of relatively less hunger. After all, one who ate half an hour into Yom Kippur and is still satiated from the seuda hamafseket still commits a full violation. Rather, the violation is to eat significantly in a way that generally suffices to put one’s mind at ease that he has eaten (S’fat Emet, Yoma 73b).) The crucial source in trying to resolve this matter is the gemara in Kritut (18b). In looking for a case of one who violated prohibitions that would require separate korbanot but having done so on Yom Kippur, the day one gets atonement for sins, the gemara mentions eating forbidden fats in the morning and afternoon. Tosafot and the Rosh (in Shita Mekubetzet) (ad loc.) ask why the gemara didn’t just talk about one who is obligated in two korbanot for eating anything twice on Yom Kippur. The Binyan Tzion suggests that this might only obligate in one korban because, as above, once he ate there is no fast to break. However, the aforementioned, more authoritative sources do not give that fundamental answer, and give less satisfying technical answers. This suggests that which most poskim (see also Yalkut Yosef, Moadim, pg. 96) seem to posit: although there is a positive element of fasting a whole day, every act of eating is a violation of eating on a day when eating is forbidden. Conditons on keeping retaurant open during SukkotI own a kosher restaurant and would like to keep it open on Sukkot. However, there is no place for me to put a sukka. May it operate anyway, and, if so, are there conditions I must meet?You do not want your restaurant to be responsible for people eating improperly. While women’s eating in a sukka is optional, a male is generally forbidden to eat a meal outside the sukka. On the other hand, is it your job to play police any more than you do regarding people making berachot on the food? Actually, there is a difference between the issues. Normally, you provide your customers with kosher food, which is the most you can do. Regarding many people, you can assume they will or may make berachot as they should, and if there is someone who you are sure will not, he would act the same wherever he eats! (This is a simplified treatment; see also Minchat Shlomo I, 35). Here, though, some of the customers would likely eat in a sukka at home or another kosher eatery if yours is closed. Anyone may eat outside a sukka when he is not having a halachically recognized set meal (Shulchan Aruch, OC 639:2). This means eating bread the size of an egg, but also applies to foods from the major grains (foods upon which one makes Mezonot, except for rice) eaten in a serious manner (ibid.). Exactly how much one has to eat of non-bread products is a matter of dispute, as is the question if other foods can be eaten in a meal-like manner outside the sukka (see Mishna Berura, ad loc.:16; Biur Halacha, ad loc.; Teshuvot V'hanhagot I,178). If you wanted to use this avenue of leniency, there is what to talk about with a reasonable amount of improvising (which we could try to help you with). If you set up a situation whereby you have reasonable menus that can be eaten out of a sukka, then you could even serve some bread with a visible note that says that those who need a sukka should have less than x amount of bread. Then you can use the rule of teli'ah, that you may assume that an object you give someone will be used properly if there is a reasonable possibility that this is the case, even if the person may be apt to use it in a forbidden manner (see Avoda Zara 15b). This idea would help regarding most scenarios of take-out. It is usually problematic to get paid for work done on Chol Hamo'ed, but it is permitted when done for ochel nefesh (to facilitate eating on the chag) (see Biur Halacha 542:1). While it might be against the spirit of the law to use a leniency for the needs of the chag in a manner that lessens the mitzva of sukka, halachically, it is still ochel nefesh. Let us summarize as follows. If you are in a place that lacks kosher eateries, it would be religiously worthwhile to use legitimate leniencies to stay open and try to arrange things so that few if any people will violate their obligation to eat in the sukka. If there are plenty of options with a sukka (in which case, the volume of customers at a kosher restaurant without a sukka would not be that great), it would be best to give yourself and your workers a deserved rest on the chag. (We also would understand if your hashgacha would not allow you to open.) However, in these difficult economic times, we do not want to rule out the possibility of working things out, as we began to outline. netillat yadayim with a beracha on clean hands?With concern about “swine flu” so high, many would consider it hygienically prudent to wash their hands with soap and water before doing netillat yadayim with a jointly used washing cup and eating. Is it possible to do netillat yadayim with a beracha when you know that your hands are clean already? If one can, should he dry his hands before doing netillat yadayim?The Shulchan Aruch (Orach Chayim 165:1) deals with the problem of one who has just left the bathroom and is ready to eat. If he does netillat yadayim once for both needs, he will have a problem of whether he should first make the beracha of Asher Yatzar for doing his needs, or first make the beracha on the netillat yadayim followed by Hamotzi and only afterward recite Asher Yatzar. Either way, there are issues of hefsek (improper break) in between the time the second beracha became necessary and when it was recited. Therefore, the Shulchan Aruch says to wash two times, the first to be followed by Asher Yatzar, and the second one by Al Netillat Yadayim. So we see that the fact that the hands were just washed does not preclude doing another formal washing for eating bread. Does that mean that a second netillat yadayim is a mitzva that requires a beracha even if it adds nothing practical, except that now it is done for a bread meal? That seems to be the subject of a machloket. The Beit Yosef (OC 158) understands from Tosafot's (Pesachim 116b) statement regarding the two washings that we do on seder night that if one does a lower level obligation netillat yadayim for non-breads dipped in liquids and then needs to do one for bread, the latter netillat yadayim is a full obligation. However, the Darkei Moshe (as the author rules in the Rama, OC 158:7) says that this is so only when a while passed in between washings so that we can assume that he took his mind off his hands. Otherwise, one would not make a beracha on the second netillat yadayim. Similarly, in the former context, the Mishna Berura (165:2) cites Acharonim that the first washing done to enable reciting Asher Yatzar should be a washing of cleanliness, not one of a valid halachic nature. One way to do this is to not use a washing cup (and preferably not use the first spurt of water from the faucet- see Tzitz Eliezer VIII, 7), which is a requirement for netillat yadayim. If one touched a covered part of the body or some other "dirty" thing that makes netillat yadayim necessary in between the washings, the netilla would be necessary (I imagine that this would undo much of the hygienic gains you want to accomplish). This leaves the matter of whether one should dry his hands in between the hygienic cleaning and the netillat yadayim. There is a similar case that is discussed by the poskim. The Shulchan Aruch (OC 162:2) talks about pouring some of the netillat yadayim water on the hands to remove dirt prior to the main netilla. The Biur Halacha (ad loc.) says that there is no mention of a need to dry the hands after doing this, which could be necessary if we said that the water becomes tameh (impure) in the process and would ruin the netilla. He says that this is either because this pre-washing is part of the netillat yadayim process, whereby water can become tameh and be removed by the second washing, or, to the contrary, that other than regarding poorly executed netilla, water that gets on the hands is not considered tameh (based on the Magen Avraham 162:10). While the Yalkut Yosef (OC 159:1) agrees with this approach, there are significant poskim, both Ashkenazi and Sephardi, who disagree (Ben Ish Chai, Shemini 11; Chazon Ish 24:20; K’tzot Hashulchan 33:4). They say that in that case, one should dry the hands from the questionable water before commencing the real netillat yadayim. Without getting into the intricacies, it would seem that our case is more lenient than the one these poskim discuss, and thus it would seem that drying the hands that were washed for hygienic reasons is not necessary. Reheating Cooked Liquids Right Before ShabbatI want to put cold but cooked soup on a hot plate right before Shabbat. I have heard that putting things up at that time is particularly stringent. Considering that it is forbidden to reheat cooked liquids on Shabbat, is it also forbidden right before Shabbat?We will first introduce the stringency of “right before Shabbat” that you refer to and then apply it to your case. There are two categories of cases regarding having foods on a flame (irrespective of the melacha of actually cooking): shehiya and hachazara. Shehiya means leaving a pot/food on the flame, after putting it there to cook or to heat up before Shabbat. In certain cases (about which there is a major machloket for thousands of years), one must do something to the system to reduce the chance that he will “stoke the coals” or its equivalent. The bottom line is that blechs and non-adjustable hot plates fulfill the halachic requirement, when necessary. Hachazara means returning a food/pot to a heat source after it had previously been removed. The classic case is when one does so on Shabbat. Hachzara is a more severe case than shehiya (for reasons beyond our present scope) and in order for it to be permitted in the classic case, five basic requirements must be met: 1) The food must be fully cooked before returning it. 2) The heat source must be covered. 3) The pot should remain in one’s hand since being removed. 4) The remover should have had in mind to return it. 5) The food should still be warm. Only condition #2 applies to shehiya. The general assumption, that the difference between shehiya and hachzara is that the former is when the food is left from before Shabbat and the latter is on Shabbat, is challenged by the following gemara (Shabbat 38b). “According to the one who says people may do hachzara (as we pasken), he may do hachzara even on Shabbat.” This implies that there is a case of hachzara that is not on Shabbat (and is easier to permit). Tosafot (Shabbat 36b) say that this refers to putting the food back on the flame so close to Shabbat that if the food were cold, it would not have a chance to become hot before Shabbat. Although several Rishonim disagree with Tosafot, the Rama (Orach Chayim 253:2) says that it is good to follow Tosafot's opinion. If putting food on the flame at that time is hachzara, does that mean that all of the aforementioned five conditions of hachzara are needed? Your question raises the possibility that the food needs to be warm at the time of this Erev Shabbat hachzara or at least that the food has to be fully cooked. (While the soup is fully cooked, reheating liquid is forbidden like cooking uncooked solid foods.) This is actually not the case. The five conditions of classic hachzara can be broken up into a few categories of the problems they solve. One is that putting the food on the flame should not violate bishul. This applies to condition #1 and #5. However, one will not violate bishul when he puts food on before Shabbat, and we have no source to extend this rabbinically to Erev Shabbat. Within the remaining three conditions, the covered flame (#2) is a matter of standard concern, whereas keeping the food in the hand and having intention to return it are special stringincies regarding hachazara. The Rosh (Shabbat 3:2) says that the stringency of hachazara soon before Shabbat applies to #2 no matter what state the food is in, which is not the case regarding shehiya (see Shabbat 36b and Shulchan Aruch, OC 253:1)) However, the other requirements do not apply before Shabbat (Mishna Berura 253:72). Since a non-adjustable hot plate is no worse than a blech (which solves #2), you do not have a problem. Let us point out that regarding non-adjustable hot plates, important poskim allow returning fully cooked food (dry, or, if liquid, when it is still warm) even on Shabbat. Also, exactly what time one has to put up the food in order to avoid Tosafot’s stringency is a topic that deserves discussion. However, in the case you described, you can ignore this stringency. Pat haba’ah b’kisninHow can it be that whether or not you wash on pizza depends on how much you eat? I would think that either it is bread or it is not bread.The gemara (Berachot 42a) discusses a category of food called pat haba’ah b’kisnin (phbbk), which is a baked grain-based food that shares qualities with bread but also is distinguished from normal bread. The gemara says that whether one recites Hamotzi or Mezonot on it depends on whether one is kovei’a seuda (sets a meal) on it. The Shulchan Aruch says that the other special halachot of bread apply to phbbk when one is kovei’a seuda, namely, that one recites Birkat Hamazon on it (Orach Chayim 168:6) and has to wash before eating it (ibid. 158:1). Let us now discuss pizza. For something to be a candidate for bread status, it must be made from the five main grains and be baked or look like bread (corn bread and spaghetti are not treated like bread no matter how much one eats of them - see Shulchan Aruch, OC 168:10). Of foods that pass those tests, there are still characteristics that can make a food phbbk instead of bread. The Shulchan Aruch (ibid.:7) cites three opinions: it has a pocket of sweet filling; its dough contains significant amounts of ingredients such as sugar and oil, besides flour and water; it is thin and crisp. It is unclear whether these opinions are mutually exclusive or whether any significant non-bread characteristic makes it phbbk (see Biur Halacha to 168:8). Pizza might be phbbk for one of the following reasons: 1) its dough may contain a lot of liquid other than water (e.g., oil, apple juice, milk); 2) it is baked together with pizza sauce and cheese, which make it similar to the pocket of filling above. However, it might not be phbbk. #1 requires that there to be a lot of other liquids (for Sephardim, enough to taste; for Ashkenazim, a majority of the non-flour element - Shulchan Aruch and Rama, OC 168). This is often not the case. Regarding #2, it is not clear that all fillings remove the bread status. The Shulchan Aruch (ibid.:16) says that a pashtida (knish-type food) filled with meat, fish, or cheese receives the beracha of Hamotzi on any amount. The Mishna Berura (ad loc.:94) explains that classic phbbk is made from sweet fillings that make it dessert-like (e.g., cake), as opposed to these that are more meal-like. The Taz (168:20) says that all fillings are the same, and the matter is usually treated like a doubt. Furthermore, the Beit Yosef (OC 168; see also the Aruch Hashulchan, OC 168:25) says that phbbk is something that, because of its characteristics, one does not usually center a meal around. One can argue that people eat regular pizza as the main food for a meal, rather than as a minor part of the meal or as a snack between main meals. So, indeed, this respondent treats pizza like bread, for any amount (see Am Mordechai, Berachot 25). Many distinguish between water vs. fruit juice based dough or treat the matter as a doubt to be avoided (see V’zot Haberacha, p. 217). In any case, according to the prevalent custom that pizza is phbbk, how much does one have to eat to require the halachot of bread? The Shulchan Aruch (OC 168:6) says that one has to eat the amount that most people consider having a meal. In another halachic context, the size of 3 or 4 eggs suffices. It is a question whether that suffices here or a full meal’s worth is needed (the Mishna Berura 168:24 leaves the matter open). There is also a question whether in the meal discussed the phbbk by itself is filling, or whether it is sufficient for it to be a filling meal that is centered around the phbbk (Mishna Berura ibid.) Rav M. Feinstein (Igrot Moshe, OC III, 32) goes a step further, saying that nowadays, when bread’s role in meals is less than it once was, even a small amount of phbbk in the midst of a meal would require washing, Hamotzi, and Birkat Hamazon. Nevertheless, the most famous practice is that only two or perhaps three slices of average sized pizza are treated like bread. Status of milk and meat pots that were washed together in the dishwasherWhat is the din if one washed a clean ben yoma milk and a clean ben yomo meat pot in the same cycle of a dish washer b'shogeg? Can one say "not bar not d'hetera" and both dishes are muter? What about if there was a mashahu of meat/milk attached to the pots Does the dish washing soap turn the tam lifgam immediately? How does the soap affect something b'ayn?A description of the domestic dishwasher in question is as follows: The user is required to first rinse off the “serious” dirt (which would otherwise cause a blockage of the dishwasher). Then he may stack the dishes into the dishwasher, onto a wire tray that ensures a gap between the dishes. After closing the dishwasher door, the dishwasher begins to operate. Its’ program consists of three stages- During the initial stage, the dishwasher uses only water to rinse the dishes by means of a sprinkler device, which sprays water from the bottom of the dishwasher towards the dishes in order to rinse them. In some dishwasher models, the water is heated within the space of the dishwater by a heating element attached to the dishwasher bottom. The water reaches a temperature of at least 50 degrees Celsius (122 degrees Fahrenheit). During the second stage, detergent is added to the water and the second rinse cycle of the dishes within the dishwasher begins. During the third stage, the dishes are again rinsed using hot water in order to rinse off the detergent. Note that the dishwasher has a filter installed, which prevents leftover solid food items from clogging the drainage system. In such a case, the food would remain within the dishwasher space. To answer the question, we must differentiate between several situations: 1. When the dishes are dirty: a. If the initial rinsing of the dishwasher is done with hot water without detergent: since the water rinsing the dishes is like a keli rishon [“primary vessel”], if there is enough water to nullify the dishes and the dirt on them (by having sixty times the amount of water more than the dishes and dirt) – the dishes and the dishwasher are permissible to use. However, in the event that there is no possibility to nullify the forbidden item, the dishes and the dishwasher are forbidden and consequently require koshering. b. If the initial rinsing in the dishwasher is done with cold water and the dishes don’t have any remnants of food particles that don’t dissolve in water: one should regard the taste of meat and milk which was absorbed into the dishes during the second rinse cycle as a taste which has become spoiled (ta’am lifgam). This is due to the mixing of the detergent into the dishwasher water. In such a case, the dishes are kosher. c. If there are remnants of food particles in the dishwasher filter: one should regard the food particles which remain in the dishwasher after rinsing with detergent as pieces of food whose taste has become spoiled. Consequently, they don’t make the dishes forbidden to use. Also according to those who consider the taste that remains on the dishes hasn’t become spoiled, when there is enough water to nullify the remnants of food particles (by having sixty times the amount of water) – the dishes and the dishwater are kosher according to all opinions. 2. When the dishes that were stacked into the dishwasher were clean: a. If the initial rinse cycle of the dishwasher is done with hot water but without detergent – since the dishwasher water is like a keli rishon [“primary vessel”], the dishes and the dishwasher are forbidden according to the Ramah. However, according to the Shulchan Aruch they are permitted. b. If the initial rinse cycle of the dishwasher is done with cold water, one should regard the taste of the meat and milk as spoiled, due to the mixing of the hot water with the detergent during the second rinse cycle. In such a case, the dishes are kosher.
The reason for the length of the current exileAm I correct in understanding that Solomon's Temple was destroyed because of Israel's idolatry of ignoring the Command to give the agricultural land a Sabbatical rest every seventh year and also for profaning the Sabbaths? This abomination evidently went on for 490 years creating a "debt" of 70 Sabbatical years resulting in 70 years of Babylonian captivity: 2 Chronicles 36:21: To fulfil the word of the L_RD by the mouth of Jeremiah, until the land had enjoyed her sabbaths: for as long as she lay desolate she kept sabbath, to fulfil threescore and ten years. [cf Jeremiah 2.] As I understand history, the ten northern tribes of Israel were conquered and dispersed by Shalmaneser the King of Assyria for avoiding the Temple in Jerusalem and setting up their own temple in Samaria, even making golden idols to worship. (Yikes!) The Kingdom of Judah was conquered and the Second Temple destroyed in 70 CE under Roman General Titus Vespasian. What I am trying to find out is what prophecies there were warning of this destruction; why did it occur; and why 1878 years of exile and no Temple for 1940 years? ...and still counting.You are correct that the Torah associates the destruction of the First Temple with the sin of not observing the seventh Sabbatical year. This connection is not only in the sources that you mentioned, but is in the Torah itself as well, see Vayikra (Leviticus) 26:43. The Book of Daniel contains prophecies about the forthcoming destruction of the Second Temple, such as Daniel 9:25-26. In addition, the Book of Daniel also makes reference to the intensity and duration of the upcoming exile, in the many references to the ferocity of the “Fourth Beast” or “Fourth Kingdom.” For example see Daniel chapters 2 and 7. Regarding the reasons for the destruction of the Temple and exile, the Talmud offers several suggestions. In Tractate Yomah 9b, the Rabbis suggest that the destruction was the result of baseless hatred between Jews. In Tractate Gitin 55b-58a, the Rabbis bring a series of stories where someone’s wrongdoing hastened the destruction. On a positive note, in Tractate Pesachim 87b, there is a suggestion that the current exile has been so long in order to provide an opportunity for converts to be absorbed into the Jewish people. Kashrut of an Animal Fed Meat and MilkI have heard that veal comes from calves that are fed a mixture of milk and meat. Shouldn’t that make it forbidden, as an animal whose sustenance comes from non-kosher food (see Rama, Yoreh Deah 60:1)? This case is particularly severe, because the feed is assur b’hana’ah (forbidden in benefit)!We will start with your assumption that the feed is fully forbidden as basar b’chalav, the combination of milk and meat. The halachic ramifications are very complicated, and we will but summarize them. Generally, when a forbidden food undergoes a major change so that it reappears in a totally different form, the new food is permitted. Thus, for one of many examples, a bird born from the egg of a treif bird is permitted (Temura 31a). Nevertheless, we must contend with the following source. The mishna brings an opinion that if a kosher animal drank the non-kosher animal’s milk, it should not be used for a korban. The gemara (ibid.) says that it refers to a case where it drank milk in a manner that would sustain it all day. Tosafot surmises that similarly if an animal was sustained consistently on grains of avoda zara, it would be forbidden, apparently even for regular eating (not only as a korban). Despite an apparent abundance of sources permitting such a case (see Pri Chadash, Yoreh Deah 60:5; Igrot Moshe, YD I, 147), the Rama (YD 60:1) rules like Tosafot’s stringency regarding animals that have consistently been fed non-kosher feed. The Shach (ad loc.:5) and others argue on two major grounds. First, Tosafot was explaining an opinion that is not even accepted as halacha. Secondly, Tosafot’s suggestion is regarding feed of avoda zara, which is assur b’hana’ah (forbidden in benefit), whereas the Rama forbade it even due to simple eating prohibition. The second point suggests a distinction whereby more opinions can accept the stringency regarding issurei hana’ah. This raised a lot of discussion regarding milk on Pesach from animals that were fed chametz on Pesach. We can address this matter only superficially in this forum. A major principle indicating leniency is the acceptance of the opinion (Avoda Zara 49a) that zeh v’zeh goreim, mutar (=zvzgm), In other words, when something is the product of two or more physical factors, some of which are permitted and some forbidden, the resulting object is permitted. Here, the milk is a result of the chametz but also other feed and/or the animal’s body, and thus it should be permitted. One question, though, is whether the major dependency on chametz, especially over time, makes the animal and its milk some type of continuation of the chametz (along the lines of the Rama). There is also an issue that regarding chametz, where the rules of bitul (nullification) do not apply, zvzgm might not either (see Magen Avraham 445:5). Oversimplifying the matter, the Mishna Berura (448:33) is equivocal and Rav Moshe Feinstein ruled leniently (Igrot Moshe, ibid.). Important to us in Rav Feinstein’s thesis is that he rejects not only the Rama but also the Shach’s distinction. He says that the use of a by-product of an issur hana’ah that is now gone (i.e., the animal feed) is far too indirect to be considered benefiting from the original item. The prohibition could only be based on seeing the milk as an extension of the original object, which is a fringe opinion we do not accept. Instead of citing all the various opinions and applying them to the similar but slightly more lenient case of basar b’chalav, we will obviate the issue by sharing our assumption, corroborated by an OU web page. Even regarding the calf feed that is a mixture of milk and meat (not all are), the milk and meat are not cooked together. That feed thus is forbidden only rabbinically and it is permitted to benefit from (Shulchan Aruch, YD 87:1). It is hard to imagine that even according to the Rama, a rabbinic prohibition (whose nature is procedural to require a person to refrain from eating, rather than saying the object is intrinsically forbidden- see Chelkat Yoav II, 20) would extend on to a transformed by-product. Whether a shul requires separate entrances to the men’s and women’s sectionsIf a shul building has only a single possible entrance, is there any difference if, in order to get to their own section, the men pass through the women's section or the women pass through the men's section? Is it necessary to create a walled off corridor for the pass through, even though this would require creating a divided section for either the men or the women?1. The halachah doesn’t prevent building a synagogue in which the entrance to the men’s and women’s section uses a common hallway.[1] 2. If the women are dressed according to the laws of modesty, there is nothing that prevents one from reciting blessings in front of them.[2] [1] The Igrot Moshe (Orach Chaim, volume 1, siman 39, 41-42) rules that the obligation of a mechitzah is from the Torah(and not of rabbinic invention). The Talmud (Sota 51b) states: The Rabbis taught – Originally women were inside and men were outside [the However, not all agree with this view. In the Satmar Rebbe’s Taharat Yom Tov (pp. 46-47), Be’er Moshe (volume 4, siman 147), and the Mishneh Halachot (14, siman 80), it is written that a mechitza is also meant to prevent forbidden gazing. They proved their view from the Rambam on his commentary to the Mishnayot, where he wrote, “so that men won’t look at women.” They explain the Mishnah (Midot 2: 5) “so as to not be mixed”- the frivolity is caused by forbidden gazing. It follows that according to their opinions, any place where men and women gather together, even for an optional matter, such as a wedding, it is obligatory to erect a mechitza and prevent gazing and congregating. Cf. detailed sources in the previous responsa (responsa 10). It follows that everyone agrees that the area of the synagogue in which its entire purpose is a passageway in which no one congregates but rather passes through – it isn’t necessary to install a mechitza. However, in a place where there were separate entrances for the men’s section and the women’s section, and they now want to change and unify the entrances there is a different problem. They cannot change this setting, since the congregants became accustomed to the added level of piety. The Igrot Moshe (Orach Chaim, volume 2, siman 43) similarly ruled for a synagogue that had a women’s galley upstairs and the women presently want to be on the same floor as the men. He wrote that it seems from the Talmud Succah that it is preferable for the women’s galley to be upstairs, because that in such a case it would certainly be impossible to act in a frivolous manner. Therefore, one may not change the custom. However, if one scrupulously examines his responsa, he will notice that this isn’t the overriding factor to the ruling. The case was dealing with women who want to degrade the sanctity of the synagogue and there is concern that allowing this will cause a breach in modesty, which isn’t so in our case. The Sridei Aish (1, siman 14) likewise wrote: “There is certainly an aspect of the strictness of the place. Thus, it depends upon the time and place. If it is possible to improve, it is certainly a mitzvah to improve. Nevertheless, one shouldn’t create great strife and destroy the group of G-d fearing people for the sake of strictness in mitzvah observance.” [2] Cf. Shulchan Aruch (Orach Chaim, siman 75). Even if the women aren’t dressed modestly, all Acharonim agreed that if the men aren’t facing them, it is permissible (Mishnah Berurah, Ibid., sif katan 1). It follows that it is permitted for one to face a wall and recites blessings, according to all opinions. Using a Dishwasher on a Timer on ShabbatMay I set up a dishwasher on a timer, so that I will load it on Friday night with the night’s dishes and it will go on overnight? Can I do the same thing in the afternoon so that by the time Shabbat is over, the afternoon’s dishes will have been done?At first glance, there would not seem to be fundamental problems with operating the machine on a timer, as the same activation of the electric device and the heating of the water will occur regardless of if you fill the racks with dishes. As for the removal of the grime from the plates by using hot water (which occurs only because you put the plates in), that is not considered borer (removing impurities) or bishul (cooking). The reasons this is true are beyond our present scope. Some say that the soap is being cooked and should be put in before Shabbat (Techumin XI, pp. 137-154).
Sorghum and millet on Pesach, and matzah options for the gluten intolerantMy wife is gluten intolerant, meaning we do not have Chometz in the house during the year, let alone during Pesach. As a substitute for wheat she has been using sorghum and millet flour. Are these Kosher for Pesach?Millet and sorghum cannot become chametz and matzot cannot be made from their flour. Nevertheless, they are considered kitniyot products, which Ashkenazim may not eat on Passover. (Therefore, Sephardim may eat them.) However, even Ashkenazim may keep them in their homes during Passover – they need not be thrown out. Likewise, if some kitniyot accidently fell into a cooked dish, it doesn’t make the rest of the contents of the dish forbidden. Even more so, there is no need to clean or to change dishes in which they were cooked. Regarding matzah, there are special matzot for people who have celiac. The matzot are made from oats, which are more easily digested than wheat. If your wife’s condition allows the eating of a small quantity on the Seder nights, it is recommended that she does so. It is possible that abstaining from eating kitniyot might not apply in your case due to your wife’s medical condition – even if you are Ashkenazim. Please feel free to call for further information. The Beracha on SchnitzelI have heard people question what I thought was simple - that the beracha on schnitzel is Shehakol. What is the truth?The truth is actually not simple. You will see that much of the difficulty is not halachic but culinary: why is it that many people prefer schnitzel (breaded cutlets) to cutlets that are not breaded? Clearly, the ikar (main part) of schnitzel is the poultry inside. In general, we make a beracha on the ikar, which exempts us from a beracha on the less important ingredients (Berachot 44a), and this is usually determined by the majority (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 208:7). However, an exception to this rule is that if the minority is from the major grain species (which includes standard flour), we make Mezonot on the mixed food (Shulchan Aruch ibid.:2). This exception is on condition that the grain product has a significant role in the food’s character. A minority of Rishonim seem to understand that the grain rule is just an application of the assumption that grain usually shapes the character of the food even when it is a minority. According to this approach, in a case like ours where the poultry is clearly the main ingredient, the beracha should be Shehakol. However, the more accepted approach is that grains have a halachic precedence, because of which the beracha follows them even when it they certainly are not the main ingredient, but a significant one (see Shulchan Aruch, ibid.). The classic case where it is not considered significant is when the grain product is there to make the other food stick together (ibid.; Tosafot, Berachot 36b). The question then is what contribution schnitzel’s coating makes. We have seen claims of all of the following elements (after each, we will write what beracha is appropriate if this is the factor): 1) The coating tastes good, as a nicely seasoned doughy food (Mezonot). 2) It captures the oil from the pan and gravy from the cutlet in one rich (albeit not so healthy) layer (the beracha can go either way, as the doughy part tastes good, but mainly because of what it absorbed; still, it would seem to indicate Mezonot). 3) It causes the spices that are placed on top of the cutlet to not slide away (Shehakol). 4) It keeps the cutlet from drying out (Shehakol). 5) It allows frying at a high temperature with a reduced chance of burning (Shehakol). Although a majority of these theories point toward Shehakol, it does not mean that that should be the end result. This is because if all of the above are true, then there are important food elements to the coating, which make Mezonot appropriate, irrespective of additional “Shehakol” benefits. Regarding the bottom line, some important poskim say that one should make Mezonot on schnitzel when the coating is relatively thick and Shehekol when it is thin (see opinions in V’zot Haberacha, pp. 256-261). Some contemporary authorities differ if “standard” schnitzel has a thick or thin coating (ibid., Birkat Hashem III, The Effect of Sleeping on the AfikomanAt our seder, during the meal, some people start dozing off, and some have considered taking a nap so that they will have strength to finish the seder. Isn’t there a problem that if you fall sleep, you can’t eat the afikoman? Is there a way around that?Your assumption has some basis in the sources, but halacha l’ma’aseh, the ruling is much more lenient than you imagine. We will take a look at the primary source and several machlokot (halachic disagreements), and then sum up the practical halacha. The mishna (Pesachim 120a) says: “If some slept, they may eat; if all, they may not eat. Rabbi Yossi says: If they dozed off, they may eat; if they fell asleep, they may not eat.” The mishna certainly refers at least to the eating of the Korban Pesach, and, explains the Rashbam (ad loc.), it is a stringency based on the idea that, after the break of sleeping, it looks as if he is eating in two different places, which is forbidden for the Korban Pesach. The first machloket to consider is whether this applies only to the Korban Pesach or even to afikoman, the matza we eat at the end of the meal, which is modeled after the korban, which was eaten on a relatively filled stomach. Most Rishonim (including the Rashbam, ibid.) say that it applies also to the afikoman, and the Shulchan Aruch (Orach Chayim 478:2) rules this way. The gemara (120b) strongly indicates that this is so, as it tells of an exchange between Abayei and Rabba about whether the latter slept too much to continue eating. Since they lived after the time of the Beit Hamikdash, this would indicate that the halacha lives on regarding afikoman. Tosafot (Pesachim 119b) differs, saying that it applies only to Korban Pesach and says that the gemara was exploring only the parameters of sleeping based on a parallel but different application (the beginning of a fast). Another machloket is whether Rabbi Yossi, like whom we pasken, who introduced the distinction between dozing off and sleeping, added a leniency, namely, that only when everyone fully sleeps is it a problem (Rambam, Chametz U’matza 4:14). The Rosh (Pesachim 10:34) says he came to be stringent, that if even a minority of the group fully sleeps, they may not continue. The latter approach reads more easily in the aforementioned story, and although several opinions agree, the Shulchan Aruch (ibid.) says that only if everyone (or one person eating alone) sleeps is there a problem. Thus, this is not much of a problem, as it is rare that a whole group at a seder actually falls asleep (deeply enough that if one asked him a question, he would not respond- gemara ibid.). Let us present yet another strong reason that this matter is almost never a problem. Almost all authorities agree that the problem of being in two places applies only to the Korban Pesach and its modern counterpart of the afikoman. However, if everyone falls asleep before the afikoman, they can get up and eat the afikoman (Rama, OC 478:2). Although the Shulchan Aruch sounds like he is stringent on this point, it is apparent from the Beit Yosef that he agrees, as Sephardic poskim understand and rule (see Kaf Hachayim, OC 478:9). Additionally, the Pri Chadash claims that only if one already ate his required k’zayit of afikoman would we tell him to stop eating. While the problem regarding not being able to eat the afikoman is basically theoretical, it still might be better not to nap. The Kaf Hachayim (OC 473:133) says that it is improper to take a serious break, which includes sleeping, from the beginning of the seder until the end of Hallel. However, this is only a preference and one would have to balance the pros and cons according to his situation. Recall that one who sleeps during a meal should do netilat yadaim when he awakens without a beracha and if he goes to sleep in bed, he must make Hamotzi again as well (Mishna Berura 178:48). On the subject of afikoman unnecessary stringencies, we remind afikoman snatchers and snatchees that a lost afikoman may be replaced by another matza (Rama, OC 477:2). Sources regarding the Birkat Kohanim hand signWhat is the origin of the the Birkat Kohanim hand sign. I’m familiar with the reference to the Song of Songs and Lev. 9:22, but it doesn't state what is the hand sign. I tried a Talmud search in the Soncino Edition with no luck. I did learn that Rabbi Luria says the hand sign should be with the fingers spread apart. What I’m looking for is where the ring finger and middle fingers are spread apart. And as you know popularly known as the “vulcan sign”.The reasons for the custom of spreading one’s fingers during Birkat Kohanim: 1. The Aroch - the Kohanims’ fear of the Divine Presence compels them to spread their fingers outwards. 2. To indicate which part of the blessing they are reciting, so that they shouldn’t get confused (Cf. entry “Balan”). 3. Our Sages derived from the verse in Shir HaShirim (2: 9), “Meititz min hacharakim – he appeared through the lattice”, which refer to the Kohanims’ fingers (Yirei’im, Batei Midrash, Tanchumah, Nishal 5). 4. In the verse says "koh te'varchu"(bless like this). If one adds a vov to the word ‘koh’ [comprised of a kof and a hey], you can read it as ko’ah [kof-vov-hey], which means “window” in ancient Hebrew. Therefore the verse would be read – "through a window you must bless". As to the customs – Two different customs exist: 1. Rabbeinu Yonah (Shaarei HaAvodah, ot 12) says that we should imitate the angel's six wings. This is achieved by spreading the fingers in the familiar gesture of Kohanim; creating a space between the ring finger and the middle finger separates the fingers into three separate units on each hand, six units altogether, which recalls the verse in Isaiah, "six wings each." 2. The Zohar (Naso) states that one must separate every finger from the others. Finding a Credit NoteI found a credit note of an (Israeli) supermarket in that supermarket. May I use it?First one needs to do determine from whom the note likely fell. The gemara (Bava Metzia 26b) talks about finding lost items in a store and distinguishes between the part of the store that is frequented by customers and the proprietor’s area. Assuming you found it in the customer area and especially considering that credits are usually ripped up after being redeemed, you can assume it fell from a customer (unless you found it next to some counter on the worker’s side). Next, we must discuss whether you should try to return the note to the person who lost it. This depends on whether it has a siman (a distinguishing characteristic, so that one can prove that it was he who lost it). Assuming the credit note is for an amount that corresponds to the value of a specific item (as opposed to a coupon that is like a gift certificate of a set denomination), it seems that this is a siman (based on Bava Metzia 23b). If so, you should put up a note in an appropriate place in or around the store or give a customer service worker your phone number in case someone comes to look for it. If the store is being unhelpful or it is clear from the type of store it is that you will not be able to return it, you can assume that the person who dropped the note will give up hope of finding it. (It would have been nice if you waited a few moments to see if someone was looking around the store for it, although this was probably not halachically required.) The credit note is like a partially open check (i.e., regarding its recipient) of the store. This type of “document” was prevalent in previous centuries, and the poskim called it a mamrani. It was usually written by a borrower who gave it to a lender to ease collecting the loan, as he could collect directly from the borrower or easily sell it to someone else. The Pitchei Teshuva (Choshen Mishpat 54:1) has a lengthy discussion of the Acharonim’s opinions about a case where a lender was given a mamrani, lost it, and asked the borrower, who knew he had not paid to pay him even though he was unable to return the mamrani. One of the main issues was whether the lender could write a shovar (receipt) that effectively said that whoever would present the mamrani for payment would no longer be able to receive payment, thus saving the borrower from paying twice. He cited the Tzemach Tzedek as acknowledging a custom that in such cases, an announcement would be made in the local shul/community that anyone who possessed this mamrani of the borrower in question must produce it within a certain amount of time or no longer be able to. The poskim’s general orientation is that a mamrani is not like cash or an object of value but a device for having loans paid, either to the lender or to the person who bought the mamrani from him. Thus, it was improper, albeit possible, for a finder to receive payment. This situation is likely to continue to exist regarding credits at local or small stores, where there is a relationship between the proprietor and at least many customers. In such a case, if the customer said he lost the note, the proprietor is likely to believe him and honor it. If that happens, the note is not like money, which if lost is lost, but rather is a reminder of a debt. In that case, one who uses someone else’s credit is cheating the store. In contrast, in large, impersonal supermarkets, if one loses the note, he will not receive the credit, and the supermarket has “gained” by not paying its debt to the customer. Another who redeems it just replaces the deserving recipient and is not causing the store a loss. The store views their note as something of value, which can be used, sold to someone else, … or lost and found. If the finder cannot return it to the one who lost it, he may keep it and use it as he does if he finds a normal object that has no simanim. Rinsing After Eating Pareve Food Cooked in Fleishig PotI know that if one eats milchig (dairy food), he has to wash his hands and mouth before eating fleishig (meat food). What if he eats pareve (neither milk nor meat) food that was cooked in a fleishig pot? Although he does not have to wait six hours, does he at least have to clean his mouth and hands?The matter of milk and meat is one in which we employ considerable stringency. This applies both to what is considered milchig and fleishig and to the separation between eating the two. We will see if your case also falls on the side of stringency. In general, when something not kosher is cooked in a pot, it makes the pot “not-kosher,” which, in turn, makes the food that later cooks in it not kosher, etc. However, kosher foods that have the potential to become not kosher lose that ability when they are sufficiently separated from their original state. Based on this idea, known as nat bar nat, hot pareve food that was placed in a milchig or fleishig utensil does not become forbidden when mixed with the opposite type of food (Chulin 111b, Shulchan Aruch, Yoreh Deah 95:2). However, the Rama (ad loc.) says that if the food was cooked or roasted in a milchig or fleishig pot that had been used for its type within 24 hours, it may not be mixed with the other type of food. On the other hand, we do not treat the otherwise pareve food totally as milchig or fleishig, as the Rama says that you may put this food into a utensil of the other type. Your good question is whether according to Ashkenazim, who follow this Rama, this food is fleishig enough to require washing hands and mouth before eating milchig. Let us peruse the laws dealing with the amount and type of separation between milk and meat. The gemara (Chulin 104b-105a) talks about waiting between eating meat and subsequently eating cheese but says that no time is required after cheese before meat. It does, though, say that one should either check or wash his hands and clean his mouth before eating meat. The Shulchan Aruch (YD 89:3) rules that the above requirements are true only regarding actual meat and milk/cheese, but between two pareve foods, one cooked together with meat and one with milk, he does not need to wait or wash. In practice, the minhag seems to be to wait even after pareve food that was cooked together with significant enough amounts of fleishig to give a taste before eating even pareve cooked in milchig (see opinions in Badei Hashulchan 89:82). In any case, the Rama (YD 89:3) states unequivocally that if one ate pareve food cooked in a fleishig pot, he can eat even cheese right afterward. This makes a lot of sense, as we saw that according to the Shulchan Aruch, one could even mix this basically pareve food straight into milk. In fact, to give this statement more of a chiddush, some say that it is talking about a case where there was a little actual meat gravy in the pot (Shach 89:19) or when the food that was cooked in the pot is sharp, in which case the leniency of nat bar nat does not usually apply (R. Akiva Eiger, ad loc.). Certainly, in the case of normal pareve food in a clean fleishig pot, one does not have to wait afterward. What about washing and rinsing, which are more widely required than waiting, e.g., after eating dairy? While one could contemplate stringency, the Eliyahu Rabba (Orach Chayim 173:4) says that one does not have to take any of those steps, and this approach is accepted by the Kaf Hachayim (YD 89:61) and contemporary poskim (including the Halachos of Kashrus, p. 204). The Badei Hashulchan (Biurim to 89:3) raises the possibility that when the pareve food is sharp or when one actually sees or feels residue on the hands or mouth, one should have to remove them. However, as he seems aware, he did not substantiate his claim with sources, and as the logic can go either way, we will not introduce even further stringency than exists. Thus, the answer to your question is that after eating any pareve food cooked in a fleishig pot, no washing is needed. Using a Non-Jew to Shut Lights on Shabbat so a Jew Will NotOften on Shabbat-long programs for non-shomer Shabbat students, the resort does not have timers for the lights, and participants who turned on lights before Shabbat will certainly shut them before going to sleep. Participants are exposed to the concept of keeping Shabbat, and some decided to try to keep Shabbat while they are with us. Many of them believe that if they switch the lights off once, there is no point in keeping the rest of Shabbat. Are there are sources to allow us to either ask or hint to a non-Jew to turn off their bedroom lights to allow these Jewish kids a better chance at observing Shabbat?There are a few circumstances in which a non-Jew can do work on a Jew’s behalf on Shabbat. Some involve using hints, as you mention. One possibility is to use a hint in which you mention only the need and do not use any active verb. For example, you could say, “It is too light in many of the rooms for people to fall asleep,” as opposed to, “It would be nice if someone shut the lights before people go to sleep” (based on Rama, Orach Chayim 307:22 and Mishna Berura 307:66). Also, one can use even the latter type of hint before Shabbat so that the non-Jew will do the action on Shabbat (Shulchan Aruch, OC 307:2). Despite the fact that these distinctions are quite accepted, there are certain problems with their application. The Magen Avraham (252:9) says that one is not supposed to allow a non-Jew to do melacha for a Jew with the latter’s property, even when he does so of his own volition. This can be remedied by katzatz, i.e., having the non-Jew receive money by the piece of work done. However, even the leniency of katzatz does not work on a Jew’s property when people are apt to think that the Jew may have paid him according to time, and even if the non-Jew starts doing the work of his own volition on Shabbat, he should be stopped (Shulchan Aruch, OC 244:1). Why, then, does it help to do a special hint to the non-Jew if, when push comes to shove, he is doing the work on the Jew’s property? Acharonim struggle with this issue (see the Sanctity of Shabbos, p. 24), but in general the minhag is to allow this type of non-commercial activity. Even when it is considered that the Jew did not tell the non-Jew to do the work, it is prohibited to receive positive, direct benefit until after Shabbat from that which a non-Jew did on a Jew’s behalf on Shabbat (Shabbat 122a). However, not everything is considered such benefit, and a classic example the poskim discuss is creating darkness, which is considered just removing light and is permitted. In addition, there is an over-arching heter for allowing telling (even directly) a non-Jew to shut the lights under the circumstances you describe. Shutting a light is a rabbinic prohibition (Mishna Berura 278:3). Under quite a few circumstances of need, it is permitted to ask a non-Jew to do a rabbinic prohibition, including shutting a light to allow a child to sleep (Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 38:26). One of the examples is for a mitzva (Shulchan Aruch, OC 307:5) and here there is a double mitzva. One is the (albeit, small) chance that this act of the non-Jew will be a part of enabling your Jewish participant to embark upon a way of life of Shabbat/Torah observance. The other is the mitzva of afrushei me’isura (preventing one from sinning), even on a one-time basis. Although we do not usually say that one should perform a small sin to save someone else from a big sin (Shabbat 4a), the rules of instructions to non-Jews have a special built-in leniency for such cases. Therefore, in addition to permissibility through hints, it should be permitted because of your perceived need. This being said, we would caution that your plan, especially if not planned properly, could have negative educational ramifications in addition to positive ones. Since you are in the field of working with this population, we leave such considerations to your discretion. Billing processes[We are presenting a short series to familiarize the public with issues that our batei din, Eretz Hemdah – Gazit, deal with and their solutions (in condensed and anonymous form).]Question: The defendant (=def) hired a distinguished law firm (=pl) to work on a major project. After pl sent def a letter outlining the work and payment guidelines and def responded positively, pl began working for def in 02/07. One matter that was raised was that billing would be on a quarterly basis. For 02-04 /07, pl billed for 73,000 shekels. In 06/07, def met with members of pl; one of the issues was def’s dissatisfaction with the high fees. Def claims that pl then set the total fee for successful completion of the project at 100,000 shekels (50,000 to be paid immediately). After much activity from 05/07 till 02/08, pl sent def a bill for 207,000 shekels. Def refuses to pay the full amount with the following claims: def did not sign a formal contract with specific sums of money spelled out; the agreement was changed to have a 100,000 shekels cap; def had specified his expectation that a specific senior lawyer would handle the project, while he actually did little work; pl did not succeed in the project’s goal. Answer: The written communication between the pl and def, even if it involved def’s representatives, suffices to set the work agreement between the sides. It specified that they are governed by pl’s standard practices and rates. While def’s response mentioned his trust in a specific lawyer’s ability to succeed, it does not stipulate the level of his involvement. It is standard practice at law firms for younger staff members to do most of the work, under the supervision of a seasoned lawyer. Pl denies they agreed to change the billing procedure. Def brought witnesses only to the fact that he said after the meeting that he was relieved by its outcome, whereas he is required to prove a change was agreed to. The fact that there was a long delay in billing after the meeting fits well with def’s claim but falls short of proof. The main question is whether the delay in billing is a significant breach of contract. Considering the agreed upon fact that def reacted strongly to the quarterly bill of 73,000 shekels, it was clearly and legitimately important to him to realize the mounting costs that reached an additional 207,000 shekels. While small delays should not invalidate a contractual agreement, there must be some cutoff point. We conclude that after five months without billing (10/07), def was no longer bound by their written agreement. Even without a contract, one has to pay for work done on his behalf, but the rate must be determined. There are a few halachic models, none of which fit perfectly here. When one is hired but no rate is discussed, one pays according to the lower rate for such workers in the field. However, it appears to us that had def known how much this work would cost him, he would not have continued pl’s employment (he already had full-time legal counsel) so it is not considered working with approval. If the work was slated to be done, he receives the amount that a person would pay for such a job. If not, he is paid no more than expenses (Shulchan Aruch, Choshen Mishpat 375:1). Here it is hard to determine because he wanted the work done but not at the cost discussed now. Our case seems more similar to people who ate someone else’s meat, thinking it was from their animal. The gemara (Bava Kama 112a) says that they pay at a cheap rate (two thirds of the going rate- Bava Batra 166b) because they would have refrained from eating had they known how much they would have to pay out of pocket. In this case, where def had legal counsel on hand at a lower rate per extra work, one third of the requested payment, starting 10/07, suffices. Def’s claim that there was no benefit is rejected because pl helped in certain areas and also made progress regarding the project, for which they deserved compensation. The fact that afterward things did not work out does not retroactively erase the previous obligation. Monopolistic MarketIn a market with a very limited number of stores, is one store allowed to prevent all competition by renting and keeping empty a store that became available, thus allowing him to charge higher prices?If we had to guess, we would assume that this question is not an actual case but an inquiry into the halachic view on issues of monopoly (if not, we will need more details). This is not the forum to write a complete learned treatise on the Jewish approach to monopoly law. The matter also depends on local laws, as on a matter of public welfare like this, halacha accepts the law of the land as binding (see Shut Chatam Sofer, Choshen Mishpat 44, regarding the opposite question of too much competition). However, we will provide a reasonable picture based on classical rabbinic sources to help understand how a Torah-based society would handle such issues. This specific question’s most basic problem is the matter of mispricing. If the proprietor raises prices 20% above an item’s going rate, he violates the Torah prohibition of ona’ah (Vayikra 25:14; see Shulchan Aruch, CM 227:1). While the price can depend on different factors and change, one cannot create a monopoly, artificially changing the supply and demand equilibrium and then say that his price is the local going rate. (One may mildly affect the prices by deciding how much of his own produce to put on the market – see Bava Batra 90b and Rashi, Bava Metzia 60a). The gemara (Bava Batra 90b) forbids charging artificially high prices, most especially for staple goods in Israel (so rule the Rambam, Mechira 14:6 and Shulchan Aruch, CM 231:25). The question is how this is different from the laws of ona’ah. The Aruch Hashulchan (CM 231:25; see also Pitchei Choshen, Ona’ah 14:(31)) understands that this is referring to market manipulation to alter the price. The gemara (ibid.) also forbids creating a scarcity of staple produce, irrespective of the pricing issue. Historically, there have been many ordinances approved by leading rabbis to root out market abuses, including monopolistic practices. So much for the public impact upon the consumer. Is there a problem in regard to unfairness to competitors? The most acute issue of competition is when an “outsider” sets up shop where a local is selling (hasagat g’vul- Bava Batra 21b). Other than that, it is permitted to do promotions or charge lower prices in order to gain more customers at the expense of others. The gemara (Bava Metzia 60a) explains that, regarding promotions, competitors can also do promotions, and regarding prices, one cannot outlaw it because of the benefit to consumers. One can make the claim that here he is leaving no room for anyone else, so that the person who would have wanted to open a business will be totally unable to do so. When one person’s business makes another’s untenable, we have the concept of pasik l’chiyutei (Bava Batra 21b) which in some cases requires him to stop his activities. However, that is when one already has a business and is financially pressured to give it up. If one just arranges things so that another decides it is not advantageous to open a store as he was contemplating, we find no prohibition (see Pitchei Choshen, IV, 9:(9)). It is even possible that the monopolist had reason to fear that planned competition would have made his business untenable or otherwise have used unfair practices, in which case preventing such competition would not be halachically or morally objectionable. There is an approach that even an ostensibly good practice such as lowering prices can be wrong. The Aruch Hashulchan (CM 228:14) says that lowering prices to an unsustainable price is unfair to other proprietors who cannot follow suit. After all, Bava Metzia 60a agreed to special incentives to the consumer because it was possible for the others to do likewise. Whether this would hold someone back when the competition does not exist yet and therefore no one is having his existing livelihood taken away is very questionable.
Use of a goy shel ShabbatWe have a local goy shel Shabbat (Shabbos goy). I do not know how and when I am supposed to use him for things other than emergencies. Is it sufficient just to hint to him, and then he can do whatever I want? There are two realms to discuss regarding the use of a goy shel Shabbat. One is mentchlichkeit. You are apparently talking about one who is paid by the community, whose main concern is its members’ most pressing needs. This includes taking people to the hospital, preventing large losses, and helping with a great need of individuals or groups. He is possibility not paid for helping with small inconveniences (and might ask for more money if he is bombarded incessantly). More importantly, he cannot be in two places at the same time, so if he is taking care of one person’s small need, he will be temporarily unavailable for someone else’s big needs. Sometimes that delay is crucial. Now we will discuss the laws of Shabbat. While it is not a simple matter, we assume that some types of hints are considered as if the Jew did not make a request. The source is the Magen Avraham 307:31, who distinguishes between types of hints to answer the following contradiction. The Rama (Orach Chayim 307:22) says that whenever one may not do something, he may not hint to a non-Jew to do it for him. He contrasts that with classical sources that say that one may tell a non-Jew that he cannot read a letter, thereby hinting to open the letter. He answers that one is allowed to mention a need but not tell the non-Jew to do an action in a way that will serve as a hint to do that which he wants the goy to do. The Mishna Berura (307:76) and contemporary poskim accept this Magen Avraham, which is apparently referred to in your question. However, there are two problems that must somehow limit use of this leniency. Firstly, when one sees a non-Jew doing forbidden work in a Jew’s home and/or using the Jew’s property on the Jew’s behalf, he is required to protest the activity (Shulchan Aruch, OC 252:2). This is because the Jew appears like one who is enlisting the non-Jew’s help in a forbidden manner. If it is necessary to protest when the goy initiated the work, how could it be permitted to hint to him to do it in the first place? The other problem is that if a goy does forbidden work on a Jew’s behalf, even without his involvement or knowledge, the Jew may not benefit from the result until enough time transpires after Shabbat for that particular chore to have been done (Shulchan Aruch, OC 276:1). Again, a hint is no better, and it should be forbidden to benefit from the result. Thus several recent poskim limit the efficacy of hinting on Shabbat to cases such as the following: 1) a situation where the Jew could have continued doing what he was doing without the non-Jew’s action, such as eating in a room where there was already sufficient (if less than ideal) light to eat by (Igrot Moshe, YD III, 47.2). 2) The nature of the benefit provided is one of removing impediments, not one of providing something positive new (Orchot Shabbat 23:(46)). Examples include shutting a light and perhaps opening an envelope (the Magen Avraham’s case; see various opinions in article #14 at the end of Orchot Shabbat). 3) He will receive benefit only after Shabbat. In cases of significant need, where it is permitted to ask a non-Jew to perform what would be for us a rabbinic violation, it is also permitted to benefit from whatever work was done. Therefore, if one was careful on the mentchlichkeit matter and thus the need is great, there are many additional cases where the benefit element is resolved as well. In any case, if one is not familiar enough with the halachot, he may have to ask a rabbi before going to the goy shel Shabbat. Many communities help out in the matter by having the goy keep “an instruction manual” (as it were) handy for those who seek his help. Eating on a plane on Chol Hamoed SukkotDuring a long-distance flight on Chol Hamoed, say, Israel to New York, must I abstain from bread and mezonot, as one normally does when eating outside of a sukkah? Or am I considered totally exempt from sukkah when on the plane and can thus eat bread or mezonot "l'lo chashash"?One who is on a journey, during which a sukka is not readily available is exempt from eating/sleeping in a sukka (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 640:8). This certainly applies on a plane. Singing kedusha along with the hazanWhen we sing sections of Kedusha, some people sing along with the chazan and some just hum the tune. Is there a right or a wrong way in this matter?Let us first note that Kedusha is a series of three important p’sukim (Kadosh, Baruch k’vod, and Yimloch), each preceded by an introductory passage (Nekadesh, or Nakdishach for Sephard, Le’umatam, and U’vidivrei), with additions for Shabbat. Many hummers are concerned that it is forbidden to say the words along with the chazan. The Shulchan Aruch (Orach Chayim 125:1, based on Shut Harosh What about repeating these words a second time? The Rama (OC 125:1) says that one should not speak during Kedusha. The Magen Avraham (125:1) says that one should not even learn without speaking but should listen to the chazan. However, he says that this restriction does not apply when the chazan is singing tunes without words or during the extended passages for Shabbat, which are not critical to Kedusha. If so, restrictions on saying extraneous things or usurping the chazan’s role at that point are also not likely an issue. Although the poskim advise not to talk until the end of the beracha after Kedusha (see Mishna Berura 125:9, in the name of the Maharil), it appears that the issue is of disrespect to Kedusha. The poskim on the above issue do not say that unnecessary recitation is a hefsek (formal interruption). Only when words are repeated nonsensically to fit in with a musical piece is that an issue (see Yabia Omer, VII, OC 14; Igrot Moshe, OC II, 22). Singing the words of Mimkocmcha, for example, should not have that problem. There is an issue when, with religious/musical fervor, the congregation drowns out the chazan. One problem, disgrace to the words, should apply to all of Kedusha (as above). This should not be such a problem when people say the appropriate words, albeit not in the classical manner of the chazan alone being audible, but in a way many feel inspiring. Presumably, it is a problem when people are “stringent” to hum, but so loudly that the words are not heard clearly from anyone. Another problem is that those who are in the midst of Shemoneh Esrei need to hear Kedusha, as they cannot recite it. It is a machloket (Az Niddbaru II, 60 - yes; Igrot Moshe, OC III, 4 - no;) whether they can fulfill this by hearing people other than the chazan say the words, considering that they do not have in mind to do it on the davener’s behalf. However, this applies specifically to the p’sukim of Kedusha (see Halichot Shlomo, Tefilla The following is our advice. During Kadosh and Baruch k’vod (and perhaps the final words of L’umatam and U’vidivrei), the chazan should be heard clearly, and the congregation should do no more than hum quietly. During the longer Shabbat additions, people may sing along as they like, and if this competes with the chazan’s voice, they should recite the words. (If one plans to do this, it is preferable to refrain from saying it while the chazan is waiting). Baking chicken and fish at the same time in an ovenMay I bake together uncovered chicken and fish (not for a milk meal) in an oven? The gemara (Pesachim 76b) says that one should not eat fish that was roasted together with meat because of the danger of leprosy. The Shulchan Aruch (Yoreh Deah 116:2) codifies this in regard to eating meat and fish together. The Rama adds not to roast meat along with fish because of reicha (the aroma) but says that if this was already done, the food is not forbidden. Your case seems to be like the Rama’s. The idea behind his compromise is as follows. In the context of roasting kosher and non-kosher foods together (Yoreh Deah 108:1) and baking bread near meat with the intention of eating the bread with milk (ibid. 97:3) we say that roasting things near each other facilitates only minor taste transfer (reicha) between the foods. While these situations are to be avoided, food does not become forbidden without more direct contact, including by cooking in the same pot, when the process produces zeiah (significant water vapor) in the oven, or when the foods touch. While one should avoid even roasting meat and fish together in an oven, it is fine if one of them is covered reasonably well (Shulchan Aruch, YD 108:1). Even in your case, there is room for leniency as we will explain. The Maharshal (Chulin As far as the propriety of following the lenient opinion, it seems that we have to decide how severely the concern of danger should be viewed. For one, is there an issue of a Torah law? Rav Kook (Da’at Cohen 55) writes that the prohibition to inflict on oneself a non-life-threatening danger is only rabbinic. Rav O. Yosef (Yabia Omer I, YD 8) says that while it is forbidden from the Torah to damage oneself, it is only rabbinically forbidden to eat meat and fish, as it only creates the possibility of mishap. Both see the rabbinic status as reason to rule leniently (each in their own context). Furthermore, many notice the Rambam’s (the famous rabbi/physician) apparent ignoring of this halacha. The Magen Avraham (173:1) sees this as support for his suggestion that the danger is not prevalent in our times and places. The Chatam Sofer (II, 101) raises an additional possibility that it applies only to a specific species of fish. (There is a rejected opinion that it does not apply to fowl- see Pitchei Teshuva, YD 116:2). While few go as far as ignoring the idea of not mixing meat and fish, many poskim factor these opinions in when looking for leniency in gray areas. Therefore, while it is halachically safer to not roast meat and fish uncovered in the same oven, it seems reasonable to do so in a regular, large oven when there is a need. Makom Kavua for parents at the dinner tableWhat are the sources, if any, for the idea of a makom kavua (set place) for parents at a dinner table? Does this apply only when the parents are present? Does it also apply to guests?The Torah commands us to show respect (kavod) to our parents (Shemot 20:12) and treat them with awe (morah) (Vayikra 19:3). The gemara (Kiddushin 31b), in delineating morah, includes not standing in their place or sitting in their place. What is considered “their place”? Regarding standing, Rashi explains that it is referring to a communal place where some fathers congregate for people to seek their advice. He does not explain what the place of sitting is. The Ramah, cited by the Tur (Yoreh Deach 240) says that one should not sit in his parent’s seat (literally, place of lounging) at home. The Tur implies that Rashi felt that a seat at home lacks the importance for the prohibition to apply, but the Beit Yosef says that Rashi agrees with the Ramah. He says that sitting in a parent’s seat at home is obviously forbidden, and Rashi needed to explain where standing would be problematic, as such a formal place does not exist at home. In any case, the Shulchan Aruch (YD 240:2) forbids sitting in a parent’s spot at home as well. The Beit Yosef (ibid.) and Shach (YD 240:1) say that it is permitted to stand where one’s parents usually sit, as this is not taking his or her place in a manner that equates the child’s importance to his parent’s. A contemporary posek (Hilchot Bein Adam Lachaveiro 5:79) says that it is also forbidden to sit in a parent’s physical chair if it is unique (special upholstery, arm rest, etc.) even if it is in an unusual location. Most sources seem to indicate that the prohibition applies even if the parent is not present. However, there are some opinions that if the parent is not present and it is not a case where all have assumed their regular places except that the son has taken his father’s place, then it is okay (Rishon L’tzion, pg. 94). What several poskim discuss and a consensus permit is after the parent’s death (Chayim B’yad 125). The parent’s place is not holy, and to the contrary, inheritance is very much about taking over that which the parent left behind. (There are opinions that one should avoid sitting in a father’s place in shul during the year of aveilut.) A parent can waive his right to honor (Kiddushin 32a) and so, with his permission, one can sit in his place. Although there is a machloket whether he may even allow his disgrace (see discussion in Yaskil Avdi 7:21), it seems clear that sitting in one’s place is rarely a disgrace (ibid.). In many cases, permission may be assumed. For example, the Aruch Hashulchan (YD 240:9) uses such an assumption to explain the standard practice that boys sit in their father’s seat in shul when the latter is not there. In general, it seems from the poskim that a practical, logical approach is called for. Rav Elyashiv is quoted (Bein Adam Lachaveriro 5:77) as saying that the prohibition does not apply to a parent’s bed, which is not a place of honor. It is possible, in many families, that there is a true parent’s “seat of honor” only at a Shabbat table and that at other times or in a different room things are not as set or viewed as seriously (it depends on the family). Certainly there is no need to create such a seat, and if a parent moves around often, for whatever reason, we would not grant the seat he sits in most frequently the status of his seat. In a similar vein, the Aruch Hashulchan (ibid.) said that while the halacha applies to a mother, it was less common in his time for a mother to have a set seat. Regarding a guest, certainly the stakes are lower as we are not discussing the serious commandment of honoring a parent. However, it is worthwhile for a guest to ascertain whether there is a strongly defined set place for the head(s) of the family. If there is, it would be appropriate for him to respect it as well. Hosting a Difficult GuestWe have a friend who, when visiting from America, stops by for meals often when she is in our area. For the first time, last night, she slept over. It was, shall we say, a nightmare! She received several phone calls in the middle of the night, which woke us, and also, despite being warned, tripped the alarm. She now seems to want to stay for another night and perhaps return in the future. Are we permitted to refuse her request? This is a very hard question to answer, not just because it is hard to predict the likely potential scenarios, but because there is a conflict between values, as we will explain. Hachnasat orchim (welcoming guests) is a rabbinically mandated application of the Torah command to love one’s counterpart (Rambam, Avel 14:1). It applies both to poor and rich guests and, in theory, can be accomplished even when taking money for expenses (food, telephone calls, etc.) by providing a warm, welcoming place to be (Ahavat Chesed 3:1). Thus, even if someone can afford to stay in a hotel, (and, maybe, from her perspective, should do that) if she asks to stay at one’s house or the situation is such that such an invitation is the normal nice thing to offer, the mitzva is normally a responsibility. There is a general question about the obligation to fulfill a mitzva that has a large physical or emotional price, and this comes up in different contexts. In Living the Halachic Process (vol. II, D-15) we dealt with someone who can expect to have a moderate allergic reaction to eating matza on Pesach. The basic assumption is that one does not have to make himself sick in order to fulfill a mitzva, and while it is hard to do, one has to try to figure out what is a normal “price” one has to pay to fulfill a mitzva. In this case, when it is a matter of your needs against another person’s needs and feelings, the matter is certainly not easy to determine, but one should try to consider this in an idealistic but realistic manner. The availability of alternative arrangements is a factor in this context (see Ahavat Chesed 3:2) There is another element to the complex nature of this question. Just as a host is urged and, to a great extent, commanded to extend himself to make the guest happy and welcome (ibid. 1) so is the guest required to not take advantage or overdo her welcome (Halichot Bein Adam Lachveiro 8:28). If she is outright damaging to her hosts, they are not required to keep her (ibid. 6, in the name of Sefer Chasidim). We would certainly say that if she were stealing from her host, presumably even if the host is willing to spend similar amounts of money to feed her), she can be asked to leave. You could make the claim that gezel sheina (deprivation of sleep) would be equivalent. On the other hand, it is hard to know where to draw the line on such a matter (otherwise, we would all be thieves at one time or another). A final, related issue is that if your guest continues to grossly abuse her rights, she is seriously sinning. By letting her continue to do so, in some ways you are wrongly facilitating her sins. The Rambam (Sefer Hamitzvot, Aseh 205) says that rebuke, in addition to correcting “religious” sins and those affecting third persons, is intended for people who are being abused (as opposed to harboring resentment – see Vayikra 19:17). While we are cautious about the use of rebuke, having your guest continue to upset you is unlikely to be in her best interest. All this being said, we think you should consider seriously the likelihood that your guest was not aware of how her behavior disturbed you. She is less likely to trip the alarm again, and you can probably unplug the phone or mention calmly how its ringing disturbs you greatly. Hopefully, your friend is a nice person who will be a much improved guest in the future. So, if you can put up with her for another night and see how it goes, you would probably be doing a big mitzva, even if you arguably can get out of it. Feel free to follow up as things develop. Aspartame on Pesach for AshkenazimHi, I was wondering if you could help me understand the different opinions regarding whether it is permitted for an Ashkenazi to drink Diet Coke on Pesach. The sweetener used is derived from kitniyot (aspartame). I am interested to know what the sources are for this, and what you advise on a practical level. ThanksThe Shulchan Aruch didn’t render as halachah the custom that forbids eating kitniyot (legumes) on Passover. Even according to Ashkenazi practice to refrain from eating kitniyot (Ramah, Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chaim 452: 1), the custom is relating to a case in which the legumes are by themselves, or when they’re the main component of a mixture. However, in the case of Diet Cola, even if the source of the sweetener is from legumes, it is not on its own, and therefore such a case was never accepted in the minhag (custom). Furthermore, the sweetener is a derivative of legumes, which was never part of the custom either, even on its own (cf. Ramah, Ibid.; Chok Yaakov, siman 453, sif katan 6). For more detaosl see BeMareh HaBazak, volume 2, siman 51, p. 90.
The Applicability of the Idea of Davening at the Same Time as ShulsThe Shulchan Aruch (Orach Chayim 90:9) rules that one who cannot make it to a minyan should try to daven at the same time as a minyan. Given the multiple minyanim we find in one town, how does one fulfill that obligation today? There are many sources on the idea of connecting one’s tefilla to that of the tzibbur (congregation). Not only do important sections of tefilla require a minyan and it is more respectful to Hashem to join a group when turning to Him (the larger the better- Mishna Berura 90:28), it is also more conducive to the tefilla being accepted favorably (Berachot 6a). The matter of davening at the time the tzibbur davens comes up within the latter context. The gemara (Berachot 7b) tells that Rav Nachman told Rav Yitzchak that he had been too weak to come to shul. Rav Yitzchak asked why he did not have someone tell him when the tzibbur was up to tefilla (apparently Shemoneh Esrei) so that he could benefit from the eit ratzon (time of good will) at that time to help his tefillot. Tosafot (Avoda Zara 4b) says that there are different levels of advantage: together with the tzibbur, one’s tefillot are “heard”; at the same time in different places, they are “not pushed away.” These levels of acceptance probably depend on other factors, and we are not able to comprehend such Divine matters’ exact meanings. In any case, following this guideline is not a full halachic requirement but something one should try to avail himself of (see Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 90:9.). It is related to the idea of davening in a shul even if one cannot do so together with a minyan (ibid.). The latter matter is a double-edged sword, as the one real prohibition in this regard is davening in a shul ahead of the tzibbur (Berachot 28b). Let us now address your question. The closest source we have found in the Rishonim is in the Semag (Aseh 19, p. 102a, cited by the Rama, OC 90:9), who says that if there is no local minyan, one should follow the time that “communities of The Mishna Berura (90:31) seems to say that in places where there are many minyanim, all times are good. However, he and his source, the Chayei Adam (16:3), is talking about refraining from davening before the right time, and says that it does not apply when there are many minyanim. One can still ask whether there is something to do if one specifically wants to avail himself of the positive element. Ishei Yisrael (8:(32)) seems to say that all times are good. Avnei Yashfe says in the “name” of an unnamed gadol that in such a case there is no preference (sounding like nothing is particularly good). However, we prefer the following compromise approach. Rav S.Z. Auerbach is quoted as saying that the gemara implies that this matter requires one to focus on a specific minyan (Ishei Yisrael, op. cit.). While it is not clear to us where Rav Auerbach saw this in the gemara, it leads in the logical direction of his disciple, Rav Neuwirth (cited ibid.). If one usually davens with a specific minyan but cannot make it on a certain day, he gets the positive element of davening when he davens at the same time as they do even if there are many other minyanim in town. (This makes particular sense if this matter depends more on psychology than on mysticism.) Rav Neuwirth brings an interesting precedent from the Sha’ar Hatziyun (551:56) that if one is eating fleishig at seuda shlishit during the Nine Days, he should stop when his regular shul has davened Ma’ariv. If one is not connected to a specific minyan and there are many minyanim in town, then there is apparently neither anything positive nor any requirement to try to correspond to some random minyan. Is it enough to eat less than a k’zayit of karpas?I know that we are supposed to eat less than a k’zayit of karpas, but I am not clear why. What happens if someone does have a k’zayit?This question features the overlap of a few areas of halacha. The first question is whether it is indeed enough to eat less than a k’zayit of karpas, as in general, such an amount is not considered halachic eating. The Rambam (Chametz U’Matza 8:2) actually requires eating a k’zayit, but we accept the Rosh’s opinion that it is unnecessary because the mitzva is not a classic one of eating karpas but of incorporating it in the order of observances (see Beit Yosef, Orach Chayim 473). We prefer not having a k’zayit to avoid two doubts regarding berachot. If we ate a k’zayit, it would be unclear if we would need a beracha acharona after eating it for the following reason. Usually one makes a beracha acharona on what he eats before a meal (Mishna Berura 176:2). However, one of the exceptions is when the beracha he made before that food exempts him from a beracha on a food that would normally take a beracha during the meal. That linkage connects the two eatings and allows Birkat Hamazone to relate to the food before the meal (ibid.). Regarding our case, there is a machloket about the reason for the consensus that there is no beracha of Borei Pri Ha’adama on maror. The Rashbam (Pesachim 114b) says that it is because the beracha made on karpas covers it. This is not simple given that the (hopefully) long section of maggid separates the two. If it does cover, then karpas is connected to the meal, making a beracha acharona on it unnecessary, even if he ate a k’zayit. Indeed, the Shulchan Aruch (OC 473:6), while suggesting to eat less than a k’zayit, says that no beracha acharona is made even if one ate a k’zayit of karpas (see Mishna Berura 473:56). The Gra (to OC 473:6) claims that the Rama would not agree to connect karpas and maror because he considers the delay for Maggid a halachic break. Evidence of this is the Rama’s ruling requiring a new beracha for the second cup of wine (see Shulchan Aruch and Rama, OC 474:1). According to this approach, the Rama does not require Borei Pri Ha’adama on maror because of the Ri’s opinion (Tosafot, Pesachim 115a) that, since it is eaten after Hamotzi, maror is subsumed under the meal. Thus there is no connection between the berachot on karpas and on maror and if one were to eat a k’zayit of karpas, he would need a beracha acharona. Another reason to require a beracha acharona is that the break is too long for Birkat Hamazone to relate back to it (Ohr Zarua, cited in Chazon Ovadya 18). Even after a full meal, one should normally bentch within 72 minutes of the end of the eating (Shulchan Aruch, OC 184:5). Because of all of these varied opinions and the fact that we strive to avoid doubt especially regarding berachot, it is better to have less than a k’zayit of karpas. (On less than a k’zayit there is a beracha rishona but not a beracha acharona– Shulchan Aruch, OC 210:1). Based on what we have already seen, there is another benefit for not having a k’zayit of karpas. If we were to believe that a beracha acharona was called for on the karpas, then most agree that it ends the efficacy of the beracha rishona (the Magen Avraham 190:3 is a notable exception). Therefore, the Borei Pri Ha’adama on karpas would not cover the maror, which is pertinent if we do not accept the aforementioned Ri, that maror is subsumed under the meal. It would be improper to unnecessarily require an extra set of berachot, and we would not want a doubt as to whether there should be one (see Chazon Ovadya, op. cit.) Another interesting point is that having less than a k’zayit makes it questionable whether there is a need for netillat yadayim before it (see Biur Halacha to OC 473:6). However, since we anyway do not make a beracha on the netillat yadayim (because it is only on a dipped vegetable, not bread), this doubt does not concern us. Reverting back to one’s original minhag, after divorceThe man waits 3 hours between meat and dairy. The woman, prior to her marriage waited 6 hours. After marriage she and their children waited 3 hours. They are now divorced with the children with her most of the time. How long should she and the children wait, and does it matter where they are?The children may wait 3 hours. She should wait 6 hours. Of course if the mother decides to arrange the meals so that it is compatible for her and that affects them, this is no different then eating in a public setup (yeshiva, hotel) where the 3 hour people will in practice do a lot of waiting 6 hours. Using a kitchen, on Pesach, that was not cleaned for PesachHello, Let’s say someone has a Chometzdig (commercial) Kitchen that was not cleaned for Pesach ie... there is caked up spilled food and grease in the ovens or warming boxes (that go up to 450 degrees or so) and stove tops . They sold the chometz. Is it permitted to enter the kitchen if there is chometz not sealed up and covered (some available in the unlocked fridge? Are they permitted to warm up food which was double wrapped in a chometzdig warming box? Are they permitted ON PESACH to cook something on the stove top if it is also in a similar condition with food caked up on the grates of the stove top? If yes, what is the minimum do on Pesach to allow this? On a side note.... If someone is taking a flight and orders kosher (for Pesach) meals which will be warmed in a treif / chometz airline oven and the meal is double wrapped is this any different to the above shailoh?If there is chametz in clearly marked and covered areas in the room, it is permitted to enter. He may bake things that are double wrapped in chametzdik ovens or ranges but otherwise should kasher the heating elements he is using. Kosher food, including on Pesach is double-wrapped by the producers and that is the way the traveler should find them. Chametz of a Mixed-married Couple after PesachQuestion: I am a yeshiva student who will be home after Pesach. My father is not Jewish, and my mother does not keep kosher for Pesach. Do I have a problem with packaged chametz that will be around the house, as it was owned by my non-Jewish father, or should I assume that my mother owns (some of) the chametz?Chametz that is owned by a Jew over Pesach is forbidden for him or any other Jew to eat or benefit from (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 448:3), but not chametz that is owned by a non-Jew. According to classic halacha, in a marriage, the husband receives his wife’s salaries, owns "family property," and controls the property his wife brought into the marriage while they remain married. However, this is not an intrinsic law but an arrangement the Rabbis instituted, if the wife agrees, in return for the husband’s obligation of full support and other matters (Ketubot 47b). Your parents are not halachically married. Furthermore, the Rabbis did not get involved in the financial arrangements in non-Jewish marriages. Thus ownership of property of a non-Jewish or intermarried depends couple depends on individual agreement, societal norms, and/or secular law. It is safe to assume that when a 21st century, Western-society spouse buys crackers in the supermarket from joint finances, they are jointly owned. Therefore, at first glance, your mother has a share in the chametz, and it will be forbidden to you, while your father’s will not. How is one to know whose share he is eating from? There is a concept called bereira, which, among whose applications and when it applies, is that when joint owners of property divide it amongst themselves, we say that the part that each person received was his all along. We rule that one can apply bereira regarding rabbinic, not Torah, law (Beitza 38a). Although chametz is a Torah law, the prohibition after Pesach is a k’nas (rabbinic injunction) against those who were lax regarding the prohibition of possessing chametz on Pesach (see Beit Yosef, OC 448; Mishna Berura 448:2). Thus, if a system could be arranged so that your father would take chametz articles for himself and then give to you, the problem would be solved. (The Sha’agat Aryeh (90) argues that even the Jew’s part should be permitted because he may have gotten the non-Jew’s part, but even if we accept that, there should still have to be a division among the food and one could not take from everything (see ibid. 91 and Mekor Chayim 448:1)). However, the guidelines of activating bereira are difficult enough to explain to them for us not to recommend it. If your parents are willing to cooperate with your halachic lifestyle, it makes more sense for your mother to appoint you an agent to sell her (part in the) chametz and ask her not to buy on Pesach at least chametz that will last until after Pesach (it is easy to figure out when bread was bought). As far as the possibility of mix up, one can be quite lenient, at least when there is need, regarding assumptions of which food was obtained when (see Chulin 4b). There are lenient opinions regarding chametz possessed by a totally irreligious Jew. The Taz (448:2) and Mishna Berura (448:11) say that if a Jew sold chametz to a non-religious Jew, the latter can sell it after Pesach to a non-Jew and give the money to the Jew instead of having him incur a great loss. They do not allow a Jew to eat the actual chametz. There is a fringe opinion that the injunction to discourage people from possessing chametz does not apply to those who disregard their halachic responsibilities as Jews (see She’ilat David (Karlin), OC 5). In your case, there is one further point for leniency [which would not be appropriate to discuss publicly]. We imagine that in order to eat in the house, you anyway must have different utensils and food. If so, buying packaged chametz after Pesach from appropriate sources would seem not to change things so much. However, if there is a strong need for leniency, please contact us again so we can discuss your specific needs and options. Eating edamame from the pods, on ShabbatCan one eat edamame from the pods on shabbat?One may eat edamame from the pods on Shabbat just like other foods with a peel may be eaten, if they are eaten immediately after being peeled (see Shulchan Aruch Orach Chaim 321, 19). Eating at a Brit MilaAre there any sources concerning an obligation to eat food at a brit mila? There are two elements to this question. One is to what extent there is a mitzva to have a seuda (meal) in honor of a brit mila. The other is to what extent invited guests are required to take part in such a seuda. The Shulchan Aruch (Yoreh Deah 265:12) says: “We have the practice to make a seuda on the day of the mila.” The Rama adds: “and people have the practice to have a minyan for the seuda of a mila, and it is called a seudat mitzva.” There are several sources in Chazal to support this claim. Pirkei D’Rabbi Eliezer derives it from the brit that Avraham performed for Yitzchak. The Torah writes that Avraham made a big party on the day that “higamel Yitzchak” (Bereishit 21:8), whose simple translation is that he was weaned. The Orchot Chayim derives the idea from the word’s letters (the first two, based on numerical value), namely, 5+3 mal, i.e., on the eighth day he circumcised. This, thus, was the event that prompted a party. The gemara (Ketubot 8a) seems to assume that there is a special meal, comparable to that of sheva berachot, and therefore needs to point out the difference between the bentching at the two. Before Birkat Hamazon of sheva berachot one says “shehasimcha bem’ono” (that the joy is in His abode), whereas this is not recited before Birkat Hamazon at a brit mila due to the pain of the child. One of the applications of the determination that the meal for a brit mila is a seudat mitzva is the fact that invitees to this meal may eat meat and drink wine even during the Nine Days (Rama, Orach Chayim 551:10). The Rama and his commentaries point out that one should not artificially include people who are not naturally part of the festivities to compromise the standard laws of the day. There is a well known but apparently somewhat misapplied concept relating to the invitees to a brit mila. Let us start with the background. The gemara (Pesachim 113b) lists people with the regrettable distinction of being menudeh lashamayim (roughly, shunned in the Heaven) for what they do (or refrain from doing). One such person is one who does not recline (i.e., set himself to eat) with a group of mitzva. Tosafot (Pesachim 114a) says that this refers to one who does not eat in the seuda of a brit mila, which he says has the ability to save one from being judged to go to gehinom (purgatory). From this idea developed the practice of not inviting people to a brit mila (Pitchei Teshuva, Yoreh Deah 265:18), so that people not be in the situation where they should be going and refrain from doing so. Rav Moshe Feinstein (Igrot Moshe, Orach Chayim II, 95) explains that the matter is not so much that there is an obligation to take part in the mitzva of mila. After all, there are many mitzvot that one might miss, and the idea of menudeh lashamayim is not mentioned broadly. It has more to do, he says, with the lack of honor that one shows toward the father who is fulfilling the mitzva and trying to include others in it. It is told in the name of Rav Moshe Feinstein that one discharges the minimum obligation by eating anything at the meal or smaller reception. One is not required to eat bread (which should be done by the core participants- see Sefer Habrit 165:161) or stay for the whole meal. In any case, it is of note that many people know of the minhag not to invite but apparently do not do it correctly. First of all, many people just inform about the brit mila, but once people come to the mila itself, they invite all assembled to the meal, even they know that many will not be coming. As we have seen, the sources talk in terms of the meal. Secondly, some people make it very clear that they want and even expect a certain friend to come, just that they do not use the word “inviting.” In this case, it appears that the spirit of the invitation is the issue, and not there is nothing intrinsic about the use of the word “invite” if one transmits an expectation that friend or family attend. Taking a lactose pill after eating meatIs it mutar to take a lactose pill after eating meat?Lactose containing pills are not considered dairy and therefore they may be taken after one has eaten meat (Kovetz Teshuvot of Rav Elyashiv, volume 1, siman 73). Using a Whipped Cream Dispenser on ShabbatMay one spray whipped cream from a canister on Shabbat?First, let us understand what happens. When gas goes into a fatty substance (like whipping cream), the fat traps much of it, causing it to fluff up and coalesce. Whipped cream canisters contain pressurized nitrous oxide. Pressing their button does two things more or less at the same instant: forces gas into the fatty liquid; forces the contents out of the canister. There are several possible grounds, some stronger than others, upon which to base a prohibition. After a quick review, we will present a practical answer. Arguably, combining two substances so that they form a mixture that is different in texture than each one separately is lisha (kneading) (see Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 11:(124)). However, trapping a gas (even if in unnoticeably small pockets) inside a liquid so that it turns into foam is different enough from classic lisha for it to be difficult to forbid without classical sources. The Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata ( Recent poskim discuss creating seltzer/soda on Shabbat, where a somewhat significant change occurs to a liquid by inserting a gas. While some poskim object to it for creating something new (see Maharsham I, 140), the most realistic problem is uvdin d’chol (weekday-like activities, in this case, of producing things). While this might apply to the process of inserting a gas canister and fastening a machine to make soda (or the similar device for cream), it is hard to apply it to using a pre-prepared canister, which the average user sees as simply dispensing. The most serious issue is molid, creating a new reality by changing the phase of an object. The baraita (Shabbat 51b) forbids crushing ice and snow. Rashi explains that it is like a melacha, in that one creates something new, i.e., a liquid from a solid. Some say that, similarly, one may not turn a liquid into a solid, e.g., freeze water to make ice cubes (see Doveiv Meisharim I, 55). We dealt with this issue in Hemdat Yamim (Miketz 5767), and cited strong grounds for leniency. Orchot Shabbat (15:(45)) says that even those who forbid making ice cubes could permit spraying whipped cream from a canister because the only purpose of the cream in the canister is to be turned into whipped cream. On the other hand, here one actively and directly, with the press of the button, creates the foam, as opposed to putting water in a freezer, which only provides a cold setting for the slow process of freezing to begin (see Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 10:(14)). However, Rav Mordechai Willig told me another reason for leniency: the change, from a thick liquid to a foam, is not enough to be considered molid. While one can make the argument that it is forbidden to spray whipped cream from its canister, common practice is to permit it. Since we have shown the halachic basis for the practice, we do not feel it is necessary to change it. (We have not dealt with the issue of using the cream to write words or make likenesses of specific objects.) Who leads zimun when some eat dairy and others meat?I understand that if three people eat together, where some are eating dairy and some eating meat, the one who is eating dairy leads the zimun because he can eat from his friend’s food but not vice versa. Is the same so if four people are eating, three meat and one milk, as the three do not require the dairy eater for the zimun? Should the dairy eater do zimun even if one of the others is a kohen?The gemara (Arachin 4a) says that the Tannaic statement that kohanim and regular Jews can join together for zimun is obvious and posits that it is needed for a case where kohanim ate teruma (which is forbidden for a non-kohen) while the others ate regular food. The reason that they can join, says the gemara, is that the kohen can eat the food of the others. Rishonim extend the concept to parallel cases, based on which the Shulchan Aruch (Orach Chayim 196:3) says that if the kohen ate something non-kohanim may not and the others ate a non-Jew’s bread, which the kohen is careful not to eat (a halachic question- see Yoreh Deah 112), they do not form a zimun. The Magen Avraham (196:1) raises the matter of dairy and meat and points out that they can join together because the one eating dairy can also eat meat. (Acharonim discuss what happens, according to the various opinions, regarding the necessary break between dairy and meat- see discussion in Piskei Teshuvot 196:10). The Magen Avraham also raises your issue that when this group bentches, the dairy eater, who is the one who unites the individuals into a group for zimun, should “make the beracha to exempt the other.” One would have thought that the point is moot because the eating that creates the obligation of zimun is that of bread, which is classically pareve, and why should one care that the “side dishes” are meat and dairy, respectively. The Magen Avraham is sensitive to this and points out that the discussion applies to a case where the bread is “soiled” with meat and dairy. B’tzel Hachochma (IV, 169) points out that in a case (e.g., like at the seder), where one eats a k’zayit of bread, creating the zimun obligation, before meat is brought out, this matter does not apply. There is a machloket about a case where that which one ate was off limits to the other but bread which everyone can partake of is available (see Taz 196:2), but we assume that the matter is determined by what was eaten (see Hitorerut Teshuva III, 61). It is not clear why, when they form a group for zimun, it makes a difference who leads the zimun (Aruch Hashulchan, OC 196:8), and indeed some Acharonim do not cite this ruling (see opinions in Sha’ar Hatziyun 196:12). Even those who cite it view it as a minhag, not an absolute requirement (Chayei Adam I, 48:19; Mishna Berura 196:9; Aruch Hashulchan, op. cit.). One can also point out that the Magen Avraham cites the practice regarding a case where the mezamen does the bentching and exempts the others, whereas current practice is that all bentch separately and the stakes regarding zimun are much lower. Therefore, it should not be surprising that the Sha’ar Hatziyun (op. cit.) says that if one of the meat eaters is a kohen, the more established halacha of giving respect to kohanim trumps the preference of the dairy eater. Regarding your case of four eating together, where there is a zimun anyway, the matter probably depends on the Magen Avraham’s reasoning, which is not spelled out. If we prefer the person who is most connected to everyone, it still pays to have the dairy eater do the zimun. If it serves as a reminder that who ate what can affect the viability of the zimun, then when the zimun does not depend on the dairy eater, it should not be necessary. However, one can raise counter arguments. In any case, the matter is of so little importance that it does not warrant worrying which possibility is more likely, and one can do as he likes. (Our answer does not relate to the precautions one should take when some are eating dairy while others are Eating Before Davening to Enable One to Daven with a MinyanFor medical reasons, I must eat early in the morning. Is it better to eat before going to daven in shul or to daven at home, eat, and go to shul to answer Kedusha, etc.?The gemara (Berachot 10b) cites and explains two p’sukim relating to not eating before davening: “Do not eat on the blood” (Vayikra The most convincing approach as to the interrelationship between the two derivations is that the second clarifies the first. In other words, there is not a formal prohibition to eat, but rather one should not eat in a manner of haughtiness. Therefore, one may drink water (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 89:3), a “drink of humility.” Also, the Pri Chadash (89:3) says that when one needs to eat for medical reasons (even real food - Mishna Berura 89:24), he may do so before davening even if he can wait. At this point, we would posit that since davening with a minyan is a real advantage and eating in your circumstances is totally permitted, it is better to eat first than give up on minyan. However, the Leket Hakemach (cited by the Baer Heitev (89:11), the Biur Halacha (to 89:3), and recent poskim (including Yalkut Yosef 89:29 and Ishei Yisrael Nevertheless, we believe, for the following reasons, that you may decide which of the options is more appropriate for you. In addition to the absence of the Leket Hakemach’s opinion in early sources, all the sources that mention it talk about it being a preference, not a requirement (see also Magen Avraham 90:21). Also, in your case the option of eating first and then davening with a minyan later is stronger than in the Leket Hakemach’s case for the following reasons. He spoke about someone whose weakness made it difficult to hold out until after davening but did not address medically required eating, which in your case may make it less problematic. He also spoke primarily about the long Shabbat davening, where it is too long to wait, so the solution is to shorten the first part of davening. In contrast, in your case the standing medical orders are to eat as soon as possible, after which it is time for normal davening. Furthermore, your situation would regularly preclude your davening with a minyan. The Aruch Hashulchan (OC 109:5), discussing the case of one who davens slowly enough that he consistently has to choose between davening with others and answering to Kedusha, rules that davening with others has precedence (even though he rules differently for a one-time basis such as coming late). He reasons that you cannot deprive someone of full tefilla b’tzibbur on a regular basis. If you follow the standard rule that those who must eat should say the early parts of davening including Kri’at Shema first (see details in Ishei Yisrael A Fleishig Egg Pan for a Milk MealI (an Ashkenazi) accidentally cooked meat in the pan I use for pareve eggs. Can I still use the pan for pareve eggs I plan to eat at a milchig meal?A fleishig pot has kosher meat taste in it, but there is a danger that it could become not kosher if that taste combines with milk taste. However, this cannot happen once the taste is sufficiently weakened. In one such case, known as nat bar nat, hot pareve food that was placed in a milchig or fleishig utensil does not become forbidden when mixed with the opposite type of food (Chulin 111b, Shulchan Aruch, Yoreh Deah 95:2). However, the Rama (ad loc.) says that if the food was cooked or roasted in a milchig or fleishig pot that had been used for its type within 24 hours, it may not be mixed with the other type of food. On the other hand, the Rama does not treat the otherwise pareve food totally as milchig or fleishig, as he permits putting this food into a utensil of the other type. Your eggs are such a pareve/fleishig food known as chezkat besari, and you want to know if an Ashkenazi can eat them at a milchig meal. We will also see if other precautions need to be taken. Let us peruse the laws dealing with separation between milk and meat. The gemara (Chulin 104b-105a) talks about waiting between eating meat and subsequently eating cheese but says that no time is required after cheese before meat. It does, though, say that one should either check or wash his hands, and clean his mouth before eating meat. The Shulchan Aruch (YD 89:3) rules that the above requirements are true only regarding actual meat and milk/cheese, but between two pareve foods, one cooked together with meat and one with milk, he does not need to wait or wash. In practice, the minhag is to wait even after otherwise pareve food that was cooked together with fleishig food in a manner that it tastes fleishig. In any case, the Rama (YD 89:3) states unequivocally that if one ate pareve food cooked in a fleishig pot, he can eat even cheese right afterward. This makes a lot of sense, as we saw that, the Shulchan Aruch’s opinion is that one could even mix this basically pareve food directly into milk. In fact, to give this statement more of a chiddush, some say that it is talking about a case where there was a little actual meat gravy in the pot (Shach 89:19) or when the food that was cooked in the pot is sharp, in which case the leniency of nat bar nat does not usually apply (R. Akiva Eiger, ad loc.). Certainly, in the case of normal pareve food in a clean fleishig pot, one does not have to wait afterward. What about washing and rinsing, which are more widely required than waiting (e.g., after eating dairy)? While one could contemplate stringency, the Eliya Rabba (OC 173:4) says that one does not have to take any of those steps, and this approach is accepted by the Kaf Hachayim (YD 89:61) and contemporary poskim (see Halachos of Kashrus, p. 204). The Badei Hashulchan (Biurim to 89:3) suggests that when the pareve food is sharp or when one actually sees or feels residue on his hands or mouth, he should wash and rinse. However, he did not substantiate his claim with sources, and as the logic can go either way, we will not introduce further stringency than appears explicitly in the poskim. Thus, after eating any pareve food cooked in a fleishig pot, no washing is needed. They just cannot be eaten together. What constitutes eating together? Two things are apparently included. First, the foods cannot be discernibly mixed before entering the mouth. Therefore, the same plate or flatware should be used only if they appear clean. The second thing is that if one has not finished chewing a bite of these eggs, he should not yet, for example, drink milk. There is more room for leniency when the pot went 24 hours since being used for fleishig (based on Rama, YD 95:3), but we are not allowed to use utensils having in mind to rely on that leniency (Chochmat Adam 48:2). Therefore, it is proper to kasher the pan (with hagala or libun kal – details are beyond our present scope) if you plan to regularly use this pan at milk meals. Use of Kinetic Watches on ShabbatIs it permitted to wear a kinetic watch on Shabbat, which is powered by the periodic natural movement of the hand rather than by a battery or winding by hand?Let us start our discussion with old clocks, which were operated in a manner that is halachically equivalent to winding watches. The Shulchan Aruch (Orach Chayim 338:3) says that one can set such a clock before Shabbat even though it chimes loudly on the hour. Acharonim explain that people will assume he set the matter into motion before Shabbat (and thus the special marit ayin of noises does not apply – Mishna Berura 338:14). There is a major discussion among poskim whether pulling the chains to begin the operation of such clocks is considered creating or fixing a utensil (Chayei Adam 44:19) or whether this is just considered the way of using an existing utensil (Panim Meirot II, 123). According to the former, it is forbidden, very possibly on the Torah level, to set the clock into operation on Shabbat, and this is the consensus. The next question is whether one can wind a watch that is already working to keep it operational longer than it otherwise would be. The Ktav Sofer (OC 55) compares this to cutting off part of a candle in a way that will make it go out earlier. A simple watch, though, seems to be significantly more lenient in that nothing problematic is happening later, and the question is whether making a change to keep an already operating instrument working longer is equivalent to creating a working instrument. Indeed, the Da’at Torah (on the Shulchan Aruch, ibid.) champions the idea that just extending efficacy is not forbidden. The Ktav Sofer also raises the possible distinction between clocks that chime for more hours than they otherwise would have and cases where the gears and handles just move longer. In any case, the minhag developed to not allow winding to continue the existing operation even if there is no chime, unless there are mitigating or extenuating circumstances (see Mishna Berura 338:15; Sha’ar Hatziyun 338:17; Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 28:19-21). More recent poskim have dealt with the advent of self-winding watches, which wind by one’s movements. In this case, the consensus has been that it is permitted while the watch is still working (see Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 28:28). Here the aforementioned case for leniency regarding watches that wind is bolstered by the fact that the person is not doing a discernable or intentional act of winding but that it is happening as a certain side result of his activities (p’sik reishei). Additionally, regarding this relatively new case, a minhag to be stringent has not developed. The recent invention of kinetic watches is slightly different from self-winding watches. The mechanism of kinetic watches is based on a quartz system, which is normally operated by battery. In this case, instead of a battery, movement generates the small amount of electricity that the watch needs, and the watch stores the energy for anywhere from days to months. The relatively new question of a mini, mechanical electricity recharger is not a simple one, and we have found rabbis coming out in either direction. However, our feeling, is that such a transfer of energy of movement to electricity to be transferred again to “harmless” mechanical movement, without creating new circuits, is not included in the prohibitions of electricity that the halachic world has assumed since the advent of the use of electricity. (We may reverse our decision if a consensus forms to forbid it.) One Who Lit Shabbat Candles Properly but Failed to Use ThemA yeshiva student ate with us on Friday night. He lights candles with a beracha in his room and usually spends a few minutes benefiting from them before the meal. When he realized that he forgot to do so, he took leave for several minutes because he did not think his candles would last until the end of the meal. Was this necessary?The Shulchan Aruch (Orach Chayim 263:6) says that single men not living with their families must light Shabbat candles. The Mishna Berura (263:29) adds that this is so even if they eat away at someone’s house. (This is a topic of its own.) Regarding this case, the Mishna Berura (ibid. 30) says that the candles should be long enough that he will use them when he returns; otherwise, his beracha is l’vatala (in vain). This seems to be based on the Shulchan Aruch’s (ibid. 9) ruling that if one lights in her house but eats in his courtyard and the candles will not suffice for him to use them, her beracha is l’vatala. What many women who go away for the meal do is have some benefit from the candles during twilight (see Mishna Berura 263:41). Presumably, your guest does not accept Shabbat with the lighting before davening Mincha and, thus, cannot do this. Therefore, at first glance, what your guest did was necessary. However, the primary sources discuss a slightly different case: where there was no plan to use the lights. Given that your guest’s practice is to benefit from the candles and something arose to alter that, would he fulfill the mitzva without returning? It depends on which of the following formulations of the mitzva of lighting candles is correct: 1) The act of lighting candles is a matter of k’vod Shabbat, i.e., honoring Shabbat on Friday by preparing in a manner that should make it pleasant; 2) Ensuring that the house one occupies is set for pleasant usage on Shabbat; 3) The mitzva is the oneg Shabbat (enjoying the light, parallel to eating tasty food) itself on Shabbat, just that this must be prepared before Shabbat. According to #1, your guest’s visit at home was unnecessary. At the time of the lighting, there was an expectation that the light would be of value. Therefore, at that time he honored Shabbat, and this is not uprooted retroactively by changes in the situation. (If one often does not benefit, then his “plan” is disingenuous and his lighting valueless). According to #2, the same is true. His room was properly lit, and it does not matter that he unexpectedly was not in there at the relevant time. According to #3, your guest’s actions were necessary because without benefit, it turns out that the mitzva was not fulfilled. The rulings of the Shulchan Aruch and Mishna Berura (above) do not apply here because in those cases, there was no expectation of using the lights. One can find a basis for all the approaches, but we can only scratch the surface in this forum. The simple reading of Rashi (Shabbat 25b) is that the mitzva is kavod (#1) and of Tosafot (ad loc.) is that it is oneg (#3). The Rambam (Shabbat 5:1 and 30:4) mentions kavod and oneg, but his language implies that #2 is correct. Possibly, while the mitzva was instituted with the hope people will benefit (shalom bayit- see Shabbat 23b), the formal mitzva and its beracha relate to the act of kavod by lighting (Beit Halevi I,11; Az Nidbaru 9:1). This side is bolstered (but not proven) by the fact that there is a beracha, which is recited well before the benefit (see Yaskil Avdi III, OC 18), and that if the candle was lit too early, it has to be re-lit (Rama, OC 263:4). If we follow the model of Chanuka candles, then as soon as the candles were lit properly, the mitzva is fulfilled even if they went out. (One telling matter is the machloket between the Magen Avraham (263:11) and R. Akiva Eiger (ad loc.) whether a non-Jew can light the candle on a Jew’s behalf (see Shulchan Aruch Harav 263, K.A. 3).) Since the simple reading of the poskim is to require your guest to return and it is difficult to prove it wrong, you can applaud his diligence. On the other hand, we would not label failure to do so a breach of responsibility, especially if going would cause his host hardship. Kashering cast iron cookwareWhat would the process be to kasher iron cookware? And does that mean I could buy second-hand cast iron cookware and kasher it?If the iron cookware was used only with cooking with water, it may be koshered by haga'alah. One would need to thoroughly clean it, wait 24 hours since its last use, and immerse it in boiling water which preferably has soap in it. If it was used with food directly on it, such as roasting, grilling, etc. it requires libbun, which would mean heating it to an extremely high temperature (approximately 700 F). One practical way to do it would be to place it in a self cleaning oven for a self clean cycle, although one should first make sure that safety wise this may be done. You may buy used cookware and kasher it, but unless there is special need we would recommend not doing so and thus avoiding the problems that may arise in the koshering process. Beracha on tabouleCan you please tell me what the proper beracha on taboule is, and why?Regarding foods made from the five types of grains there are four possible berachot: 1. Shehakol – if it is eaten in a way usually considered inedible, such as eating dough. 2. Ha'adama – if eaten in an edible fashion which is not the normal way of eating, such as eating the seeds ("koses chitim"). 3. Mezonot – if cooked. 4. Hamotzi – if grinded to flour and then bread made from it. "Koses Chitim" is when the seeds are eaten whole and the peel was not removed from them (Orach Chaim 208, 4). The Mishna Berurah (ibid 15) states that if the peel was removed, some say that one should bless mezonot and some say ha'adama. However, this is only if the seeds are whole. If they are not whole then the blessing is mezonot. Burgul (what the taboule is made from) is cracked wheat from which the peel was removed, and is soaked in hot water, and therefore is not "koses chitim" and thus the blessing is mezonot. Salt to Absorb Spilled Wine on ShabbatI have heard that if one spills red wine on a tablecloth, it is good to put salt on it to absorb the wine. Is that permitted on Shabbat, since the salt is only absorbing, not cleaning?The prohibition of melaben (literally, whitening, but, for our purposes, laundering) comes in various forms. We will investigate if this use of salt fits into one of the prohibited ones. Melaben applies to cleaning fabrics and not to removing external dirt on top of hard surfaces. Whether a certain means of removing filth is permitted can depend on the surface from which it is being removed. For example, one may pour some water over a dirty leather object, but this is forbidden for a fabric, while one may wipe the fabric with a cloth (Mishna, Shabbat 142b; Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 302:9). In discussing this distinction, the gemara (Zevachim 94b) says that regarding fabric, “soaking it is laundering it.” Since a tablecloth falls under the category of fabric, putting water on it when it has become soiled is forbidden. Removing liquid from a fabric might also be forbidden. The Rambam (Shabbat Removal of dirt from a garment by means of shaking it out is also a matter of dispute. The gemara (Shabbat 147a) says that it is forbidden to shake out a garment on Shabbat. Tosafot says that this is talking about shaking out water from the garment, which makes it part of the laundering process. Rashi says that the prohibition applies even to shaking off dirt, and the Rama (OC 302:1) says that one should try to follow the strict opinion. The gemara, though, says that the prohibition applies only to the type of garments that one is careful to wear without the material that is shaken off. With this background, let us now discuss removing wine by absorbing it with salt. Simply absorbing a big wine spill with a napkin or even a cloth rag is permitted (see Mishna Berura 302:60). This is on the condition that one is careful not to press on the tablecloth in a manner that would squeeze liquid out of it and not to squeeze the rag afterward (see Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 12:37-38). In some ways, doing so with salt seems even better, as one places the salt in a manner that is less likely to squeeze the tablecloth, and it is not feasible to squeeze the salt afterward. However, our research indicates that the salt does not only absorb excess surface liquid. Rather, it draws out the wine that has already been absorbed in the tablecloth and would not be absorbed by, say, a paper towel. This is specifically why the “home remedies people” say that salt prevents the stain from setting and even removes at least some of it, which requires more than just absorbing surface liquid. From the world of halacha, as well, we know that salt is put on meat to draw out the blood from deep beneath the surface. On the other hand, we have seen that not every action that helps make a fabric cleaner is forbidden. In some ways, the salt acts similarly to water, which stops the dirt from setting, and “encourages” some of the dirt to come out (more complete results are reached through agitations/scrubbing). With a dearth of classical sources on this or exactly identical cases, our gut feeling (based on the halachic precedents) is that putting on the salt is applying a stain remover to a fabric and is forbidden. A similar gut feeling may be what brought Rav Shlomo Zalman Auerbach (cited and accepted by Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 15:(74) and Orchot Shabbat 13:20) to say that it is forbidden to put talcum powder on greasy clothes to soak up the fat. As our case seems to be equivalent, we concur with that ruling and recommend soaking up what one can with paper towels on Shabbat and treating the tablecloth after Shabbat. Beracha on cacoa beansWhat is the bracha on raw cacao bean? Since most people don't eat it in the natural state is it like eating raw potatoes (shehakol) or is it ha'etz since it is nonetheless edible and they sell them in nutrition stores?Most people would not eat raw cacoa beans, and therefore the beracha is Shehakol. That is part of the reason that on cooked chocolate we make Shehakol. Shehecheyanu on Fruits for TravelersI have come from England, where avocados are available all year long, to Israel, where it is primarily a winter-spring fruit. Do I recite Shehecheyanu upon eating it in Israel?Let us start with some background. The beracha of Shehecheyanu is a proper response to the happiness of something enjoyable returning to our lives. Regarding produce, Shehecheyanu applies only when there are distinctive seasons during the course of the year (Shulchan Aruch and Rama, Orach Chayim 225:6). The Rama continues that for this reason we do not make Shehecheyanu on a vegetable, “for it stands in the ground all year.” He expounds elsewhere (Darchei Moshe, OC 225:2) that it is hard to discern which vegetable is from the old crop and which is new. A common question regarding is what to do if, despite there being different growing seasons, they are available almost all year without interruption. This depends on how to understand the aforementioned Rama (“stands in the ground”). The Mishna Berura (ad loc.:18) points out that almost every vegetable has distinct growing seasons, making the Rama’s generalization about vegetables hard to understand. (Due to use of hothouses, it is now common for vegetables to be grown throughout the year.) One of his explanations is that the Rama was referring to vegetables stored in the ground for long periods. In other words, even if something does not grow all year long, if it is available throughout, we do not recite Shehecheyanu on it. When fresh produce is far superior to refrigerated produce, there is likely cause to make Shehecheyanu on the new fresh fruit (B’er Moshe V, 65). This is particularly understandable in light of the Rama’s stress that it must be noticeable whether a given fruit is from the new season or the old (see V’zot Haberacha, pg. 161). Certainly, if a species is available only canned, one makes Shehecheyanu on new, fresh produce. Another situation where produce is available throughout the year is when it is imported from regions with different growing seasons, in which case, we do not make Shehecheyanu on either local or imported fruit. The determining factor is not the agricultural phenomenon of a new crop, but the consumers’ experience upon reaching a new season of availability. Is the determining factor the individual consumers or general society? Regarding one who has not partaken for a long time in fruit that has been available, the Mishna Berura (225:16) says: “Although he did not eat it, others did.” Thus, it is not enough that it is new for certain individuals. You ask about the opposite case, where it is new in the society where you presently find yourself, but it is not personally new to you. Teshuvot V’hanhagot (II, 151) and Halichot Shlomo (based on Rav S.Z. Auerbach’s writings) say that one who travels from a place where the season had already come to a place where there is a new season makes the beracha again in the new place. However, both require that thirty days of lack of access to the fruit must pass in the interim. In other words, there has to be a basic level of renewal both for the individual and for the society. If it has been available without a minimum interruption for either society or the individual, then the individual does not make Shehecheyanu. The newcomer’s thirty days can be a combination of time in his place of origin and in the new place. It is not clear whether the individual’s break follows having eaten the fruit for thirty days or having access. (We should note that the original halacha is that the beracha is on seeing the fruit, but the minhag is to make it only upon eating it (Shulchan Aurch, OC 225:3)). Since we refrain from berachot out of doubt, we recommend that the traveler not make a beracha unless he spent a combination of thirty consecutive days without access to the fruit and the fruit should locally be one that is not widely available all year long. In your case, only if you spent thirty days in Bracha and hashgacha on chewing gumIs a bracha required on chewing gum? Also what is the problem with non kosher gum?The general consensus seems to be that one should indeed make a bracha on chewing gum. What follows is a brief summary of two of the central issues discussed (a fuller discussion, together with sources, we can send you in Hebrew if you wish): 1) One does not recite a bracha on food unless one's palate enjoys it (eg. no bracha is made on tasteless food eaten for health purposes, water drunk only to clear one's throat, etc.). However, most chewing gums are indeed chewed (initially) for their taste and therefore they require a bracha. 2) When eating a "main" food together with an "ancillary" food (eg. one eats a piece of bread solely to make it easier to eat a very salty or spicey food), one does not recite a bracha on the ancillary food (the bread). Some suggest that the gum's sugary taste is ancillary to the main rubbery gum base [which people want specifically for the (non- palate related) chewing], and therefore no bracha should be recited on the taste. However, others point out that the above rule only applies when one is making a bracha on the main food- in such a situation, the ancillary food's bracha is exempted by that of the main food. But since no bracha is being recited on the rubbery gum base, a bracha is indeed required for the sugary taste. Regarding the issue of kashrut by gum: The flavor can be non-kosher The gum base is made with glycerine which can be from an animal source. Use of a Crock Pot on ShabbatI have questions about crock pot use on Shabbat. I have heard of people covering the heating element with foil, placing something to prop up the pot, or covering or removing the knob. What is correct? May I add hot water on Shabbat if the chulent is drying out?There are many legitimate positions. Let us explain and put things in perspective, regarding the three main issues: shehiya, hachzara, and hatmana. Shehiya (leaving on the ‘flame’): Chazal were concerned that with food cooking on a flame, one might stoke the coals to hasten the cooking. Tannaim (Shabbat 36b) dispute if this concern applies when the food was minimally cooked before Shabbat. The Shulchan Aruch (OC 253:1) and Be’ur Halacha (ad loc.) lean toward stringency, whereas the Rama (ad loc.) seems to lean toward leniency. Rav M. Feinstein (Igrot Moshe OC 1:93) raises further logic for leniency – the fuel in our gas stoves work (electricity is similar) does not resemble the coals of former ages but the more lenient case of straw (where one increases the flame by bringing more fuel). In any case, the minhag is to require a blech, certainly if it is not minimally cooked. What needs to be covered? Igrot Moshe (ibid.) says that one covers the heat source to show he is reducing the heat and does not plan to raise it. Rav Aharon Kotler required covering the knobs, as a reminder not to adjust them. Many blechs cover both, as Igrot Moshe recommends. Regarding a crock pot, foil over the coils is not discernable and, more importantly, does not significantly reduce the heat. (The rocks or metal balls some use do allow heat to escape.) Therefore, it is necessary and reasonable to rely on Rav Kotler (along with the other indications for leniency) and cover the knobs. Removing the knobs or putting enough tape to make it difficult to turn is even better (see Shabbat 18b). Hachzara (returning to a flame): If one removes the pot insert and wants to return it, there are many more necessary requirements, not specific to crock pots (fully cooked; still warm; holding the pot; having in mind to return it; a covering). A major issue for crock pots is that one may not return a pot to a closed oven (Shulchan Aruch, ibid. 2), which a crock pot resembles in some ways (as heat comes from the sides in addition to the bottom). There are, through, grounds for leniency beyond our scope (see Am Mordechai, Shabbat 4). Hatmana (insulating): In one of his last rulings, Rav S.Z. Auerbach claimed that a crock pot is a form of insulation, apparently because the pot (the ceramic insert) is surrounded relatively tightly by additional walls. Since additional heat is entering the system (mosif hevel), one may not leave the food there even though it is set it up before Shabbat (Shulchan Aruch, OC 257:5). The minhag among crock pot users for years was not this way and the standard halachic assumption is that hatmana is only when there is an extra covering on all sides (a crock pot has only a single, standard cover). However, the idea of stones was devised to make the crock pot conform to Rav Auerbach’s objections. Since the crock pot is slightly tapered, raising the insert a couple inches removes the level of closeness that makes it hatmana. We would not require one to follow this stringency, but we would not scoff at one who follows Rav Auerbach, whose rulings, including many lenient ones, so many of us follow. Adding water: For Ashkenazim, it is permitted to add water, as long as the chulent is fully cooked and the water is warm. (Rav O. Yosef forbids this for Sephardim- Yechaveh Da’at IV:22). Some say to be careful to pour it in gently to avoid the issue of mixing (Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 1:17). Some usually recommend removing the pot from the heat source (where mixing is less of a problem) before pouring in water and returning it. However, in this case, we believe that one who strives for stringency loses by doing this because he creates the need for a bigger leniency regarding hachzara (as above). Eating “Dairy Equipment” Food after MeatWhen I wait six hours after eating meat, is it permitted to eat chezkat chalavi (assumed to have absorbed taste from dairy utensils) foods?The Torah forbids eating milk and meat only when they are cooked together. Chazal forbid eating them together in any case, and after meat we must wait significantly before eating milk products (Chulin 104-105), according to most, for six or so hours (Shulchan Aruch, Yoreh Deah 89:1). There are practical disputes in cases of nat bar nat (double removed taste = nbn). Sephardim permit eating milchig with pareve food heated up in a meat pot, while Ashkenazim forbid that if the pareve food was cooked or fried in the meat pot. Your good question is whether it follows that chezkat chalavi is considered milchig to the extent that one may not eat it within the six hours after eating meat. In the opposite question, the answer is easier. After eating pareve food cooked in a meat pot, one does not have to wait six hours (Rama, YD 89:3). The Shach (ad loc. 19) says that this is so even if there was a small amount of meat residue left in the pot (even if there was not 60 times more pareve than meat- Pitchei Teshuva 89:7). Rabbi Akiva Eiger (ad loc.) says that even after eating a sharp food that was cut with a meat knife, which is treated like meat, not nbn (Rama, YD 95:2), one is not required to wait. The reason for these leniencies is that not everything that is considered meat requires six hours, just as we do not wait after milk. The reasons for the wait after meat are: meat between the teeth (Rambam, Ma’achalot Asurot 9:28); a taste left in the mouth (Rashi, Chulin 105a). Thus, if the meat component of a food is qualitatively weak, it lacks the special qualities that make six hours necessary. However, if the milk is the nbn component, the logic is weaker. After eating meat and being assumed to have meat between his teeth and/or a taste in his mouth, eating chezkat chalavi should be like eating milk and meat together. Also, the Yad Yehuda (89:5) says in the case of the meat nbn, it is likely that when one ate it, he did not discern a meat taste, in which case there is more room for leniency. Regarding nbn milk food one wants to eat after meat, how can he assume he will not taste the milk? Despite these indications for stringency, Rav Shlomo Kluger (Tuv Ta’am Vada’at III, 183) strongly rejected the possibility of such a ruling. He points out that the Rama and others who said that one should not eat nbn meat and milk together should have added not to eat nbn milk “within six hours of meat,” and no classical works say that (stimat haposkim). He also says that the standard practice (minhag ha’olam) is not to wait. What are the grounds for leniency? The first answer is based on adding up the indications of leniency. Rav Kluger argues that we do not know there will be taste in the mouth, but just that there might be. Plus, even Ashkenazim do not say that nbn is certainly milchig or fleishig, as if it already got mixed in with the other type of food, one may eat the combination (Rama, YD 95:2). Thus, when there is a ‘double doubt’ indication for leniency (with the worst-case scenario being rabbinic), we can be lenient. Furthermore, he says, perhaps there is definitely no problem. Eating milk after meat is forbidden because it resembles eating the two together. When the second food has at most a weak taste of milk and no actual milk, it no longer resembles eating them together. The Pri Megadim (Eshel Avraham 494:6) says that one must wait six hours before eating a sharp pareve food cut with a dairy knife. This goes well with Rav Kluger’s reason of adding up indications of leniency, as a sharp food cut with a meat knife is treated as more certain fleishig (see Rama, ibid.). Apparently, the minhag is not to be careful about this, and this can be justified by Rav Kluger’s second reason. Furthermore, regarding sharp foods that were sautéed in a dairy pan or were cut with a clean knife that had not been used for 24 hours, there are additional sources and logic for leniency (see Yad Yehuda 89:5). Vegans Keeping Kitniyot Rules on PesachI am Ashkenazi and vegan. Many of the foods I normally depend on for my nutrition (e.g., soybeans, rice, corn, and other kitniyot) are prohibited on Pesach. This makes finding food to eat during Pesach very difficult and somewhat decreases my holiday joy. Is there any halachic allowance for vegans to eat kitniyot on Pesach?One must distinguish between different levels of “kitniyot observance” and different reasons and degrees of veganism. The main reasons for veganism are: 1) Ethical (the idea of using animals or concern for the inhumane treatment of commercially raised animals); 2) Health (the belief that a vegan diet is healthier); 3) Environmental (the various negative impact of mass raising of animals on the environment). 4) Emotional (the difficulty of eating something that comes from an animal). All things being equal, vegans motivated by health or environmental concerns should make allowances in their vegan practice during Pesach if keeping the binding minhag of kitniyot harms their diet or significantly curtails their enjoyment on Pesach. A little flexibility for a short, well-defined time period need not compromise the general approach (barring special health concerns). On the other hand, many vegans can keep up their lifestyle only in an “all or nothing” manner. Such disciplined, idealistic people who take special steps to care for their bodies and the world (which the Torah encourages (see Devarim 4:15 and Bereishit 2:15)), deserve appropriate leniency. Those motivated by ethics or emotion are naturally are more likely to refuse partial exceptions. While we cannot expect all people to be vegans or vegetarians, there is a serious school of thought that vegetarianism is preferable (as Rav Kook wrote). Certainly in times where there are serious ethical/halachic concerns with the treatment of commercially raised animals, there is additional value in veganism. Our general ruling is that, barring extreme circumstances, an Ashkenazi should continue the centuries-old practice of not eating kitniyot on Pesach. While there are dispensations for babies and sick people (Mishna Berura 453:7), a vegan has enough alternatives to be able to avoid kiniyot. However, the rule (with exceptions) is to be lenient regarding questions regarding kitniyot and we believe that many vegans (see above) have the right to follow the most lenient opinions on kitniyot. We will mention the major areas in which a vegan may be lenient (see Bemareh Habazak IV:51 for more detail). Species: peanuts, soy, and, quinoa. Igrot Moshe (Orach Chayim III:63, discussing peanuts) presents the thesis that one does not add to the list of kitniyot species based on the logic of botanical characteristics or usage, except where the minhag is indisputable. If there is another questionable food that is important to your diet, feel free to ask us. Derivatives: Oil derived before Pesach from kitniyot was permitted by some poskim (see Bemareh Habazak, ibid.). If, as is likely, the standard “Kosher for Pesach” alternatives are sufficient, one does not need leniency. Mixtures: The Terumat Hadeshen (113) says that the stringencies of mixtures for Pesach do not apply to kitniyot. The Rama (OC 453:1) applies this leniency even to a simple majority of non-kitniyot, if the kitniyot element is not discernable and removable (Mishna Berura 453:8). While one may not create such a mixture on Pesach, there is room for leniency to buy it or prepare it before Pesach for Pesach use (see Bemareh Habazak, ibid.). Not exposed to water: Since even grain does not become chametz without water, if one can insure that kitniyot did not come in contact with water, one can rely on the majority of classical poskim who permitted the matter. An unsupervised kitniyot product may contain real chametz. Therefore, one either has to obtain and check the raw materials or buy products with a Sephardic Kosher for Pesach hasgacha and check that it does not include a majority of or discernable full-fledged kitniyot. Preparations for Seder Night on ShabbatThis year, with the seder being on Shabbat night, is there a need for any special preparations?There are two relatively minor changes that are worthwhile discussing. (We understand that you are not referring to the more obviously different rules for cooking and reheating on Shabbat, as opposed to the significantly more lenient rules for Yom Tov.) Preparing the saltwater for dipping the karpas – One is not allowed to make large quantities of saltwater on Shabbat for soaking vegetables (Shabbat 108a; Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 321:2). This is because making such saltwater was part of the process that was done to store vegetables for the long term, which is in turn similar to ibbud ha’or (tanning hides). It is permitted to make small quantities to put into food or to dip one’s bread or the like into, provided one does not use double the volume of salt compared to the water (ibid.; see Mishna Berura 321:11). Based on the above, several poskim (Taz 473:3; Chok Yaakov 473:13; Mishna Berura 473:21) say that when seder night falls on Friday night, one should prepare the saltwater beforehand. The Magen Avraham does not understand why this is necessary, considering that we are presumably only making a small quantity to use for the seder. The (partial) answer is apparently as the Misgeret Hashulchan (on Kitzur Shulchan Aruch 118:4) says: one is not always careful to make only the necessary amount. If one did not prepare in advance, there are different opinions as to whether it is better to dip the karpas in vinegar or to be careful to make a particularly small quantity of saltwater. Our discussion, on the uniqueness of Pesach falling on Shabbat, assumes that it is permitted to prepare saltwater on Yom Tov, despite the fact that ibbud, which is the overall issue, is forbidden on Yom Tov. This indeed is the assumption of most classical poskim (see Misgeret Hashulchan, ibid.). However, the Chayei Adam (130:19) and the Kitzur Shulchan Aruch (118:4) say that one should prepare the saltwater before Yom Tov even in a regular year. While one might be tempted to say it is just a good suggestion to save time for the seder, they seem to view it as a halachic requirement, as they say that if one has to make the saltwater on Yom Tov, he should switch the normal order and put in the water first followed by the salt. In summary, then, one cannot really say it is forbidden to make saltwater for the seder on Shabbat. Additionally, some prefer making the saltwater before Yom Tov every year to expedite matters and maybe for halachic reasons. However, the impetus to prepare in advance when the seder is on Shabbat is greater. Adding wine to the charoset – The minhag is to put (additional?) wine in the charoset soon before using it at the seder (Rama, Orach Chayim 473:5). While the mixing in of the wine may be under the category of lash (kneading), this is forbidden only on Shabbat but permitted on Yom Tov (Orach Chayim 506). When the seder falls out on Shabbat, adding the wine could be a problem. Therefore, the Mishna Berura (321:68) says one should put in the wine before Shabbat. Regarding a case where he forgot to do so, one has to add the wine in a manner that does not violate lash. One possibility is to change the order of mixing together, by putting the wine on the bottom, adding the charoset on top, and mixing them together either by finger or by shaking the utensil that holds them. The Mishna Berura points out that one of the opinions in the Shulchan Aruch requires that the mixture be watery. This raises issues with the fact that we want the charoset to be thick like mortar (see Sha’ar Hatziyun 321:86). This is another reason why one would want to avoid the issue and simply prepare the charoset before Shabbat. Rejecting Stringencies on KetubotWhy shouldn’t situation XX affect the validity of one’s ketuba? I have searched and found that Rabbi YY says it is a problem. What is your opinion?Rejecting Stringencies on KetubotYour question is excellent from the perspective of theoretical halacha but must be totally rejected in terms of halacha l’ma’aseh (practical). A ketuba functions in two basic areas. First and foremost, it as a legal document that must be capable of being used in beit din. Chazal insisted that every woman have a minimum level of financial security in relation to her husband, much of which is spelled out in the ketuba. Additionally, it is an important traditional part of a Jewish wedding. There are not the tremendous halachic ramifications if a detail is slightly off, as is the case regarding a get. If a couple understandably believes that their ketuba is valid and it turns out that it is not, it does not turn out that they were living in sin (see discussion in this column, from Beshalach 5772). Any discovered mistake should be dealt with seriously, but not with hysteria or concern for the sanctity and success of the marriage. Therefore, chumrot in the realm of ketubot (i.e., something is written, not wrong, but in an inferior manner) should be viewed with the following in mind. It is extremely rare for the ‘less laudable’ version to be justification for beit din to not award the wife with the sum of money written in the ketuba, which is the most important thing. Regarding the ‘religious’ element of the ketuba, its lack of preciseness is not only less important compared to a get but even compared to a mitzva lack of preciseness may disqualify it (e.g., laining Megillat Esther). Rather, it is generally proper to do something we cherish in the most appropriate manner. In our opinion, it is no less important to follow minhag and not incorporate ideas that were not found in the ketubot of one’s parents or even one’s roshei yeshiva. This is so even if there are respected opinions that prefer the new way and even if it was once or is now the practice in some communities. A change can appear to cast aspersions on our predecessors and our peers, as if their ketubot are not (as) good. Let us give one example. In a get, where clear, accurate identification of the couple is crucial, there are complicated halachot of how to incorporate not only the Jewish name one received after birth, but also secular names or nicknames. There are sources that recommend that a ketuba should also follow these rules, especially considering the possibility that rabbis might use the names from the ketuba when writing a get. In any case, as the Minchat Yitzchak (VII, 117) points out, this is clearly not the minhag; rather, we use the “name from the cradle.” Therefore, we strongly discourage officiating rabbis from changing the minhag and adding secular names and nicknames, and thereby creating unnecessary new complications in the writing of the ketuba. This is despite the fact that one can argue that adding these names is halachically preferable. The case (XX) which you ask about, from one perspective is potentially more important and in other ways is less important. There are only a handful of sources that recommend it, and we found none that says that failure to do so renders a ketuba invalid. While the situation does not always arise, the fact that we have never heard of it being implemented indicates that it is clearly not the minhag. Since implementing the chumra would create significant headaches and cast unnecessary aspersions on those who do not, we feel one should not do so. [As explained above, we will omit the halachic rationale.] Milking on Yom TovWe bought a milking goat. Are we allowed to drink milk milked on Yom Tov or should it be destroyed as on Shabbat?The status of an animal which is intended for milking and not eating on Yom Tov is as follows: Note: this answer is referring to milking by hand. By milking with a machine there are other possible technical solutions. Reciting R'tzei After HavdalaAfter finishing seuda shlishit I forgot to recite Birkat Hamazon until coming back from Ma’ariv. Was I supposed to say R’tzei in Birkat Hamazon at that point?This question tests the primacy of the following competing halachic rules. One is that once one becomes obligated in one of the additions to Birkat Hamazon, he is to recite it even after the time that it normally applies. The other is that during times that can relate to the preceding period or the following period, we do not allow there to be an internal contradiction (tartei d’satrei) and apply it to both. Let us survey sources and applications of each rule before coming to an answer. The first rule is actually not unanimously held. The Rosh (Shut 22:6) says that if one starts seuda shlishit before sunset but bentches after the day is over, he does not recite R’tzei. To the contrary, if he ate a meal before Shabbat but recited Birkat Hamazon only on Shabbat, he would then recite R’tzei. The Tur (Orach Chayim 695) says that according to [his father] the Rosh, one who did not bentch on his Purim seuda until nightfall after Purim he would not recite Al Hanisim. In other words, we always follow the time that one is ready to make the pronouncement. However, we do not adopt the Rosh’s opinion as standard halacha. Rather, we follow the time that one ate and say that if he ate in a way that caused an obligation of a special pronouncement such as R’tzei or Al Hanisim, he is to make it even when its time ostensibly over (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 188:10). (An exception to this is Sheva Berachot that finish after the week is over, as one cannot make independent berachot after the time period- see Sha’arei Teshuva 188:8 based on the Ginat Veradim). The next rule, that we avoid tartei d’satrei situations, has far too many applications to address, and we will stick to those close to our topic. One discussion is about one who started a seudat Purim on Erev Shabbat and continued it on Shabbat, making Kiddush in the middle. When he eventually bentches, there is reason to say both Al Hanisim, due to that which he ate during the day, and R’tzei, due to that which he ate after Kiddush. The Magen Avraham (695:9) says that one recites Al Hanisim, apparently in addition to R’tzei (see Sha’ar Hatziyun 695:19), whereas the Chayei Adam (155:32) says that you cannot say both Al Hanisim and R’tzei in the same Birkat Hamazon when the two relate to different days. Another case where the issue of tartei d’satrei arises regarding R’tzei is when one starts eating on Shabbat and continues eating bread after night begins and Rosh Chodesh starts. There is a theoretical obligation to say both R’tzei and Ya’aleh V’yavoh but, again, the two belong to two different days. Here, the Magen Avraham (188:18) says that one cannot say both and since it is more clear that there is an obligation of Ya’aleh V’yavo than it is that there is an obligation of R’tzei, one says just Ya’aleh V’yavo (we will not deal with reconciling the Magen Avraham’s two rulings). The Taz (188:7) says that one may say both despite the apparent contradiction, and the Mishna Berura does not come to a clear distinction. There is some logic to say that tartei d’satrei exists only when one has to say two contradictory things in the same context, e.g., within Birkat Hamazon. If so, since there is nothing in Birkat Hamazon that indicates that it is Motzaei Shabbat, saying R’tzei would not be a problem. However, the consensus of poskim is that davening Ma’ariv is such a strong indication of ending Shabbat that it is not possible to say R’tzei in bentching afterward (see implication of Beit Yosef, OC 188, Magen Avraham 188:17; Mishna Berura 188:32; Aruch Hashulchan 188:27). The loss of R’tzei is also not a critical matter. Because not all agree that one has to eat bread at seuda shlishit, if one forgets R’tzei at sedua shlishit, he does not repeat Birkat Hamazon (Shulchan Aruch, ibid. 8). What some major poskim (Magen Avraham 263:33; Rabbi Akiva Eiger to Magen Avraham 188:17) are unsure about is if one said Hamavdil but did not daven, whether that precludes saying R’tzei. Futures Contracts of PigsIs it permitted to buy futures contracts of hogs? You are not buying pigs, but receive ‘paper’ which, if you hold it on a certain date, you will receive the hogs, but not if you sell it before that date.In Living the Halachic Process (vol. I, E-6) in discussing the prohibition of commerce in non-kosher food, we touched on “ownership on paper” through the stock market. Futures trading has both elements of stringency and of leniency in relation to standard stock transactions. We will start with basic background. The gemara derives from the pasuk, “… vesheketz yiheyu lachem” (Vayikra According to most Rishonim, the prohibition of trading in forbidden foods is on a Torah level (See Shut Chatam Sofer, YD 104-106, 108; Yabia Omer VIII, YD13). The Rashba (Shut III, 223) says that the reason is to minimize the possibility of eating forbidden foods; others say it is a gezeirat hakatuv (Heavenly decree without a known reason). In any case, it has something to do with eating, as it applies only to objects that are usually owned for eating purposes (Shulchan Aruch, YD 117:1). The consensus of poskim is that this prohibition applies as long as a Jew owns the food, even if he is not expected to come in direct contact with the food (Chatam Sofer, ibid.108). It is debatable whether holding a small amount of stocks is forbidden as partial ownership of a company (see Mishneh Halachot V, 102). Let us analyze how futures contracts differ. A futures hogs contract acquires for its buyer the, usually theoretical, right to obtain that commodity at a future date. Should this come to fruition, he will become the outright owner and controller of the pigs, which is forbidden. In this way it is worse than stocks, where one only has financial rights and not control over the company’s individual assets (a stockholder of McDonalds cannot demand 1,000 Big Macs for his shares). On the other hand, in the commodities futures markets, the average trader has no interest in obtaining the commodity but plans to sell it (hopefully at a profit) while it is still ‘on paper’ to another buyer. Based on standard halachic rules, a futures transaction is often a davar shelo ba la’olam (something which is not presently fit to be transferred from the seller to the buyer). The pigs that an eventual buyer will get on the expiration date are usually not born at the time of most of the transactions. Although the sale takes effect based on situmta (societal consensus), the contract is not viewed legally as the sale of pigs but a commitment to provide the pigs at the specified time of delivery. Ostensibly this resembles the Terumat Hadeshen’s (I, 200) case of a Jew who wanted to lend money to a non-Jew, using pigs as a guarantee for the loan. He suggests that this might be permitted because a Jew does not acquire ownership over collateral he receives from a non-Jew. Similarly here, a process through which he can receive pigs has commenced, but it is not clear this will happen. The Rama (YD 117:1, apparently as a chumra) says that one may not lend with forbidden food as a guarantee, which might imply that our futures sales are prohibited. However, there the problem is (see Chatam Sofer, ibid.) that the lender demanded collateral because he foresaw a situation where he would collect, with the claim that it is permitted to protect himself from loss (Rama, ibid). However, here an average trader foresees no scenario in which he will ever become the owner of the pigs. This case is not similar to that which the Torah forbade – owning and/or controlling non-kosher food sources with commercial intent. Rather, the trader is involved in a form of speculative trade on paper of mainly theoretical rights to future commodities. Therefore, from the perspective of commerce with forbidden food, it is permitted (see Pitchei Teshuva, YD 117:6). The Basis for a Meal of Thanksgiving After Recovery from IllnessPlease explain the sources in the Torah and halacha for the custom to make a seudat hodaya (meal of thanksgiving) following recovery from a serious illness or surgery.One of the korbanot the Torah describes is a Korban Todah (sacrifice of thanksgiving) (Vayikra Eating is a major element of the Korban Todah. This korban included 40 loaves of meal-offering, 36 of which were to be eaten. The Abarbanel and the Netziv (both on Vayikra 7) famously explain that the Torah required a lot of eating in a short amount of time to encourage the thankful person to bring together many people where he would hopefully give proper public thanks to Hashem. What do we do without a Beit Hamikdash to bring a Korban Todah? The Rosh (Berachot 9:3) and the Tur (OC 219) say that Birkat Hagomel was instituted in place of the Korban Todah. While the simple reading is that Hagomel is an obligatory beracha, the Magen Avraham (beginning of 219; Pri Megadim, ad loc. disagrees) suggests that it might be optional. In any case, it provides a defined opportunity to thank Hashem publicly (it must be recited before a minyan, preferably including two distinguished people- Shulchan Aruch, OC 219:3). Whether or not the Korban Todah or Birkat Hagomel is obligatory, a seudat hodaya for being saved from dangerous illness is certainly not obligatory. This may explain its absence from explicit discussion in most classical works (including the Shulchan Aruch). However, significant sources provide precedent and support for the idea of doing something more than saying Hagomel, including a seuda. The Mishna Berura (218:32, in the name of “Acharonim”) says that one who was saved from possible death (apparently even if the salvation was natural) should do the following. He should set aside money for tzedaka and say that he wants it to be considered as if he spent the money on a Korban Todah, donate things that help the public, and on every anniversary find a special setting to thank Hashem, be happy, and tell His praises. Certainly, a seudat hodaya is an appropriate setting for it, but it is not part of a set formula. The gemara (Berachot 46a) tells that when Rabbi Zeira was sick, Rabbi Avahu promised that if he recovered, Rabbi Avahu would make a festive meal for the rabbis, which, baruch Hashem, occurred. Some say that not just the meal but the promise to make it is significant, as the promise of such an event if the sick person recovers is a segula (good omen) for the recovery (see Gilyonei Ephrayim, ad loc.). This would evidently only work if the seuda of that nature is desirable. The Chavot Yair (70; see also Pri Megadim, Mishbetzot Zahav 444:9) in discussing different meals that are a seudat mitzva, mentions the seuda after being saved from danger. While some seudot mitzva are obligatory, many are not but are positive ways to give prominence to noteworthy events. We will end off on a hashkafic note. Rav S.Z. Auerbach explained (see Mizmor L’todah (Travis) p. 185) that by eating in the context of thanksgiving to Hashem one expresses the following idea. A person should know and show that the goal of life and the physical world that he is enjoying after his recovery is to serve as a medium through which to further his spiritual life and give thanks to Hashem. Using the Same Grill for Meat and FishCan you grill fish on the same grill that you use for chicken and meat?The prohibition against eating fish and meat (including fowl - Pitchei Teshuva, Yoreh Deah 116:2) that are intermingled is based on a fear of danger and is governed by the rule that danger is harsher than ritual prohibitions (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 173:2). The gemara (Pesachim 76b) writes that fish which is roasted with meat is forbidden to eat because it is bad for one’s breath and for tzara’at (roughly, leprosy). This also applies to eating together fish and meat that were prepared separately (Shulchan Aruch, Yoreh Deah 116:2). The Shulchan Aruch require cleaning one’s hands and mouth between the two (ibid., 3), whereas the Rama (ad loc.) rules that it suffices to just eat and drink something between the fish and meat. Since the aforementioned opinion in the gemara assumes there is a significant transfer of matter from one food to another when roasted together, an opinion we don’t normally subscribe to, some authorities say that the problem exists only when the meat and fish are cooked together (Taz, Yoreh Deah 116:2). There is also a question if gravy of one fell on another, and there is less than 1/60th of one of them, whether one can employ the halachic rule of bitul b’shishim. The gemara (Chulin 111b) discusses whether fish that is placed hot on a meat plate can be eaten with milk. It seems to imply that it is not a problem to eat the fish cooked in a fleishig pot by itself. While some argue (see Taz, Yoreh Deah 95:3), the minhag is to allow cooking fish in a meat pot, whether for Ashkenazim (Badei Hashulchan 95:8) or Sephardim (Yalkut Yosef, Issur V’heter III, 87:85). It would seem that one can be lenient in these and other related questions, as several major poskim point out that this danger is no longer prevalent (see Magen Avraham 173:1; Pitchei Teshuva, YD 116:3, in the name of Chatam Sofer; Aruch Hashulchan, YD 116:10). It is perhaps for that reason that the Rambam doesn’t bring this halacha. While we will not permit that which Chazal forbade, this does justify a tendency toward leniency (Chatam Sofer, ibid.). Others explain the Rambam’s omission based on the possibility that the gemara was talking about a specific type of fish, which is no longer prevalent (see Pitchei Teshuva, ibid.). How does use of a grill for both meat and fish fit into the picture? Most people do not clean a grill as they do other food-preparation utensils, mainly because of the difficulty in doing so thoroughly. If so, the residue of the fish or meat will combine with the new food being grilled and make it forbidden (see Taz, ibid.). Even if the grill has not been used for more than 24 hours, the impact of time passed helps only for that which has been absorbed into the walls of the utensil. If we were sure that the residue is less than 1/60th of the food being grilled, we could be lenient, as above, but that it is not always the case. Indeed, we saw instructions on the Star-K website (focused on meat and milk) that indicate that one should double wrap fish that he wants to grill on a meat grill. It seems, though, that this is more stringent than is necessary. First, since one is allowed to use a clean fleishig utensil for fish, a single separation (if done carefully) should be enough. Second, we would suggest the following system, if one prefers it to wrapping. Clean the grill reasonably well between meat and fish. In that way, what will remain will probably be burnt residue. As “charcoaled” remains are not halachically considered food in regard to a variety of halachot, it does not seem that we would have to assume that it is still considered meat or fish, respectively, in regard to our issue. In case a small amount of edible residue “survived” the previous grilling and the cleaning, we can assume it is batel b’shishim in the food. (One is not allowed to set up such a situation regarding non-kosher residue.) The Transition from Shabbat into Tisha B’AvCould you please explain how to handle the transition from Shabbat into Tisha B’Av (which falls on Motza’ei Shabbat) regarding Seuda Shlishit, Havdalah and changing clothes?Seuda Shlishit: The baraita (cited in Ta’anit 29a) says that one may eat as extravagant a meal as he wants on Shabbat even when Tisha B’Av falls on Motza’-ei Shabbat. The Tur (Orach Chayim 552) brings minhagim that one is allowed and would do best to curtail the Shabbat meal. This is especially so at Seuda Shlishit, which is, in effect, the Seuda Hamafseket (the last meal before Tisha B’Av, which usually has special elements of mourning). However, these considerations are countered by the need to avoid displaying mourning on Shabbat. Therefore, there are no real restrictions, even at Seuda Shlishit (Shulchan Aruch 552:10). However, the mood should somewhat reflect the coming of Tisha B’Av, as long as it does not bring on clearly noticeable changes (Mishna Berura 552:23). One important halachic requirement is that one must finish eating before sunset (Rama, ad loc.). Havdalah: One says Havdala in tefilla or separately in the declaration of “Baruch Hamavdil…,” which enables him to do actions that are forbidden on Shabbat. Havdala over a cup of wine is done after Tisha B’Av (Shulchan Aruch, OC 556:1). If one forgot to mention Havdala in Shemoneh Esrei, he does not repeat Shemoneh Esrei even though he is not making Havdala over wine until the next day. Rather, he makes the declaration of Baruch Hamavdil (Mishna Berura 556:2). Unlike Havdala during the Nine Days, where we try to give the wine to a child (Rama 551:10), after Tisha B’Av an adult can freely drink the Havdala wine (Mishna Berura 556:3). The beracha on besamim (spices) is not said this week. On Tisha B’Av it is not appropriate, because it is a reviving pleasure, and one can only make this beracha only on Motza’ei Shabbat. The beracha on the fire is specific to Motza’ei Shabbat, is not a pleasure, and does not require a cup. Therefore, the minhag is to recite the beracha on fire in shul after davening, before the reading of Eicha (Mishna Berurah 556:1). There are those who say that a woman should, in general, avoid making Havdala. This is because of the doubt whether a woman is obligated in the beracha on the fire, which is not directly related to Shabbat and thus is a regular time-related mitzva, from which women are exempt (Biur Halacha 296:8). Therefore, it is better for one whose wife will not be in shul at the time of the beracha to have in mind not to fulfill the mitzva at that time, but to make the beracha on the fire together with his wife (Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 62:(98)). Taking off shoes: As mentioned, one may not do a noticeable act of mourning before Shabbat is over. While finishing to eat before sunset or refraining from washing need not be noticeable, taking off shoes is. There are two minhagim as to when to take them off: 1) One waits until after Shabbat is out, says “Hamavdil,” and then changes clothes and goes to shul. One can do so a little earlier than the regular time listed for Shabbat being out, which is usually delayed a little bit beyond nightfall to allow for a significant adding on to Shabbat at its end. The exact time is not clear and depends on the latitude of one’s location. It is advisable to start Ma’ariv a little late in order to allow people to do so and make it to shul (ibid.:40; Torat Hamoadim 9:1), unless the rabbi has ruled that everyone should take the following approach. 2) One takes off his shoes after Barchu of Ma’ariv. One who takes the second approach should bring non-leather footwear and Eicha/Kinot to shul before Shabbat to avoid the problem of hachana (preparations for after Shabbat). However, if one uses these seforim somewhat in shul before Shabbat is out, he can bring them with him on Shabbat (Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata ibid.:41). Travelling Before DaveningThere is no local minyan where I can daven and still get to work on time. Can I travel to the area of my job to daven there with a minyan, considering that the Shulchan Aruch (Orach Chayim 89:3) says that one is not allowed to travel before davening? Could it be that it is better to daven without a minyan before traveling?There are a few things that one is to avoid before davening. The main ones are eating, drinking, doing work, traveling (ibid.), and greeting people (ibid. 2). Each one has its rules and exceptions, either because of need (e.g., someone is weak) or because a certain activity is not a significant activity (e.g., drinking water). It seems, though, that regarding traveling, the rule is intrinsically more limited. If we understood the prohibition too broadly, the halachot would end up being inconsistent, as we shall explain. How bad is to travel before davening? If one has two shuls in town, there is a preference to go to the one that is farther away so that he can get reward for the extra traveling (Mishna Berura 90:37). Furthermore, consider the following. If one has a shul within eighteen minutes from his house, he is expected to go there to daven with a minyan, but he is not required to do so if it is farther away than that (Shulchan Aruch, OC 90:16). We have never heard that, if the shul is more than eighteen minutes away, it is required or even preferable to daven at home because of the prohibition to travel before davening. So it would seem that your traveling to shul, even if in a different town or part of town, is permitted. One might claim that there is a distinction: it is fine to travel if the point of the traveling is to go to shul, but if the traveling is intended to get to the place one wants to go, just that there is also a shul there, then it is a problem. If so, we would have to consider how to categorize our case. On one hand, you need to travel to the area irrespective of davening. On the other hand, the reason that you would travel at that time is in order to get a minyan. One can ostensibly prove that in this complex scenario, the traveling is not a problem. We mentioned that one only has to travel eighteen minutes to be able to daven with a minyan. However, if the minyan is located along a path one is traveling anyway, then he has to travel up to 72 minutes for the minyan (ibid.). So we see that an hour-plus of traveling before davening is preferable to davening first without a minyan, even though one is traveling along a route that is necessary for his personal, non-davening purposes. According to Ohr L’tziyon (II:7:6) one might be able to deflect the proof, as he says that the problem of traveling is only for trips of more than 72 minutes. However, assuming your commute is less than that, he would permit and likely require you to travel to the minyan in any case. Therefore, our analysis indicates that traveling to another area before Shacharit so that one will be able to join a minyan is permitted and proper even if that is not the only reason he is traveling. This is also the practice of many. The only authoritative source we found on a similar case is the Shevet Halevi (VIII:19). He discusses a case where one can daven with a minyan near his home, but he is concerned that if he travels later, he will have significantly more traffic. In that case, he recommends first reciting Birchot Hashachar before traveling, as the Rama (OC 89:3) brings an opinion that the prohibition on travel does not apply after doing so. Although the Rama says that it is “good to act stringently in the matter,” the Shevet Halevi reasons that one can be lenient in a case of need. In our case, the ability to daven with a minyan would certainly be a valid need. While we argued that in our case (where there is no option of a minyan before traveling), one should be able to be lenient on fundamental grounds, it does not hurt to recite Birchot Hashachar before going, and, therefore, there is a slight preference to do so. Eating on Erev Yom KippurI understand that there is a mitzva to eat on Erev (the day before) Yom Kippur. Considering that I certainly was not planning on fasting two days straight, what practical ramifications are there of this mitzva?The gemara (Berachot 8b) refers to a mitzva to eat on Erev Yom Kippur, which is either mandated by the Torah or by a rabbinic requirement with a hint in the Torah. It says that one who fulfilled it is like one who fasted for the two days. The Shulchan Aruch (Orach Chayim 604:1) and many others discuss eating more than usual. One indication of the significance of additional eating is that poskim (Magen Avraham ad loc., Mishna Berura ad loc. 1) derive from the gemara that one should learn less Torah than usual on Erev Yom Kippur in order to leave time for it. Regarding the details, we must distinguish between the minimum and the preferred. Even if one eats only at the seuda hamafseket (the meal directly preceding the fast), he has minimally fulfilled the mitzva, and this is what is suggested for one who wants to fast due to a very ominous dream (Magen Avraham 604:1). However, it is expected that one do much more eating than that. Let us first look at the main reasons suggested for this halacha, as this will help us find the most appropriate practical approach. The Rosh (Yoma 8:22) and Tur (OC 604) say that we are to eat in order to be able to fast without undue difficulties. Rabbeinu Yona (Shaarei Teshuva 4:9) and the Ritva (Rosh Hashana 9a) mention a different reason: it is appropriate to eat because the proximity to Yom Kippur, the wonderful day of atonement, gives the day a semi-Yom Tov status. Other reasons are given, including kabbalistic ones. We will present some cases that might depend on which reason is correct and the accepted ruling regarding each one. If the mitzva is to facilitate a good fast, then it should not apply the night before, which is too removed from the fast to make a significant difference. If it is because of a Yom Tov status, it might apply at night as well. The more accepted opinion is that there is no obligation the night before, but that it might be positive to do so (see a ramification in Mishna Berura 604:2). At first glance, women should be exempt from the mitzva because it is a time-based positive mitzva. However, there is logic to apply the mitzva to women either due to the style of the derivation from the pasuk or because of the logic that anyone who is going to fast needs to eat properly beforehand. The standard assumption is that women are obligated (see Yechaveh Da’at I:58). Another possible consequence is whether one should eat food that one has a reason to believe will cause him to fast well or whether he should eat food that is festive or otherwise appropriate for a Yom Tov (such as meat and bread). The Minchat Chinuch (#313) assumes that there is no need for any specific type of foods, just that one eats. However, there are strong indications that the minhag was and is to eat meat (see Magen Avrahama 604:1) and have a formal type of meal, one in which there is a feeling of Yom Tov or at least imminent Yom Tov. There seems to be an emphasis on the quality of the food, along with concern that the food make sense for people who are about to fast (it is hard to know if the latter is on practical or religious grounds). In most of our circles, the only eating that is done as ritual is the seuda hamafseket. Otherwise, it is positive to eat more than usual, but in a format that is convenient. There are significant numbers of people and communities who have a morning or early afternoon meal, which is similar in scope to the seuda hamafseket. It is hard to make a claim that this is an obligation or something that one should try to impose upon the mother of the house or others who find it difficult. The impetus for this practice seems to be along the kabbalistic approach and is not obligatory, unless one is part of a community in which this is a clear minhag. Does One Require Intention for the Mitzva to Live in Israel?Does one fulfill the mitzva of yishuv Eretz Yisrael (= yEY), the mitzva to inhabit the Land of Israel) if he does so without kavana (intention)?The gemara discusses the question whether mitzvot tzrichot kavana (= mtzk – a mitzva is valid only if performed with intention to fulfill a mitzva), including in the context of reading Kri’at Shema and blowing shofar without specific intent to perform the mitzva. The Shulchan Aruch (Orach Chayim 60:4) rules that kavana is required, and there is significant discussion about whether this is true even regarding mitzvot which are only rabbinically mandated (see Mishna Berura 60:10). Thus, one could claim that whether or not one fulfills yEY without kavana depends on whether the mitzva is from the Torah (Ramban) or is rabbinic (simple understanding of the Rambam (see Amud Hayemini 22). However, there are several opinions that the question of mtzk does not apply to all mitzvot. The Ran (7b of A similar distinction is found in Kovetz Shiurim (II:23). He says that one fulfills mitzvot that that are conceptually result-oriented even without the intention; the important thing is that the result was reached. Examples he gives include repaying debts and pru u’revu (procreation). YEY is tricky, in that one does not reach a result, where he can say the mitzva is over. However, the mitzva is apparently to be in the state of living in the Land (the parameters are beyond our present scope). Thus it is a mitzva of an ongoing state/resultand according to this approach, too, YEY would not require kavana. Rav Asher Weiss (heard orally) explains this distinction as follows. Mtzk is an issue only for mitzvot that are significant only when done as service of Hashem, which requires intention. The result of having children is significant even without being performed as service of Hashem, and presumably so does yEY. Despite the above, to a great extent, the question is moot. There are two elements to fulfilling a mitzva: 1. technical fulfillment, whose greatest ramification is that it exempts one from repeating the mitzva. 2. The reward one receives for fulfillment. The various halachic discussions focus on the first element – the operative one. What happens with reward? A few things are clear. First, Hashem will not give the same reward to one who accidentally performed a mitzva or solely for self-interest as to one who did it for the right reasons (see Nazir 23a). The Imrei Binah (Orach Chayim 4) cites the Chochmat Adam’s author’s formulation. Even if and when one is credited with fulfillment of a specific mitzva without kavana, he fails to perform the general mitzva of “to serve Him with all your heart” (Devarim 11:13). There is no way for human beings to determine Hashem’s reward accounting in every case. Remember, in this regard that there are different reasons for not having kavana, including the following: lack of belief in Hashem; a Satmar ideology; not thinking about the mitzva, etc. These possibilities and many other variables impact on a person’s virtue and thus on his reward for the mitzva. Regarding the element of fulfillment exempting from repeating the mitzva, the question is moot. One never completes the mitzva of yEY. Thus, whether or not he fulfilled the mitzva in the past, the mitzva continues, and it is certainly better to do it now with kavana. Kiddush and “Hamotzi” for Those in Need of Gluten-Free DietsBecause some family members are gluten-intolerant, we started baking two kinds of cakes, etc. that look and taste almost identical. Are the “Shehakol” pastries acceptable for the “Mezonot” foods that usually follow Kiddush?According to the consensus of poskim and many (not all, and it may depend on the type of sensitivity) health experts, oats can be used as a wheat substitute for gluten-sensitive people, and the halachot are identical to those regarding the other major grains. While you look into the health feasibility, this answer is written for one who cannot eat anything that is Mezonot. The gemara (Pesachim 101a) says that Kiddush must be done in the place where “a meal” will follow. On the other hand, it refers to “tasting” after Kiddush, implying that a full meal is unnecessary. While some say that this taste must include bread, the Shulchan Aruch (Orach Chayim 273:5) rules like the Geonim that wine can also be used. While there are opinions in either direction, the consensus is that a revi’it (approximately 3 fl. oz.) is needed and sufficient (see Mishna Berura 273:22, 27). The Magen Avraham (273:11) reasons that if the Geonim can accept wine in this context, then it is true of anything made from the grains, which is more meal-like than wine (see Shulchan Aruch, OC 291:5 regarding the laws of seuda shlishit). This is the source of the common practice of having cake for the post-Kiddush “meal.” Along these lines, the Pri Megadim (Eshel Avraham 273:11) permits dates for this purpose, based on the halacha that if one mistakenly made Birkat Hamazon on dates, it is valid after the fact, because dates are particularly filling (Shulchan Aruch, OC 208:17). The Tosefet Shabbat argues, and most Acharonim say that one should not normally rely on dates for eating after Kiddush (see Kaf Hachayim, OC 273:42; Yabia Omer VII, OC 63). While according to the spirit of the law, there may seem to be little difference between the Shehakol and Mezonot pastries, the former do not fit the halachic parameters for the eating after Kiddush. As we have seen, there are other alternatives. For cases where there are not viable alternatives, we mention two fringe leniencies. There is an opinion that in a case of need, any food can be used (Chayei Adam 6:22). There is also an opinion that Kiddush works for all assembled if one person eats the requisite amount (see B’tzel Hachochma IV:2). If one must rely on one of those opinions, it is proper for him to eat something that fulfills the spirit of the law. We will now discuss a related context where the spirit of the law is important (and might fit the letter of the law also) – the full meal. One needs to have two loaves of bread/challa, eat a k’zayit, and recite Birkat Hamazon at the end of the meal, and these require halachic grain. It would be regrettable for a gluten-sensitive person to consider himself as incapable of fulfilling the mitzva of seuda, prompting some to do whatever they feel like. It is proper (we cannot create an outright obligation) to have two nice loaves of bread, of whatever flour one can use. There actually is halachic precedent of bread that is not subject to Hamotzi and Birkat Hamazon. The halacha is that an eiruv chatzeirot must consist of bread, but the bread can be from rice or lentils (Shulchan Aruch, OC 366:8), because that is considered legitimate bread (Mishna Berura ad loc. 47). Notice also that the concept of loaves of bread is learned from the manna in the desert, and that was not made from normal grain. What is important is that this was their bread (see overlapping idea in Minchat Yitzchak III:113). For the gluten-intolerant, these are their breads. While we would not suggest such an approach if one has the opportunity to follow the regular rules (including using oat challa), one who is in such a situation should view his meal as a seudat Shabbat. It is also worthwhile to drink enough wine, or eat dates or another relevant food, to enable the recitation of a long Beracha Acharona, which contains the basics of Birkat Hamazon and mentions Shabbat. Festive Meals on ChanukaIs one supposed to celebrate Chanuka with festive eating? How and why is it different from Purim?There is no set obligation to have a meal in honor of Chanuka (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 670:2) as there is on Purim (ibid. 695:1). First we will discuss why there is a difference. The broadly accepted general distinction between the holidays in this regard has to do with the type of danger involved. In the Purim story, there was danger of physical annihilation. In contrast, in the Chanuka story, the Jews’ ability to keep the Torah was attacked, but had they given in, there would not have been a physical danger. According to the Taz’s (670:3) understanding of the Levush (670:2), the Chanuka salvation was, therefore, less important and did not warrant as much festivity. The Taz disagrees based on the idea that one who causes someone to sin is worse than one who kills him. The Taz himself says that physical salvation, in this world, is most appropriately celebrated with physical celebration, whereas spiritual salvation is to be celebrated in a spiritual manner (lights). This idea seems inconsistent with other sources. For example, on Shavuot, a festive meal is required because it is the day the Torah was given (Pesachim 68b). Also, the Taz himself (along with the Rama and others) says that the reason for some festivity on Chanuka is that it was the time of the dedication of the mizbe’ach (altar), which was spiritual. (It is unclear whether the celebration relates to the mizbe’ach in the Mishkan in the desert or the one retaken and purified at the time of the Hasmoneans- see Darchei Moshe, OC 670:1; Pri Megadim, Eshel Avraham 670:2).) Perhaps he means that the preservation of life deserves physical celebration, but for spiritual matters, it is only if there is something new, as occurred on Shavuot and with the mizbe’ach. Mishnat Yaavetz (Orach Chayim 79) adds halachic reasoning, pointing out that if Chazal would have created a full obligation of a meal, there could have been problems of bal tosif (the prohibition of adding on to the mitzvot of the Torah). The Rambam refers to Chanuka as “days of simcha (joy) and hallel (songs of praise),” a term that usually relates to festive eating. At the very least, this includes a prohibition on fasting during Chanuka (Shabbat 21b). The Shulchan Aruch (ibid.), who says that there is no obligation to have festive meals, implies that there is, nonetheless, a practice to have them, but that they are reshut (voluntary). The Rama (OC 670:2) cites an opinion that there is a slight mitzva to have special meals for Chanuka, with the reason relating, as above, to the mizbe’ach. The Rama adds that the practice is to sing and praise Hashem at special meals made in honor of Chanuka, and then the meal is a seudat mitzva. There are two points of possible significance to a seudat mitzva. One is the mitzva to have the meal. The other is the meal’s religious significance when one has it. For example, on Yom Tov or after a brit mila (according to the minhag- see Shulchan Aruch, Yoreh Deah 265:12), one is required to have a festive meal. In contrast, if one completes a unit of learning that warrants a siyum, he is not obligated to make a celebration. However, if he does, it has a special status, which, for example, allows one to eat meat during the Nine Days. On Chanuka, one does not have an obligation to have a seuda, just not to fast. If he does have a special seuda, it is quite clear that he has fulfilled a mitzva by so doing (see Torat Hamoadim (D. Yosef) 9:(10)) if there is some sort of praising of Hashem. The reason for this condition is as follows. If one does not praise Hashem, what makes it a Chanuka party (would it be heretical to say that latkes and dreidel playing do not qualify)? Since, as the Rambam writes, these are days of simcha and hallel, a simcha that is not accompanied by some sort of hallel lacks significance. The Celebration of a Girl’s BirthWhat are the sources and purpose of making a kiddush for the birth of a girl?I imagine you are referring primarily to the colloquial usage of Kiddush – a celebration involving food and hopefully divrei Torah – a borrowed term from the eating after the tefilla of Shabbat morning , which starts with Kiddush. We will see there may also be some significance to that setting. It is generally a mitzva to thank Hashem for joyous and/or miraculous events that occur to us. One of the applications of this concept is Birkat Hagomel, which we make after being saved from danger. (See specific rules in Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 219). While a meal is not required, sources indicate that it is a nice idea (see Berachot 46a), which parallels the Korban Todah in the time of the Beit Hamikdash. It is unclear if there is an expectation that there be a celebratory meal for the birth of a child. When a boy is born, there is a seuda at the time of the brit and the pidyon haben (where applicable), but those are related to specific mitzvot, not the birth per se. The gemara (Bava Kama 80a) mentions two celebrations after the birth of a boy, shevua haben and yeshua haben, and there are different opinions as to whether one of them is what we call a shalom zachar. There are also different opinions as to the nature of a shalom zachar. In brief, there are three basic approaches: it is a celebration of the safe extrication of the child from his mother’s womb to birth; we console the baby for loss of the Torah learned during gestation; it is related to the upcoming brit. The Dagul Meirevava (Yoreh Deah 178) says that it must be related to the brit mila because if it were related to birth, we would have it for the birth of girls. He, therefore, says it should be done the night before the brit. This is indeed what Sephardim do (Brit Yitzchak) and many Ashkenazim do special things on that night (in Yiddish, vach nacht). If so, there may not be a clear source for a birth celebration. There is an ancient Sephardi minhag of a zeved habat, which some have on the sixth night from the birth of a girl (Rav Pe’alim, Even Haezer I:12). For Ashkenazim, there is no set time or formula for the celebration of a girl’s birth, and the consensus is that one is not obligated to have one. In some circles, people try to have one on the day of her naming (an event to which some attribute tremendous meaning – see Ta’amei Haminhagim 929). In turn some do the naming specifically on Shabbat, when many people will be present. (The presence of many people is generally desirable for meals of thanksgiving). Combining these elements, there may be special significance of having a celebration after Shabbat morning tefilla. There is also a baraita (Avel Rabbati of Massechet Semachot 2:3), which refers to a shevua habat (of a girl) in the context of shevua haben (see above). Perhaps that too has to do with Shabbat (based on one meaning of shevua). The simple approach, though, is that while there is no specific obligation, timing, or setting, it is just good old logic to thank Hashem for such a monumentally joyous occasion (see Teshvot V’hanhagot I:609). There is also a classical source. The gemara (Bava Batra 91) talks about Boaz making 120 celebrations in honor of his sixty boys and girls, and Rabbeinu Gershom (ad loc.) says that 30 of those were after the births of 30 girls. Some also stress the importance of the berachot people make for baby and parents at the celebration (see ibid. II:132), and there are differing “legends” as to how important this is. In summary, there is abundant general basis for a “kiddush” in honor of the birth of a girl and some sources for an established practice on the matter. It is our opinion that it should not become a necessary burden on the head of new parents, to be done at a specific time. It certainly should not have to include a high level of expense or toil, which may cause them difficulty at an often stressful time. Hopefully, the parents will find a good time to share their joy. Eating before lighting Chanukah CandlesIs it assur to eat before lighting Chanukah candles? What if you are at an event where chanukah candles are lit by others but you are returning home later and will be lighting for your self when you get home? Must one make an official reminder or is knowing in your mind that you are lighting later sufficiant ( or needed). Is the answer different if you are out at an event where candles are not going to be lit.One should not eat a meal before lighting Channuka candles (Mishan Berurah 672, 10). However, if one makes a reminder to light later, he may eat a meal (Mishna Berurah 235, 18). Heating Up Microwaved Rice on ShabbatI cook rice in the microwave. On Shabbat, I want to heat it up on the hotplate. Besides the regular questions of reheating, is there a problem because the first cooking was irregular?We will begin by looking at a precedent regarding non-standard cooking. The gemara (Shabbat 39a) says that it is permitted to “cook” a food in the sun on Shabbat. The prohibition of cooking is when something is cooked by heat that emanates from some sort of fire (Shabbat ibid.). Rashi (Shabbat 39a) says that the leniency is because it is not normal to cook in the sun. The Igrot Moshe (Orach Chayim III:52) says that because of the abnormality, we cannot extend the prohibition from the cases of cooking in the Mishkan, which are the model for what is forbidden. Others disagree, based on another gemara (Pesachim 41a), which says that just as there is no Torah level violation of Shabbat to cook meat not through fire or its by-product (e.g., hot springs) so there is no prohibition of eating Korban Pesach meat that was so cooked. Since it is the result, not the process that is important regarding Korban Pesach, the Avnei Nezer (OC 163) and Minchat Shlomo (I, p. 105) say that Chazal must have posited that the unusual process produces a result that is different from standard cooked food. The Pri Megadim (OC, Mishbetzot Zahav 318:6) briefly discusses whether it is permitted to put something that has been cooked in the sun through a conventional cooking process on Shabbat. His context is the machloket of the Rishonim on whether it is forbidden to cook (in liquid) on Shabbat something that was baked (dry) before or vice versa. We rule stringently but not conclusively (see Shulchan Aruch, OC 318:5; Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 1:(180)). The Pri Megadim’s case has elements of both stringency and leniency in comparison. On one hand, there the food already underwent a halachic cooking, whereas here it has not. On the other hand, cooking something baked and vice versa makes a discernable change, which might not be the case when repeating basically the same process in a “halachic manner.” The Pri Megadim’s leaning is that there is certainly not a Torah violation and it is likely permitted, apparently based on the idea that the cooking process is (fully) forbidden only when it changes and/or improves the food (see Rambam, Shabbat 9:3). If we equate microwave cooking to cooking in the sun, your question is equivalent to the Pri Megadim’s. However, that equation deserves evaluation. With the advent of microwaves, the question arose whether it is as a new-fangled but essentially standard form of cooking or whether it is a new application of Chazal’s non-halachic fireless cooking. (Problems of the use of electricity basically preclude the use of a microwave on Shabbat in any case.) The Igrot Moshe (ibid.) claims that since microwave cooking is now a normal form of cooking, it is derivable from the Mishkan. While the context of his ruling was to be stringent (not to cook), which is easier to do than to rule leniently (see Rashi, Beitza 2b), he probably considers microwaving to be cooking regarding the halacha that there is no problem of cooking thereafter. In fact, all might agree that the results of microwaving are more similar to regular cooking than cooking in the sun is and permit reheating such food with a standard heat source. Some people like rice crispy, and the relatively high heat of many of today’s hotplates can accomplish that. Doing so is a problem even for normally cooked rice, as this is a significant act of baking after cooking (see Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 1:60). If one makes sure it will not become crispy, that should suffice for our case as well. If one wants to be stringent (see uncertainty in Tzitz Eliezer X:62; Yalkut Yosef 318:(19)), he can bake the rice in a regular oven after taking it out of the microwave, to make sure it is halachically cooked before Shabbat (see Be’ur Halacha to 318:5). Five minutes, a nominal cooking process, should suffice. If one likes the rice crispy, this should be done on Friday (see Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 1:71). Does One Starting Shemoneh Esrei With the Chazan Count for the MinyanI arrived at a small minyan for Mincha as the chazan was waiting for one more person needed to start chazarat hashatz. The question arose whether I could be counted if I started along with the chazan, considering I was doing my own davening and not answering Amen.If eight people plus the chazan had finished Shemoneh Esrei, they could have started without you. The main source for that assertion is the Shulchan Aruch (Orach Chayim 55:6, in the context of Kaddish), who says that someone who is sleeping or is in the midst of Shmoneh Esrei and cannot answer can count as one of the ten people needed for a minyan. This comes from the Hagahot Maimoniot (Tefilla 8:9), who is based on opinions in the gemara that are lenient regarding the qualifications of the tenth person for a minyan. There is not unanimity on two related points. Some Acharonim (see Eliya Rabba 55:7, Aruch Hashulchan, OC 55:13) say that while we can count only one sleeping person, we can use more people who are reciting Shemoneh Esrei, as they are involved in sanctifying Hashem and can stop their tefilla to at least listen. Only six people (including the chazan) have to be actively involved in the Kaddish. The Mishna Berura (55:32) is inconclusive on the matter. Another matter is that the Shulchan Aruch Harav (OC 55:7) says that for chazarat hashatz we require nine people to actually answer and cannot even use one who is sleeping or davening. In Living the Halachic Process, vol. I, A-10, we took the middle approach – we can use one person in Shemoneh Esrei toward the minyan for chazarat hashatz (see Tzitz Eliezer XII:9). Does someone who is starting with the chazan count as one who is involved in chazarat hashatz or is he like anyone else who is in the midst of Shemoneh Esrei? It is brought in the name of Rav S.Z. Auerbach Halichot Shlomo (Tefilla 9:2) and Rav Ovadia Yosef (Yalkut Yosef, Tefilla 10) that one who is reading along word for word with the chazan counts fully toward the minyan, as doing so is no worse than listening and answering Amen. Assuming others will finish Shemoneh Esrei by Kedusha, you would no longer need the daveners to be reading along word by word. There is a classical source that one who is reading along counts like one who is answering Amen. One is not supposed to start Shemoneh Esrei if he will not be able to answer Kedusha and Amen to a few critical berachot (see Shulchan Aruch, OC 109:1). However, he may recite these passages along with the chazan (ibid. 2). This is because reciting the beracha along with the chazan is like saying Amen (Beit Yosef, ad loc.). Following this logic, it would seem that you could use more than one such person toward the minyan. Could you say that all can be davening for the first time along with the chazan? We do have a similar practice in heiche kedusha (see Rama, OC 124:2), but that is conceptually different. In heiche kedusha there is actually no chazarat hashatz, as the chazan himself is not repeating Shemoneh Esrei but saying it for the first time. Here, we probably need a majority of a minyan to make chazarat hashatz meaningful, and the people who are reading along make it considered that a full minyan are related to do it. It is not crucial to have nine people answering Amen. While the Rosh (Shut 4:19), who is the main source that nine people have to be listening, says that all should answer Amen, in regard to b’dieved he is bothered only if others are not following along. In general, saying Amen is an important mitzva but is not required to be credited with the beracha (see Shulchan Aruch, OC 213:2). (In the context of heiche kedusha, the Rama says that there should be at least one answering.) Using a Hand Masher for Cooked VegetablesIs it permissible to use a hand vegetable masher on Shabbat? Last Shabbat, I used one to mash potatoes that were well-boiled and very soft. The question arose whether this is permitted, so we did not use the potatoes on Shabbat. Were we allowed to eat the potatoes after Shabbos?The main issue involved in this question is the definition of tochein (grinding). While the classic case is grinding wheat into grain flour, the gemara (Shabbat 74b) states that it is forbidden even to cut up vegetables into fine pieces. In the past [Mishpatim 5772, regarding making guacamole], we cited different opinions as to whether the Rashba’s leniency (Shut IV:75) that one may do the above soon before eating applies only when he leaves the vegetables in “slightly big pieces.” We also cited Rav Moshe Feinstein’s opinion (Igrot Moshe, Orach Chayim IV:74) regarding mashing bananas that this is not grinding, as one does not create new fine particles, but just mashes the food into a softer form. On the other hand, the Chazon Ish (OC 57) rejected this distinction. Skipping other possible leniencies mentioned in that context that can be applied to the potatoes you discussed, let us get straight to the leniencies that applies to your potatoes, that did not apply to guacamole. The poskim (see Rama, OC 321:19) understood from the Rambam (Shabbat 21:13) that one may take a food that was already made soft by cooking and complete the process of mashing it. The Chazon Ish (OC 58:9) explains that the softness created by the cooking causes the additional mashing to be too trivial to be forbidden by the melacha of tochein. Contemporary poskim (Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 6:9; Orchot Shabbat 5:9) discuss your explicit case and say that it is permitted to mash soft, well-boiled potatoes on Shabbat for this reason. However, the bad news is that you violated a rule of this leniency. That is that even when tochein does not apply, it is forbidden to use a utensil that is set aside for the mincing or crushing of food items (Shulchan Aruch, OC 321:10). A hand-masher seems to fit that bill; you should have used a fork. This stringency applies even to a food to which tochein does not even apply, such as cheese (ibid.), and even if one did the mincing right before the use (Mishna Berura 321:36; Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 6:2). The reason for this prohibition is that using such a utensil is uvdin d’chol (a weekday-like activity) (see Mishna Berura ibid.). Beracha on Homeopathic MedicineI understand that one does not make a beracha on medicine. This raises a question for Orthodox users of homeopathic medicines (which are normally sweet). Should they listen to their homeopaths, who consider it medicine, and not make a beracha or listen to conventional doctors, who say it is not medicine, and make a beracha on it?There is disagreement on the topic of alternative medicine. Like in most topics, extreme opinions are rarely right. It is clear that some treatments under the umbrella of alternative medicine are helpful, and it is clear that some are quackery and serve as a placebo at best. There is also a significant category of medicines and treatments (homeopathic or conventional) whose efficacy is unclear or varies greatly from person to person. We are not in the position to take a stand on the important question as to which treatments fall into which category. These questions are relevant regarding cases where we want to do something which would otherwise be forbidden in order to heal the sick (see Orach Chayim 301, 328). However, your question does not depend on this matter. It is not that the status of medicine uproots the need for a beracha. Rather, berachot were instituted for the benefits of food (primarily, taste), not for medical benefits alone (see Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 204:8). If one receives both benefits, he must recite a beracha (ibid.). Therefore, if any medicine’s taste is good, a beracha would be required on it. If there is not a good taste, then even if there is no medicinal value either, there would be no beracha. (Indeed, there is no beracha on swallowing paper). However, there is still a question about the beracha for anything taken for medicinal purposes that has additives that give it a somewhat positive taste. The Sha’ar Hatziyun (204:37) says that medicinal food does not need to have a particularly good taste; the main thing is that it does not have a bad one. One might claim that the classic sources discuss cases where the therapeutic agent has a reasonable taste but that if the medicine tastes bad and sweetener improves it, the sweetener is the medicine’s less important part and should not count regarding berachot (see Berachot 36a). However, the rule that the beracha follows a food’s more important ingredient for berachot applies only when the important part has a beracha, but if the medicinal part has no beracha, we should make a beracha on the sweetener (Pitchei Halacha, Berachot pg. 246; Yalkut Yosef, Berachot, pg. 442). Yet, there still are cases where a beracha is doubtful. If one swallows a pill, it is not considered a manner of eating in regards to berachot even if it leaves a sweet taste on the tongue before swallowing (V’zot Haberacha pg. 311). Also, Rav S.Z. Auerbach is quoted by several as minimizing the cases in which a beracha is called for. Nishmat Avraham (IV, OC 204:8) quotes him as saying that if the sweetener is on the outside of a chewable pill and one enjoys the taste before getting to the medicinal part there is a beracha, but if the tastes are all mixed together, there should not be a beracha. This is based on the assumption that the mixture does not have a taste which would interest anyone as a food. V’zot Haberacha (pg. 312) cites Rav Auerbach from a different angle. If the active ingredient’s taste is neither bad nor particularly good, the minor taste enjoyment suffices for a beracha. However, for an external taste to turn a non-food into a food, the medicinal mixture must have an actually good taste overall. Not all agree with Rav Auerbach (see ibid.), and it is logical to say that as long as one appreciates the positive element, the fact that the negative element neutralizes it somewhat does not take away from the beracha. However, it is hard to require a beracha against Rav Auerbach’s opinion. There also will be borderline cases regarding how they are to be considered according to the different opinions. In a case of doubt, one should not make a beracha (one who wants, can eat something else first, having in mind to cover the medicine). Short Pants for Davening on ShabbatSomeone in shul told me last Shabbat that I should not wear shorts to shul. When I told him I learned it is permitted, he said that Shabbat is different. Why should Shabbat change the halacha?Halachot like these involving clothes tend to be subjective. However, one needs to start with the halachic philosophy and standard situations. We wrote (Eikev 5771) about wearing shorts, with a focus on a chazan, and we refer you there for additional sources. When one davens, he stands before Hashem and should be dressed respectably (Shabbat 10a; Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 91). The Shulchan Aruch (ibid. 4) says that this includes covering one’s legs, when this is how people dress before important people. The Mishna Berura (91:12) adds that one should wear a hat, explaining that this is the way people dress publicly. (In some circles, this is still true; in others, it does not apply at all). Even in surroundings where one should cover his legs, there are limits to the severity of the matter. One’s tefilla is invalid after the fact only if his private parts are uncovered (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 91:1) or there is no separation between his heart and private parts (Biur Halacha ad loc.). There is some question as to whether it is better to daven or to skip davening if he is not able to cover his chest (ibid.). Regarding other “improper attire,” including one who has only shorts, he may daven. However, the Shulchan Aruch (ibid. 5) writes that when it is possible, one must be properly dressed. Rav Ovadya Yosef (Yechaveh Da’at IV:8 – see also the dissenters he cites) says that in places (e.g., kibbutzim) and for people (children during the summer) where shorts are commonplace, it is permitted to daven in shorts (not as a chazan). We accept that approach, which leads to the challenge of determining whether short pants are commonplace enough in a give venue. Does Shabbat change anything? Actually, shorts on Shabbat, not just at the time of davening deserves a similar discussion to the above, as one is supposed to wear nice clothing on Shabbat (Shulchan Aruch, OC 262:2). This is not a matter of oneg (enjoyment) but of kavod (honoring Shabbat), and this applies even when one is by himself (Mishna Berura 262:6) or prefers more casual clothes. Here, too, societal factors are crucial in determining what types of clothes are necessary, praiseworthy, and appropriate. (The Biur Halacha to 262:3 discusses whether wearing white clothes is showing off. In some circles, the same question could be raised about wearing a black hat, while in others a hat or even a shtreimel are expected). Factors such as age, weather, venue (vacation resort, camp) may also play a role. Logic dictates that since we are taking a practical, subjective approach, there is every reason to combine factors. On average, people dress more formally at tefilla on Shabbat than they do either at tefilla during the week or on Shabbat outside of shul. The same is true regarding standing before important people, the model for attire for davening. One is likely to dress more formally at a formal setting with an important person than at a casual setting with him. We also find the honor of Shabbat elevating the prominence of other halachic matters. For example, a Shabbat meal warrants Sheva Berachot even without panim chadashot (Shulchan Aruch, Even Haezer 62:8); even minor eating (ara’i) is forbidden on Shabbat before taking ma’aser (Rambam, Ma’aser 3:4). In summation, if it is rare for people to come to shul in your community with shorts on Shabbat, we would certainly agree with the content of the person who spoke to you (hopefully, in an appropriate way, which is not always easily done). If it is not uncommon, one needs to know where to draw the line, which is best done by local rabbis with a finger on the pulse of the community. In general, though, it is appropriate for the norm to be to wear long pants. Treatment of Leftover BreadWhat are the halachot of treatment of bread at the end of a meal?There are clear halachot in the gemara (Berachot 50b; 52b) and poskim (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 171, 180) regarding “respect” due to food in general and especially bread. Two related issues are involved: not causing food to be wasted; not degrading food. First we shuld mention that if one plans things as he or she should, there should little waste of sizable pieces of bread (or other foods). Leftover bread can be frozen, used for breadcrumbs (while avoiding meat/milk issues), or left for birds. Where this is difficult is at semachot, where there can be half-eaten rolls, etc. One is not allowed to involve food in non- eating, in a way that it is likely to become soiled and become unappetizing (Shulchan Aruch OC 171:1). It is forbidden to throw any food that could get soiled upon falling and to throw bread even if it will not become soiled, due to bread’s extra importance (ibid. - see Beit Yosef, ad loc.). The gemara (Berachot 52b) explains Beit Shammai’s opinion that one should clean the eating area before washing with mayim acharonim so that the water not fall on and ruin the food. Beit Hillel is not concerned because people will know to remove k’zayit-sized pieces of bread. We are not concerned about smaller pieces, as Rabbi Yochanan says these can be destroyed. Seemingly then, sizable pieces are due respect, while small ones are not, as the Shulchan Aruch (OC 180:3-4) assumes. However, the matter is complicated. The gemara in Shabbat (143a) says in the name of Rabbi Yochanan that one may not destroy even pieces smaller than a k’zayit. The gemara in Chulin (105b) also says that not being careful with small pieces of leftover food makes one susceptible to poverty. Tosafot (Shabbat 143a) says that our text in Shabbat, which follows Rashi, is incorrect, as the gemara in Berachot says that one is not required to care for small pieces. On the other hand, Tosafot (Berachot 52b) says that even if there is no prohibition, disgracing small pieces could cause poverty. The Magen Avraham (180:3) distinguishes based on different types of lack of care. One is not required to preserve small pieces; however, he may not disgrace them, e.g., by having people trample them. Water falling on them and making them not usable is not a disgrace. Bigger pieces must not even get soiled by water. The Pri Megadim (ad loc.) claims that according to the Rambam, there are no halachic limitations on small pieces, although perhaps there is a danger of poverty. Even regarding big pieces, if one has decided not to eat them and there is no issue of not wasting them, what should one do with them? Presumably one should discard them without disgracing them, but what is considered a disgrace? Is putting them in the garbage, the normal place to discard things, a disgrace? Every written source I found on the topic (see V’zot Haberacha, p. 16; Etz Hasadeh 19:4; Rav E. Melamed - online) said (without classical sources) that one must put k’zayit -sized pieces in a bag before throwing them into the garbage, and many people, especially in Israel, are careful about this. Is there any explanation for at least most of the American community within which I grew up, who are not careful about this? We have mentioned in the past (Beshalach 5768) that Rav Yisraeli’s ruled that one can put food with the sanctity of Shemitta in a bag before throwing in the garbage even together with foods without sanctity, as long as those other foods are not spoiled. Touching and even getting a little soiled by other foods before being thrown into the garbage dump may not be a disgrace. One could claim, then, that most kitchen garbage bins contain bags in which there are various leftover food and disposable matters; thus, putting bread in there may not be a disgrace. However, the easier position to justify, in regard to halacha and avoiding poverty, is to put bread leftovers (at least, bigger pieces) that cannot be salvaged, in a separate bag before putting it in the garbage. A Minyan Split Between Adjacent RoomsIn small shuls and “shiva houses,” where there is an overflow to an adjacent room, do there have to be ten men in one room? Someone claimed that if everyone is under one roof, there are no questions.The gemara in Pesachim (85b), in the context of eating Korban Pesach within a certain area, discusses whether those who are within the doorway of the border are considered inside or outside. The gemara says that the same is true for tefilla, i.e., tziruf (formation of a minyan). The gemara in Eruvin (92b), regarding a minyan split between adjacent courtyards of different sizes, distinguishes between different configurations. One might have argued that these sources are not referring to cases under one roof. However, it is clear from Rishonim, the Shulchan Aruch (Orach Chayim 55:19) and many poskim that the guidelines for separate rooms inside a building are much the same as those of separate courtyards. The Rashba (Shut I:96) asks why it is allowed for a chazan to stand on the bima when its dimensions make it a separate domain, thus separating the chazan from the tzibbur. He gives two answers: 1. A bima specifically functions as an integral part of the shul; 2. If some people in one domain see some people in the other one, they constitute one unit (as they do regarding a zimun for bentching- Berachot 50a). The Shulchan Aruch (ibid.) cites the Rashba’s first answer as halacha regarding tziruf for a minyan, while citing an opinion that this is only on condition that the bima’s partitions do not reach the ceiling. These are among the many sources that debunk the claim you were told, as a bima is obviously under the same roof as the rest of the shul, and still other reasons are needed to explain the tziruf. Most practical cases depend on the extent to which we accept the Rashba’s second answer – that a visual connection between the two groups suffices. (Another scenario, based on the details of the aforementioned gemara in Eruvin (see Shulchan Aruch ibid. 15), is rarely applicable. Those standing in the doorway probably do count (Mishna Berura 55:50), but that is not of much help.) The major question is whether the parameters for connecting groups regarding zimun (i.e., visual) apply to creating a minyan for tefilla. The Mishna Berura (55:48 & 55:52) is not conclusive on the matter. Therefore it is best, when possible, to have ten people in one room. Once a minyan is achieved in one room, most opinions assume that those in the overflow room receive the benefits of a minyan, regardless of the visibility connection. The Radbaz (650) says that those in the small room are fully considered as davening with a minyan if the small room can be accessed only through the main room. In any case, those not in the room with the minyan may answer to those parts of tefilla that require a minyan (Shulchan Aruch, OC 55:20) and be exempted from obligations by those inside the main room (Mishna Berura 55:61). The logic is that the ten in one room create the setting (the shechina – see Mishna Berura 55:60) for the matter of kedusha, after which we say that partitions do not prevent the sanctity to flow (see ibid. and Pesachim 85b). (See further opinions in Piskei Teshuvot 55:27.) Al Ha’eitz for Those Who Have Eaten a Variety of FruitsDoes the bracha acharona of Al Ha’eitz include other fruits eaten (not from the seven species)? Is it preferable to recite the beracha acharona of Al Hamichya / Al Ha’eitz before Borei Nefashot?The beracha acharona of Al Ha’eitz, the Me’ein Shalosh (often colloquially called Al Hamichya) for fruit of the sevens species (olives, dates, grapes, figs, and pomegranates) is an interesting hybrid. It is similar to Birkat Hamazon in terms of content; it is a single beracha , similar to Borei Nefashot, yet it begins and ends with a beracha form, and is of a higher level (see below); it does not mention the specific fruit, unlike the beracha on wine. With this background, let us answer your first question. One who ate both fruit of the seven species and other fruit should make Al Ha’eitz to fulfill all the obligations (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 208:13). Since Al Ha’eitz thanks Hashem for fruit generally, this stronger beracha can cover “lesser fruit” as well. The Mishna Berura (207:1) says that even if one recites Al Ha’eitz improperly (e.g., after eating only an apple), he still exempts himself from Borei Nefashot. Since the exemption is based on the language of Al Ha’eitz, it does not apply regarding fruit that does not grow on a tree, i.e., those fruit whose beracha is Borei Pri Ha’adama (Shulchan Aruch ibid.; Sha’ar Hatziyun 208:64). Admittedly some say that even “fruit of the ground” are included in tenuvat hasadeh and are exempted by Al Ha’eitz, and according to Rav Ovadia Yosef (Yabia Omer, V, OC 17), one who already recited it should not make Borei Nefashot (see below). The logic is stronger according to those who end off Al Ha’eitz with the words “al hapeirot,” as opposed to “al pri ha’eitz,” as the former refers to fruit generically and not to the fruit of the tree. Regarding the order of the berachot acharonot, conceptually it is proper to recite the Me’ein Shalosh first because it is a higher level beracha than Borei Nefashot for one or more of the following reasons. According to some (see Beit Yosef, OC 209), it is actually a Torah-level obligation; it is longer and more extensive; it is more specific than Borei Nefashot (Pri Megadim, Eshel Avraham 202:206; Be’ur Halacha 202:11). However, some say that because of the opinions above that Me’ein Shalosh fulfills the obligation for all sorts of fruit, it is preferable to make Borei Nefashot first, for if not, it will be unclear if he should or should not recite Borei Nefashot afterward. If the Borei Nefashot is needed for something that does not grow from the ground (e.g., meat, water) and according to many if one is drinking fruit juice (which lost its status of fruit regarding berachot –see Mishna Berura 208:63), this is not an issue (Yabia Omer ibid.), and it would be preferable to recite the Me’ein Shalosh first. The Magen Avraham (202:26) is not concerned with the opinion that one should say Borei Nefashot first, and this is the accepted ruling and practice for Ashkenazim (see V’zot Haberacha p. 54). For Sephardim, it is hard to say. The Shulchan Aruch seems to not believe that “ha’adama fruits” can be included in Me’ein Shalosh. Furthermore, Ohr L’tzion (Rav Abba Shaul, II:14:24) employs very strong logic – one who plans to say Borei Nefashot after Me’ein Shalosh is considered like one who has in mind not to have the Al Ha’eitz cover the Borei Nefashot fruit, in which case there are ample sources that it is not effective for those foods. (One would do well to have this in mind explicitly.) On the other hand, the Kaf Hachayim (208:73) says it is better to avoid the situation and recite Borei Nefashot first (V’zot Haberacha cites Rav M. Eliyahu as agreeing). Rav Ovadia Yosef (ibid.), basing himself on the rule he champions to avoid doubtful berachot even when the Shulchan Aruch approves them, says that if one already said a Me’ein Shalosh, he should not make a Borei Nefashot . Given his authority, it is hard to tell a Sephardi to not follow his position, at least in regard to l’chatchila. Standing for a Chatan and a KallaIs there a reason to stand for a chatan (groom) and a kalla (bride) as they enter the chupa (wedding canopy)?The practice of standing up as the chatan/kalla walk past those who are seated is a relatively new phenomenon. The traditional approach to new practices in a religious setting is to be wary about them, for several reasons. One reason is that some new practices are against the spirit or even the letter of halacha or Jewish thought. Another is that it creates confusion, when it is difficult to distinguish between important minhagim from which one can learn and gain and between spiritually meaningless practices. A third dimension is a feeling many have that if this practice is a proper one, generations before us would have initiated it. A related idea is that initiating a new minhag gives the impression of arrogance and dismissal, as if to say: “We know better than our predecessors.” Let us analyze the practice in light of the above. It is hard to find anything significantly objectionable about standing up for a chatan/kalla. Maybe some people are irked by the tendency toward attributing them special powers (see scant sources regarding their power of prayer in Nitei Gavriel 9:15, indicating it is not a mainstream approach in non-Hassidic philosophy). However, there is a staggering amount of sources that support the idea being generally appropriate. We are commanded to stand for various people we are required to honor (see Kiddushin 32-33), and we find numerous sources about making a big deal of the chatan/kalla. These include such halachot as halting Torah study to escort the kalla and giving precedence to a wedding procession over a funeral procession (Ketubot 17a). One could claim that these represent a mitzva to make them happy rather than honoring them per se. However, numerous sources (including Tosafot ad loc. and the Beit Yosef, Yoreh Deah 360) refer to kavod (honor) and compare it to the kavod of others. In truth, there are different ways of showing kavod to different people. For example, a husband and wife should honor each other greatly (Rambam, Ishut 15:19-20). Yet, we do not find a halacha that they should stand up for each other. The main honor for a chatan and kalla is showing interest in and excitement about their marriage and future home. Certainly, it is more appropriate to sit in rapt attention than to rise but continue talking to a friend. However, standing would also seem to be a reasonable expression of honor. People quote the concept of chatan domeh l’melech (a groom resembles a king) as grounds for standing. This phrase comes from Pirkei D’Rabbi Eliezer 16, along with examples of similarities: they both are praised for seven days; they wear nice clothing; they are involved in partying (regarding a chatan, it is for seven days, and some understand it to mean they may not go to work); they do not go in the street alone. The latter two are brought as halacha in the Rama (Even Haezer 64:1). The gemara (Moed Katan 28a) makes another interesting comparison: a chatan is like a kohen and, therefore, sits at the helm. We did not find a classical source requiring standing before chatan. There are semi-classical sources that speak about standing for the chatan as he goes to get an aliya during the week before and after the wedding (see Nitei Gavriel 2:7 and Chashukei Chemed, Gittin 62a, who are not overly impressed by the case for standing). The lack of a source about standing specifically on the way to the chupa should not be surprising – for hundreds of years, weddings were done outside and indications (including old paintings) are that seating was not the norm. In summation, we find nothing compelling to require standing for the chatan/kalla but agree it has logic and is not intrinsically objectionable. Out of respect for our predecessors who did not do so, we would not have initiated the practice, but out of respect for present-day peers who do it (and perhaps chatanim/kallot who already expect it), we encourage joining along. Opening and Closing a Garden Parasol on ShabbatWe were told that our new garden parasol, which is opened by levers from a heavy, barely movable pole, can get ruined if left open in the wind. May we open and close it on Shabbat?This case is similar to permitted “coverings” discussed in the gemara and Rishonim and to a different one that was forbidden by the Acharonim. Let us see those sources and see where your parasol falls. Since you don’t keep this garden parasol open for long, there is only a question of a rabbinic prohibition of making a temporary tent (ohel ara’i), not of a Torah violation on a permanent tent (see Shabbat 138a and Shaar Hatziyun 315:6). The halacha of a temporary “tent” can depend on its use. If it is to protect that which it covers, it is forbidden even if there is only a roof of a tefach (a handbreadth) (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 315:2). If a horizontal surface is spread out just to serve the area above it (e.g., a table) and the fact that it also covers something is incidental, it is forbidden only if the “roof” is placed on vertical “walls” (ibid. 3). At first glance, your parasol seems forbidden, as it is a roof to shade the area beneath. However, we must consider that the prohibition on making tents is a subcategory of binyan (building). Therefore, Chazal (see Shabbat 138a) allowed several apparent walls/roofs when they were not creating something new. One is extending an existing surface of a tefach (Shulchan Aruch, ibid. 2). Although the folded up parasol has a width of a tefach that hangs over the ground, opening it is worse than just extending because the existing tefach is measured only from beyond its folded up state. Another broad leniency is when the “tent” is attached in a way that it is ready to be opened. When a cloak is attached by a string, ready to be pulled open, it is permitted to do so (Shabbat 138a). Another case is a folded chair whose seat is soft leather, where the leather becomes a horizontal surface when the chair is opened. This too is permitted (ibid.; Shulchan Aruch ibid. 5). The Rama (OC 626:3) allows opening an extending roof over a sukka to protect from rain, when it is attached by hinges to the wall. Based on the above, one would expect it would be permitted to open an umbrella on Shabbat, as its “tent” is made ready to be opened and closed easily. Why then is it accepted that it is forbidden to do so? The Noda B’Yehuda (II, OC:30) is concerned with the Your garden parasol is essentially an umbrella. Many see the umbrella prohibition as largely a stringency (with many nuances raised as to what factor(s) triggered the minhag- see Be’ur Halacha 315:8; Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 24:15; Chazon Ish ibid.). It is likely this minhag does not extend to your parasol, which is different in several ways. Perhaps most significantly, the fabric extends from a stationary pole, which is unlike picking up an umbrella and creating an ohel situation in its present location from scratch (see Noda B’Yehuda ibid). Therefore, Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata (ibid.) rules that it is permitted to open garden parasols, and we concur. Whatever can be opened on Shabbat can also be closed. (Based on your picture and description, it appears that it is even easier to be lenient in your case. Your apparatus is movable enough to not be considered attached to the ground, something that made Rav S.Z. Auerbach “wary” of the above leniency – see ad loc. (57). It also looks like the downward slope is too small/gradual to be considered additional vertical walls, which was one of the reasons the Noda B’Yehuda forbade umbrellas.) Continuing to Eat Based on an Initial BerachaIf I make a beracha on one food and then later decide to eat other foods of the same beracha, do I need to make a new beracha, or does the initial one cover them?There are two basic halachic precedents and one major distinction for the halachot that apply here, with poskim offering differing opinions regarding in-between cases. The Rashba and others infer from Rav Pappa’s rules (Berachot 41b) about which foods need a beracha at different stages of a meal that foods that are brought to the table during the meal are generally covered by the original beracha. This serves the Beit Yosef (Orach Chayim 206) as a source that berachot generally cover foods that were not present at the time. The Taz (ad loc. 7) rejects this broad application, as a meal has a special ability to subsume many foods. He and the Magen Avraham (ad loc. 7) prefer the precedent of a shochet who makes a beracha before shechting several animals and then other are brought. The Tur (Yoreh Deah 19) cites several opinions as to whether a new beracha is needed: it depends if the animals are of the same species (Itur); it depends if the new animals were brought while some original animals had still not been shechted (S’mak); it depends if one had in mind to cover animals that were not yet present (Tur). The Shulchan Aruch (YD 19:7) follows the S’mak’s distinction, and the Rama (YD 19:6) follows the Itur. Yet, in the Laws of Berachot, these pillars of halacha do not make such distinctions. The Shulchan Aruch (OC 206:5) seems to say without distinction that one does not make a beracha on the newly brought food. The Rama (ad loc.), while not necessarily arguing, says that one should preferably have in mind that the beracha goes on all the food that will be brought, and Sephardi poskim agree that this is worthwhile, considering that the Beit Yosef cites differing opinions (Yalkut Yosef 206:21). Let us now put things in perspective. All agree that if one had in mind to eat only certain foods or amounts of the foods (e.g., those with dietary goals), the beracha is limited to that (see Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 174:5). All agree that explicit intention for other foods works in all but exceptional cases. The machloket between the aforementioned Taz and Magen Avraham and the accepted reading of the Shulchan Aruch is in regard to cases where one did not give the matter thought or come to a conclusion. Based primarily on distinctions found regarding shechita, Ashkenazi poskim say that a new beracha is needed on food upon which one did not have clear intention unless one of the following situations exists: 1) the food was before the person when he made the beracha (Mishna Berura (206:20); 2) the new food is of the exact same type as that upon which he made the beracha (ibid. 22); 3) he was not finished eating the original food when he decided to eat the new food (ibid.); 4) he sat down to eat a significant amount of this type of food (ibid.); 5) the person in question is dependent on others to determine what he will be offered to eat, e.g., a guest (Mishna Berura 179:17 – see V’zot Haberacha, p. 68). The exceptions in which (some of) these factors do not help to exempt from a beracha include: 1) when the new food came from an unexpected place, e.g., a guest brought it after the beracha was made (Shulchan Aruch, OC 177:5); 2) if, according to the rules of order of berachot, the beracha should have been made on the second food, only explicit intention allows the first beracha to cover it (based on Rama 211:5). (For more details, see V’zot Haberacha pp. 65-67; Piskei Teshuvot 206:18). Since the detailed halachot are hard to remember and many of them are based on machloket, it is best to follow the Rama and have clear intention to cover a wide variety of foods. If one does so on a regular basis, he should not need very clear intention each time (possibly not all agree with this – see V’zot Haberacha p. 65 – but this seems like the correct ruling). Birkat Hamazon for Those Who Have Left the Place of Eating?If I leave my place in the midst of a meal including bread by myself without first bentching (reciting Birkat Hamazon), can I bentch when I remember? If so, how much time do I have to come back to bentch? If I had been eating with two other men and I eventually return before the others have benthced, can I join a zimun with them?Your first question is about the ability to come back to bentch where you ate. There is no question that you are able to come back; the major question is whether you are required to come back in order to bentch. Beit Shammai (Berachot 51b) said that if one forgot to bentch at the end of the meal and remembered when he was in a different place, he is required to return to bentch in the original place. Beit Hillel says that he is permitted to bentch where he remembered. The gemara (ibid. 53b) says that if he purposely left the place of eating without bentching, Beit Hillel agrees that he must return. The Shulchan Aruch (Orach Chayim 184:1) cites two opinions among the Rishonim whether we accept Beit Shammai or Beit Hillel’s ruling regarding returning after forgetting to bentch and does not give a clear indication of which opinion he accepts. The Mishna Berura (184: 6,7) says that one should return if it is not difficult, and that in any case, it is better to return if he is willing to. If one has bread in the new place and is willing to eat even a small amount of it, he need not return to bentch the original place as the new place is also a place of eating (Shulchan Aruch ibid. 2). As far as how long he has to bentch, there is no difference between whether he is in the same place or a different one. The mishna (Berachot 51b) says that one has until the “food has been digested in the intestines.” We accept the explanation that this means that a feeling of hunger has not begun to return (Berachot 53b; Shulchan Aruch ibid. 5). This depends on how much one ate; it is also difficult to pinpoint the moment. Therefore, we usually work with the assumption is that one has, from the last eating, the amount of time it takes to walk four millin, which most hold is 72 minutes (Mishna Berura 184:20). There are other significant questions regarding leaving the place of eating. One is when one continues eating upon his return. The Shulchan Aruch (OC 178: 1,2) rules that unless one left behind people who continue eating in the original place, there is a break between the returner’s two eating sessions and he has to first bentch for the first part and then recite a new beracha for the second installment. The Rama (ad loc.) rules that if the food one had eaten mandates a beracha acharona before he leaves, then the meal continues without additional berachot. It is a matter of debate what is included in that category of food (see Mishna Berura 178:44), but a bread meal certainly. Still, it is not proper to leave for any extended period from the place of the meal with the intention to return without first bentching without a pressing reason to do so, including the need to perform a mitzva elsewhere (Rama ibid.). Although Sephardim generally accept the Shulchan Aruch’s rulings over those of the Rama, this is an example of the counter rule that one does not recite a doubtfully justified beracha even if the Shulchan Aruch says to recite it (see Kaf Hachayim, OC 174:1; Yalkut Yosef, OC 178:(1)). For a Sephardi, though, it is even more important to leave with the intention to return and continue eating, as this creates a situation where he will not be able to comply with the Shulchan Aruch’s ruling to make new berachot (see V’zot Haberacha pp. 63, 142). If one ate with others who remain, his connection to the original eating is certainly a strong one (one ramification is that the Shulchan Aruch (ibid.) agrees that he does not require new berachot). There is no question that in such a case, where he had an obligation before he left to join his counterparts for a zimun, he can do so upon returning (see the related discussion in the Shulchan Aruch, OC 194:2). What to do if one is unsure if said a beracha acharonaAfter eating, some time later, I will often not recall if I said the appropriate after-bracha or other required bracha. In such instances, what should I do? Do I say a bracha or not?The general halachic rule, which applies to you and to others, is that in cases of doubt regarding berachot, one does not make a beracha that might be a repeat. Technically, the exception to the rule would be Birkat Hamazon, but we would not want you to unnecessarily recite that more than once either. We would generally suggest that you take some combination of the following two courses of action, which will be helpful in regard to non-ritual activities as well. 1) Get used to taking care of matters as soon as they become feasible - in this case, it would mean making berachot right away, e.g., right after washing one's hands after leaving the bathroom, right after finishing eating, etc. Then if the question arises later whether the berachot were made, one can say with greater confidence that they were and there is no need to repeat them. Indeed if you get used to that approach, the beracha will usually have been said. 2. Get used to having reminder systems - so many older people use the pill box method for making sure they are keeping to schedule with medications. One can have similar systems for berachot as well. One possible example - one has a place at the table where he puts a bentcher when he starts eating and another place where he puts it when he has finished bentching. We do not mean that you have a halachic obligation to do X and Y. These are just general ideas that you can use to give you more of a sense of security regarding religious obligations, as you deserve as much security as you can for all elements of your life. See what works for you. Again, though, the most basic rule regarding forgetting whether you made berachot, is not to make berachot out of doubt.
Continuing to Pray for Rain During a Trip AbroadI will be traveling outside of Israel, leaving after Israelis start asking for rain (“v’ten tal u’matar livracha” = vtul) and before those in chutz la’aretz start (7 Cheshvan – Dec. 4 or 5). Do I say vtul while abroad?We will start with a brief overview of the question of saying v’ten tal u’matar outside Israel during this time period (see Living the Halachic Process, vol. II, A-11) before relating to your specific question. The Rabbis instituted saying vtul according to the needs for rain of the time’s major Jewish communities. The entire Diaspora follows the needs of Bavel, starting 60 days after the beginning of Tekufat Tishrei (Dec. 4 or 5). The Rosh (Shut The Mishna Berura (117:5) cites two opinions on whether one who resides in Because of the doubt that surrounds this matter, major poskim (Rav S.Z. Orbach and Rav Elyashiv, quoted in Yom Tov Sheni K’Hilchato 10:2; Yalkut Yosef, Kitzur 117:15) suggest to says vtul in Shomeia Tefilla during the questionable period and is safe according to all opinions. This works because it is permitted to ask for rain during the summer in the beracha of Shomeia Tefilla, and it is sufficient b’di’eved to do so during the winter. Rav Feinstein (Igrot Moshe, OC II:102) implies that Israelis visiting countries where rain is desirable at that time should recite vtul in its regular place. However, the former opinion is preferable, especially for Sephardim (see Birkei Yosef, OC 117:5; Kaf HaChayim, OC 117:11). We now move to your question. The Chida (Birkei Yosef, OC 117:6) says that one who started saying vtul in Israel and left with plans to return should continue to recite it normally. He explains that it is like a farce to begin saying it and then stop. There is a similar concept in the gemara (Taanit 4b-5a) regarding the discussion how to introduce “mashiv haruach …” in chutz la’aretz, where we treat two days like the possible end of Sukkot. Some say we should start saying “mashiv haruach” on the first day and then stop for some tefillot before resuming it on the second day. The gemara concludes that once we start, we do not stop. This, though, is not a halachic proof to the Chida’s concept, as commentaries explain the ruling differently (see Ritva, Turei Even ad loc.). Also, there is logic to distinguish between how the Rabbis institute the matter in the first place and what one does in the special situation of visiting a place with a different practice. In any case, the Chida’s ruling that avoiding the “farce” of stopping what one started overcomes the rule to follows the practices of a host community – during the silent Shemoneh Esrei is the accepted one (see Ishei Yisrael 23:38). According to most authorities, an Israeli in chutz la’aretz at this time can be a chazan, in which case he says vtul in his silent Shemoneh Esrei but omits it during chazarat hashatz (ibid. 39). The logic of continuing what one started does not suffice for one who has a fundamental reason to stop asking for rain. Therefore, an Israeli who is moving permanently abroad during this time and a ben chutz la’aretz who started saying vtul while visiting Israel in deference to local practice cease doing so when they leave Israel (Yein Hatov, OC 35; B’tzel Hochochma I:62). Returning Food to an Oven on ShabbatMy electric stove has a Shabbat mode, which enables us to cancel the automatic shut off (needed for 2 days of Yom Tov) and keeps the exact heat you set without fluctuation when the door is opened. On Shabbat, can fully cooked dry food be placed in the oven to be warmedWe will try to make a little order in what the Shabbat mode does and what it does not do. We will be able to provide only an overview of the most basic of the many complex halachot that remain to be discussed. The main element of the type of Shabbat mode you describe is to circumvent systems in modern ovens that cause problems for Shabbat. The obviation of the shut-off feature is of technical value for the Shabbat observer and is irrelevant to the question of returning food on Shabbat. Another element is to circumvent the direct impact of opening the doors on a variety of lights, sensors, etc., which would make opening the door forbidden. Regarding an oven in which even in Shabbat mode it works with a set temperature that is controlled by a thermostat, there is still an issue that opening the door cools off the chamber and causes the oven to turn back on sooner and/or stay on longer, which is debated by the last generation’s poskim (see Shemirat Shabbat K’Hilchhata 1:29 – stringent; Igrot Moshe, Orach Chayim IV:74.28 – lenient; Yalkut Yosef, OC 253:5 – inconclusive). There are ovens in In any case your question relates to the rules of hachzara (returning food to a heat source), which is a stricter application of the laws of shehiya (having the food stay on the heat source). The basic law of shehiya is that one may not leave food on a heat source on Shabbat when he may have an interest to raise the heat and an ability to do so, without certain steps to reduce that concern. A blech, for example, works by reducing the intensity of the heat on the food by covering the flame, and thus serving as a reminder that reinforces the message not to consider increasing the heat. Non-adjustable hot plates make it unfeasible to raise the heat and thus are permitted. An oven is problematic in that it is hard to duplicate the positive these elements and its heat is adjustable. Leniency can be contemplated if one tapes up the controls or based on the Rama’s (OC 253:1) minhag that for foods that are nominally cooked, there is little interest in raising the heat. Returning dry food to an oven on Shabbat is much more problematic (including, that it might look like cooking), and it apparently requires the fulfillment of six conditions (see Shulchan Aruch, OC 253:2): 1) The food must be fully cooked (easy); 2) The heat source must be covered according to the aforementioned criteria (see above); 3) If one takes food off, he must hold it if he wants to return it (not feasible in your case); 4) One has to have in mind, when removing the food, to return it to the heat (easy); 5) The food did not cool down (not feasible). 6) The food should be put onto an open heat source, not into an enclosed one, especially when it is a place where food is often cooked (see Mishna Berura 253:58; Yalkut Yosef OC 253:8). An exception to these requirements is a place that is less hot than yad soledet bo (app. 45̊ C= 113̊ F) (Rama, OC 253:2) or one made for reheating rather than cooking where it is also not feasible to adjust the heat. These include ovens that are off with residual heat (Rama 253:5) and, according to some, non-adjustable hot plates made for Shabbat reheating (see Yechaveh Da’at II:55). There are certain conditions in which there are opinions (including one by Rav Soloveitchik, which requires much explanation) that one can reheat in an oven, and you are free to ask the rabbi of your choice about the matter. The point of this overview is to explain that your Shabbat mode is no better in regard to reheating than standard ovens of decades past. Orlah (not eating fruits from a tree for the first 3 years) outside of IsraelI grew an Esrog plant from a seed of a Esrog after Sukkos around 3 years ago. I have repotted the plant a few times over the years. What I am wondering is what are the laws regarding the Esrog tree in America? I at first thought there were some laws required even in America like waiting a set amount of years. But is there? Also if their is a waiting period of gaining benefit from a fruit tree even outside of Israel does repotting the tree restart the count or is that only when replanting in to the ground?The laws of orlah, not benefitting from the fruits of a tree during its first three years apply also outside of Regarding replanting, if the tree was removed with enough ground attached to it to live for another two weeks without being replanted, one does not need to restart the counting of the three years. If there is doubt regarding this, in Providing Non-Kosher Food for Non-Jewish WorkersWhere I come from, it is very common for employers to provide non-kosher food for their live-in household help. Is that permitted?The gemara derives from Vayikra 11:11 that one may sell non-kosher species that come into his possession but may not actively acquire and then sell them. This applies to most foods that are forbidden by Torah law (mainly meat and fish – not wine, …) (see Shulchan Aruch, Yoreh Deah 117:1). According to most Rishonim, the prohibition of commerce in forbidden foods is from the Torah (see Shut Chatam Sofer, YD 104-106, 108; Yabia Omer VIII, YD 13). The Rashba (Shut III, 223) says that the reason is to minimize the chance one will eat forbidden foods; others say it is a gezeirat hakatuv (Heavenly decree without a known reason). In any case, it applies only to things that are usually acquired for eating purposes (Shulchan Aruch, YD 117:1). The consensus of poskim is that this prohibition applies as long as a Jew owns the food in the framework of a commercial process, even if he is not expected to come in direct contact with the food (Chatam Sofer, ibid.108). The Rama (YD 117:1) rules that it is forbidden to buy non-kosher food in order to feed it to non-Jewish workers. The Taz (ad loc. 2) explains that for one who is required to feed his workers, buying them the cheaper non-kosher food is a commercial act like buying it to pay a debt. The Shach (ad loc. 3) argues with the Rama, apparently because he considers it using the food for his own non-eating purposes, not using it commercially. He asks on the Rama from a Yerushalmi that says that how one who bought pig to give his workers can sell it. (The Taz counters that the Yerushalmi was discussing getting rid of what was bought improperly.) All agree that one can give money to his non-Jewish worker so that he can buy food for himself, even if he knows the non-Jew will buy non-kosher (Knesset Hagedola, YD 117, Beit Yosef 20). Based on this, the Pri Chadash (YD 117:3) argues that since the Jew does not benefit by acquiring the food and then giving it to the worker (as opposed to giving the money to the worker), the prohibition of commerce does not apply. Those who are stringent can argue that the fact that there another way of getting to the same point does not mean that the acquisition is not beneficial. There is logic to distinguish between where the food is delivered to or by the Jew, who then gives it to the non-Jew, and where he arranges someone to deliver it to the non-Jew. First, when the food enters the Jew’s domain, the concern he might come to eat it, which some say helps define the prohibition’s parameters, pertains. Additionally, it is more difficult to arrange or claim that the Jew does not acquire ownership, which might be at the heart of the problem (see Chatam Sofer ibid.) when it is brought into his home (the details are complex). On the other hand, consider the Aruch Hashulchan’s logic for agreeing with the Shach that there is no prohibition to buy food to give to workers. The Aruch Hashulchan (YD 117:19) argues that if one has workers in his home whom he needs to feed, since the natural thing is that they should eat (the cheaper) non-kosher food, fulfilling that need in the natural way is not considered initiating commerce. If the worker lives and functions independently, but they have included food into his “compensation package,” it is more likely to be considered initiating commerce. Paradoxically, giving non-kosher food as a present is forbidden (see Shach ibid.) because the investment in good relations is considered equivalent to selling to the non-Jew. In the final analysis, there are respected opinions on this matter in either direction, and it is legitimate to acquire non-kosher food for a non-Jewish worker in cases of significant need. One should try, if feasible, to arrange that the Jew does not acquire the food but arranges its transfer from supplier to worker and thereby also avoid marit ayin (see Teshuvot V’hanhangot II:394). Running Out of P’sukim after the Second AliyaAt Mincha of Shabbat, the ba’al korei did not stop at the end of the second aliya, until he read all of the third and final aliya. What should we have done for the third aliya: 1) done a regular third aliya (as a repeat); 2) gone on beyond the normal reading?We begin with the possibility of repeating, which is easier for a ba’al korei who presumably did not prepare beyond the normal reading. We repeat p’sukim in kri’at haTorah only in limited circumstances. Generally, Ashkenazim do not allow one to have an aliya that just repeats that which was already read (see Rama, Orach Chayim 282:2, Mishna Berura 282:10). The Shulchan Aruch (ad loc.) says that it is permitted to repeat (as a hosafa). The Mishna Berura (282:6) points out that even according to the Shulchan Aruch, such an aliya does not count toward the required number of aliyot. Therefore, in our case, where the third aliya has to count, option #1 seems to be a problem. The Shulchan Aruch (OC 137:6) says that in order for an aliya that contains repeated p’sukim to be valid, one has to have three new p’sukim or, when there is a need, two new p’sukim. His source (cited in the Beit Yosef) is an Avudraham in the name of Geonim, based on the following gemara (Taanit 27b). Ma’amadot (representatives of the nation regarding daily korbanot) had a special daily kri’at haTorah from the beginning of Bereishit, which did not have enough p’sukim for three aliyot. According to Rav, they read the first five p’sukim as two aliyot with both reading the third pasuk. Shmuel said that they each read two and a half p’sukim, splitting the third pasuk. From the fact that no one suggested starting the second aliya from the beginning again, we see that repetition is not a valid alternative, and even when there is a need, if there are not two new p’sukim, the aliya is of no value. The Pri Chadash (OC 137:6) (boldly) argues with the Shulchan Aruch and the Geonim, saying that just as the Shulchan Aruch agrees (as above) that one can make the berachot for a hosafa that is a total repeat, so too it can count as a new aliya. He brings a proof from the gemara (Megilla 30a) about the case (precluded by our calendar) where Parashat Shekalim is read on Parashat Tetzaveh, in which case there is a problem that Shekalim looks like a continuation of the parasha, not a separate reading. Abaye says that the second to last aliya reads up to and including Shekalim and then we repeat Shekalim for the last aliya (details are beyond our scope). The Pri Chadash cites Rishonim who explain why the ma’amadot did not start the second aliya from the beginning – those who come or leave in the middle might think there are only two aliyot. In any case, the Bi’ur Halacha says we follow the Shulchan Aruch, not the Pri Chadash. Nevertheless, all agree that there are cases (i.e., on Sukkot and Chanuka in Therefore, you should have read at least three p’sukim beyond the normal reading. (If the ba’al korei is unable to read, even with help, what he did not prepare without significant embarrassment, one can rely on the Pri Chadash.) Folding Over a Page in a BookIs it permitted to fold the page of a book on Shabbat so that I will be able to find the page I left off on?We will start from the related question of making simple marks in a book to highlight a specific place on the page, which is discussed in classical sources. The Tur (Orach Chayim 340) says that it is permitted to make a mark with one’s fingernail on a book because it does not last. The Bach (ad loc.) argues because Rabbi Yossi (Shabbat 103b) says that the etchings made on the beams of the Mishkan were a classic example of kotev (the Torah prohibition of writing) and the lack of permanence only reduces the violation to a Rabbinic level. One strong response to the Bach is that we accept the opinion that argues on Rabbi Yossi, and since a simple marks is only Rabbinically forbidden, it is permitted when it is not permanent (Eliya Rabba 340:13). Other answers are given to lower the issue to no more than a Rabbinic level. The Shulchan Aruch (340:5) allows making a mark in a book, but the Mishna Berura (340:25 and Biur Halacha ad loc.) is stringent on the matter, especially regarding a scratch on paper (as opposed to parchment), as the Taz (OC 340:4) says that it is considered a permanent mark. In our generation, the Yalkut Yosef (340:6) permits it, whereas the Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata (28:15) forbids it. Folding a certain page to help one find it later is significantly more lenient than making a mark. Certainly, if one folds the page gently, even if the pressure on the book makes the line impression stronger over time, that indirect consequence is likely not considered a violation of Shabbat. However, even if one presses down hard, his intention is not to make a line but to create the effect of a folded page (which helps both by “thickening” the page and creating a tab-like indentation at the corner where the folded part is “missing.”) Several authorities (including Yalkut Yosef ibid.) say this is an example of p’sik reishei d’lo niche lei. In other words, although the ostensibly permitted action that one is doing (folding) includes a definite, direct, forbidden outcome (a line), the forbidden outcome is not desired (one has no interest in having a line after unfolding the page). While most poskim forbid p’sik reishei d’lo niche lei, many say it is permitted when the violation is only Rabbinic in the first place. (See Yabia Omer V, OC 28, who is lenient. The Mishna Berura 314:11 is among many who generally rule stringently). In our case, the situation is even more lenient, as even purposely making the mark is permitted according to many important authorities. Therefore, it is not surprising that the consensus of poskim is that it is permitted to fold the page (see Yalkut Yosef ibid.; Shemen Afarsimon 7; Piskei Teshuvot 340:19). It seems to me that there is a more fundamental reason to permit the folding. Some melachot are quite subjective, and without a certain level of intent for the outcome, the action/result is not considered a melacha at all. It seems to me that leaving an imprint that is neither a word nor a picture is such a case. Thus, even according to the opinions that p’sik reishei d’lo niche lei is forbidden even regarding Rabbinic violations, folding without intent for the line is permitted. This thesis can explain why the line that is made when one folds a napkin is not considered writing (see Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 11:40, who permits simple folding). Poskim struggle with the reason it is permitted to walk on soft ground with shoes that have writing on the soles that leaves an imprint on the ground (see Yabia Omer ibid.). Yet, the question is not even raised on shoes without writing, even though they also leave a clear imprint. Our thesis can explain why there is no question in such cases. (Thank you to my son for presenting this idea to one of the leading authorities on Hilchot Shabbat, who agreed with the analysis.) For one reason or another, it is quite clear that it is permitted to fold the pages of a book on Shabbat. How to deal with kosher food in a non-kosher kitchenA party is being planned in someone's house. Most of the participants don't keep kosher and some do. The food itself is kosher - it will come from a caterer - double wrapped (like in an airplane) with a good hashgaha. The problem is that the owner of the house is not observant so the kitchen in the house where the party is held isn't a kosher kitchen. They owner of the house promises to "self clean" their oven before the party, and then heat up the food in the oven while the food is still wrapped in the original wrapping. Is this food kosher? Can you tell me what the problems are and if there's anything I can do to make the situation better (the party is on a motzai shabbat?)Regarding heating the food up, as long as it is double wrapped, there does not have to be self-cleaning. Self cleaning is good for next time they make food, which, depending on the food, could be otherwise kosher even by accident. But I don't think it is right to lie to them and say it is needed if indeed it is not. You must be careful that only kosher utensils are used after the wrapping is removed. Covering surfaces with a simple tablecloth or the like and disposable kitchen and serving utensils may make things simpler regarding supervision of the goings on. If it is on Motzaei Shabbat, you should try to see to it that there not be a situation where the less observant people would have an interest in starting to heat on Shabbat, which is hard to police. The most important thing is that the party not be too close to the end of Shabbat. Purim in TransitI plan to fly from New York during the night of Purim (after Megilla reading) and arrive in Jerusalem in the afternoon. Would I have to hear Megillat Esther in Yerushalayim before the end of the 14th of Adar, or is it enough that I will hear it there on the 15th?If one is, at day break of the 14th of Adar, in a place which celebrates Purim then, he is obligated to hear both the day and night Megilla reading on that day (Megilla 19a). This is so even for a resident of Yerushalayim (sometimes intention makes a difference, but not in this case). This is learned from a pasuk (Esther 9:19) that discusses people who “are sitting in an un-walled city” in addition to residents of such cities. The same is true if he is in an uninhabited area (including a plane over the ocean), as the 14th is Purim for anywhere that did not have a wall at the time of Yehoshua (Rama, Orach Chayim 688:5). If he is subsequently in Yerushalayim on the 15th, he is obligated to hear the Megilla on the 15th as well (Yerushalmi, Megilla 2:3). Not all agree with the apparent ruling of the Yerushalmi that one can be obligated to hear the Megilla for two days. The way the Korban Netanel understands the Rosh, the Bavli argues with the Yerushalmi and says that the place where one is at daybreak of the 14th sets his status and determines on which one day he will be obligated to read or hear. Therefore, Rav Ovadia Yosef says that one who starts Purim outside Yerushalayim and returns by daybreak of the 15th reads with a beracha on the 14th and without a beracha on the 15th (see Yalkut Yosef, Moadim, p. 306). Rav Frank (Mikraei Kodesh, Purim 19) goes further, saying that even the Yerushalmi required hearing the Megilla on the 15th after hearing on the 14th only if one moved permanently from one place to the other in between the respective reading times. However, we have not found any opinion that exempts one who is outside Yerushalayim on the morning of the 14th from hearing the Megilla on that day due to plans to hear the reading in Yerushalayim on the 15th. The plan to arrange to hear the Megilla when you get to Yerushalayim toward the end of the 14th raises a few halachic issues. One is that only someone who is obligated in reading on the 14th can read for you. This is based on the Yerushalmi (ibid.), which says that one who celebrates Purim on the 14th cannot read the Megilla on the 15th for those keeping the 15th because he is considered like one who is not obligated in the mitzva. Rav Frank (Mikraei Kodesh, Pesach II:66) minority opinion is that the Bavli disagrees with this Yerushalmi, with the logic that the general obligation to read the Megilla along with the concept of responsibility for a fellow Jew’s religious obligations suffices to be considered obligated. While there is some basis to claim that regarding the 14th, all are considered obligated (see Yabia Omer, OC I:43.17), the consensus is that the ba’al korei for the 14th should be one who is obligated that day(see Yalkut Yosef ibid.). (His having fulfilled the mitzva earlier is not a problem.) Eating is also an issue. It is forbidden to eat a meal before fulfilling the obligation to hear the Megilla (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 692:4), both at night and during the day (Mishna Berura 692:15). While one is allowed to snack, some say this is only in the case of significant need (ibid. 692:14) and while snacking sometimes means anything less than a k’beitza of bread (ibid.), some say that one should not eat more than a k’beitza of anything (Mikraei Kodesh (Harari) Purim 4:6 in the name of Rav M. Eliyahu). Certainly you would not be allowed to have the Purim Seuda, which you will need, until after Megilla reading. (For mishloach manot and matanot la’evyonim, appointing an agent in advance is likely a wise step – see Living the Halachic Process, vol. I, D-13 regarding some timing issues.) Due to these complications, most people would probably avoid a trip such as the one you are planning or at least try to arrange to read or hear a valid reading from a kosher Megilla on the plane. Waking Up on a Plane to DavenI will be on a trans-Atlantic overnight flight travelling east, so that during the time people normally sleep, the time for Shacharit will pass quickly. Is it necessary to get up, or do we say that one who is sleeping is exempt from mitzvot?You raise a fascinating question: do obligations in mitzvot apply to a person while he is sleeping? This issue is at the heart of questions of what others should do when observing a sleeping person in a halachically problematic situation. However, that point is not necessary to answer your practical question. While certain sources indicate that when a person is sleeping, the laws of the Torah fundamentally do not apply to him, there are several and stronger sources that prove that mitzvot do apply at least on some level. If rain forces one to sleep inside his house on Sukkot and the rain stops during the night, he does not have to go then to the sukka (Sukka 29a). The Beit Yosef (Orach Chayim 639; see also Mishna Berura 639:43) says that a major part of this discussion is about the people of the household not being required to wake the sleeping person. The simple implication of the sources (compare Shulchan Aruch, OC 639:6 and 7) is that this is a specific exemption from sukka for someone who will be unusually bothered to be in the sukka under those circumstances. The classical commentaries do not speak of a sweeping rule that mitzvot do not apply to those sleeping, implying that there is no such rule. On the other hand, Rav S.Z. Auerbach said that one is not obligated in sukka when he is sleeping and therefore it is (theoretically) permitted to remove a sleeping person from the sukka (see Halichot Shlomo, Tefilla, pp.335-337). Another important source involves someone who died in the room where a kohen is sleeping. The Rama (Yoreh Deah 372:1) says that people should wake the kohen so he can leave the premises. Playing out the different approaches to a case of one who sees his friend sleeping as the end time for reciting Kri’at Shema approaches, Rav Auerbach’s camp would not require waking him, while others would (see Halichot Shlomo ibid.). There is logic to distinguish between mitzvot andowH aveirot in two directions. In some ways, being physically involved in a situation of aveira while sleeping may be more problematic than simply not doing a mitzva at that point (ibid.; see also Shut R. Akiva Eiger I:8). In the opposite direction, even if one is exempt from a mitzva when sleeping, if he does not perform it, he will not be credited for what he did not do; therefore, there is certainly what to gain by waking him. In short, there is room for other distinctions: whether a Torah-level mitzva, e.g., Kri’at Shema, or a Rabbinic one, e.g., Shacharit, is at stake (see Keren L’Dovid, OC 18; Shach, YD 372:3); whether the specific person would want to be woken (see Keren L’Dovid ibid.; Halichot Shlomo ibid.); whether the person went to sleep with a realization that the problem would arise while he would be sleeping (ibid.). This last distinction brings us to the crucial practical point regarding your question. It is forbidden for one to go to sleep in a manner that will likely bring him to miss a mitzva. In several cases, there are Rabbinical prohibitions about eating or sleeping before doing a mitzva even when his plan is to perform the mitzva within its proper time (see Shulchan Aruch, OC 692:4 and Mishna Berura 692:15). This prohibition sometimes begins even before the mitzva applies (see Shulchan Aruch, OC 235:2 and Mishna Berura ad loc. 17). While Chazal obviously do not forbid going to sleep at night out of fear one will wake up too late for Kri’at Shema and Shacharit, they had harsh things to say about those who are not careful to wake up in time (see Avot D’Rabbi Natan 21; Pirkei Avot 3:10 with Bartenura). Therefore, whatever one’s fundamental approach to obligations while one sleeps, before going to sleep, one must have a good plan to ensure he will perform the mitzva when it becomes incumbent (see Halichot Shlomo ibid.). Siyum Participation Via SkypeI will be in a small Jewish community in which there will not be a siyum on Erev Pesach. Is it permitted for me (a bechor) to eat based on a siyum in which I “participate” via Skype?In the context of the halacha not to fast throughout Nisan, Massechet Sofrim (21:1) says that an exception is that bechorot fast on Erev Pesach. The Tur (Orach Chayim 470) and Shulchan Aruch (OC 470:1) cite this practice as normative, and the Tur explains that it is a remembrance of the miracle that the Jewish firstborns were saved in The idea that seudot mitzva cancel the fast is debated among the Acharonim. The Magen Avraham (ad loc.) does not even allow firstborn to eat at a brit mila; the Mishna Berura (ad loc. 10) reports that the minhag in his time was to allow eating at seudot mitzva, including a siyum. The idea that a siyum can play this role is found in the Rama (OC 551:10), who says that one can eat meat and drink wine at a siyum during the Nine Days. In these contexts, there is room to distinguish between principals to a seudat mitzva, for whom the day is like a yom tov, and other participants. For example, a sandek can eat on the day of his parent’s yahrtzeit, but a simple participant in the brit may not (Mishna Berura 568:46). Similarly regarding ta’anit bechorot, those who do not allow firstborns to eat at another’s seudat mitzva are lenient regarding a mohel, sandek, and the father of the circumcised baby (Mishna Berura 470:10). Nevertheless, the minhag is to allow all participants to eat at a siyum. The simple explanation is that their participation makes the celebration more special, thus heightening the ba’al hasimcha’s event. Therefore, participation in the ba’al hasimcha’s meal is the crucial thing. Indeed, some allow even one who missed the siyum to take part in the seudat mitzva (see Teshuvot V’hanhagot II:210). The following distinction would follow the same logical lines. The Minchat Yitzchak (VIII:45) says that when the Chavot Yair (70) allowed having a seudat mitzva the day after a night siyum, he was discussing only a seuda in which the one who made the siyum participates (see also Magen Avraham 568:10). There is a gemara which is understood by some (see Az Nidberu XII:58) as turning the participants in the siyum into ba’alei simcha. The gemara in Shabbat (118b-119a) tells of those who were especially emotionally involved in the Torah successes of others, including one who would make a party for the rabbis when a young scholar finished a massechet. This implies that he was not just helping the learner celebrate, but that he felt the joy to initiate the party. The Minchat Yitzchak (IX:45) says that according to the latter approach (which he discourages relying upon but considers legitimate), it is not required for the participant to eat along with the main party. It does not seem logical to consider one who “takes part” in a seudat mitzva via Skype as being a halachic participant, certainly not in regards to embellishing the simcha of the one who made the siyum. According to the approach that the observer has a right to celebrate his happiness, it is uncertain but at least plausible to say that witnessing the event via Skype is sufficiently significant. Those who take a surprisingly lenient approach about siyum standards for ta’anit bechorot (including Az Nidberu and Teshuvot V’hanhagot ibid.; Yabia Omer, I, OC 26 is quite stringent) rely heavily on the following two factors. 1) The whole fast is a minhag. 2) For many people in our time, fasting would have a significant negative impact on the Seder. While not cancelling the minhag, some seem to lower the bar of who is included in the siyum to enable most anyone to eat. If one feels a need to rely on this approach, Skype participation can also be contemplated. If so, it is better to watch and celebrate as a group and/or to witness a siyum that brings true simcha (e.g., based on connection to the person or level of accomplishment). What to use for lechem mishne on Shabbat Erev PesachWhat to use for lechem mishne on Shabbat Erev Pesach?The system that works for most people is to eat pitot or something of the sort that doesn't need a challa board to cut and makes very few crumbs for lechem mishneh off the table or over a covered table. After eating the requisite amount, one continues the meal without additional bread. Sunbathing on ShabbatIs it permitted to sunbathe on Shabbat? Does it depend on the purpose of the sunbathing: health benefits, tanning, enjoyment?We will not relate to issues of tzniut that can arise from sunbathing, which are of course important. Our discussion should also not be construed as a statement on the medical advisability of the practice. We just remind you that a certain amount of exposure to the sun can be beneficial (vitamin D, etc.), whereas over-exposure can be dangerous. Relatively recent poskim have discussed the matter, and the main discussions relate to the halachot of taking medicines on Shabbat and the melacha of tzoveia (coloring). Regarding one who wants to sunbathe due to a specific medical condition, there are too many variables to address in this forum. If it is for general health benefits, the matter is similar to the discussion about vitamins on Shabbat. The Shulchan Aruch (Orach Chayim 328:37) says that one may eat/drink medically-oriented foods that are eaten regularly by healthy people. However, the Magen Avraham (328:43) says that this is so only when he is eating the food for its food value, not when he is doing so entirely for its medicinal value. Igrot Moshe (OC III:54) says that this stringency is true only when the person, while not sick, needs strengthening, but not when he is simply trying to keep his body “well stocked” so that he will not deteriorate. Some are more stringent than this (see conditions to permit vitamins in Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 34:20). In any case, since sunbathing is something which people in our times do not usually associate with its health benefits, we posit that the limitations on medicines do not apply to it (see Yalkut Yosef, OC 328:78). The question of coloring the skin is fascinating. Coloring applies to the human body, as we know from the prohibition of certain cosmetics on these grounds (Shulchan Aruch, OC 303:25). While no one would forbid going outside in a place where he could get a sunburn or a tan, perhaps it is forbidden to purposely get one, especially if he take steps to increase the extent of the coloring. Indeed some poskim do forbid it (Minchat Yitzchak V:32; Az Nidberu II:30). Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata (14:44 and 18:(70)) implies that it is permitted because the person does not color through an action; rather he puts himself in a place where the sun does so. (Rav Neuwirth and his rebbe, Rav Auerbach, use this logic as part of their leniency for wearing photo gray lenses on Shabbat – see ibid.). Others add that the process is drawn out and has no immediate impact (see Torat Hamelachot 15:25). (Some melachot, such as cooking, always involve putting an object in a place where an outside force will have a gradual impact; the question is whether coloring is in this category.) Another claim is that the tanning is a natural, not artificial, color for skin (Nishmat Shabbat 215). It is hard to find conclusive proof from classical sources on these claims. However, for us, a general principle of “halachic philosophy” tips the scale. Since it is unreasonable to assume that the Torah and Chazal forbade walking in the sun on Shabbat, even if a person likes tanning, it is hard to imagine that the Torah/Chazal extended tzoveia to coloring the skin in the sun. Therefore, even purposeful tanning would be permitted. Therefore, while not being particularly enthusiastic at the prospect of someone spending a good part of his Shabbat sunbathing, we would not forbid it on halachic grounds. Selling vitamins, without a hashgacha, onlineI have a business selling vitamins and supplements online. We sell to a nationwide audience that aren't necessarily looking for kosher vitamins, and a large portion of the brands that we carry don't have any kosher certification. It was brought to my attention that there might be a halachic problem with selling non-kosher products even when it's sold to a non-jewish consumer. I would like to get in touch with a rabbi who can give me general guidance on this issue, and if needed, to provide personalized guidance by looking at the individual items that we carry to determine if any of them have "trief" ingredients and if those items need to be excluded from our inventory.The Mishna (Sheviit 7:3) states that it is forbidden to do business with items that are forbidden to eat. The Mishna is codified in the Shulchan Aruch Yoreh Deah 117:1. There is a dispute between the Rishonim and Achronim regarding if this prohibition is from the Torah or rabbinic[1]. The Gemara Yerushalmi (Bava Kama 7:7) states that this prohibition applies only to foods that would themselves be prohibited from the Torah to be eaten, but it is permitted to do business with foods that are only rabbinically forbidden to be eaten. This Halacha is codified by the Rambam (Maachalot Asurot 8:18) and Shulchan Aruch (Yoreh Deah 117:1). Furthermore, several poskim[2] write that if there is an opinion that the food is permitted to be eaten[3], even if one does not accept that opinion to permit eating the food, nevertheless, it is permitted to do business with such a food. Therefore, practically, it would seem that virtually all vitamins and supplements, even if they contain non-kosher ingredients, would be only rabbinically forbidden or there would be opinions who permit eating those ingredients[4], and therefore it is permitted to do business with vitamins and supplements. Ideally, if one could manage the internet business virtually, and have the vitamins and supplements stored elsewhere, and have non-Jews do the handling and shipping, then that would be preferred[5]. One should look through his inventory and check if any items do not meet the conditions stated above, and, if they do not, please contact with us with the details to see if it is permitted to sell them. Finally, it is important to note, that there probably will be Jewish consumers, who will unwittingly purchase vitamins and supplements, which have questionable kashrut issues or which are rabbinically forbidden, from the website. Therefore, if you could try to offer kosher vitamins where possible, then that would be meritorious[6]. [1]Tosafot Pesachim 23. "Amar Krah", the Rosh Bava Kama 7:13, and many other Rishonim and Achronim, including HaRav Shaul Yisroeli, Amud Hayimini 36, hold that the prohibition is from the Torah. However, the Shu"t HaRashba 3:223, Raavad, Nodeh BiYehuda Tinyana 62, and other poskim (it seems that this is the opinion of the Shach YD 117 S"K 2 as well) hold that the prohibition is only rabbinic. [2]Darkei Teshuva YD 117 S"K 15, 63 from the Be'er Yaakov, Minchat Shlomo 2:65:2, and see also Kaf HaChaim YD 117 footnote 19 from Rav Ovadiah Yosef. [3]Or even if there are opinions that the food is only rabbinically forbidden, D"T S"K 63. [4]For example: a) The non-Kosher ingredients are not fit for consumption: Often, the ingredients used in vitamins, especially in non-chewable pills, are not edible in their raw form before being produced into a pill, which is intended to be swallowed. There is no prohibition to eat non-kosher food if it is not fit for human consumption. Therefore, it would be permitted to sell such items. However, there is a dispute regarding whether when one intentionally ingests food that is not fit for human consumption if that shows that he considers it to be edible, and therefore it again becomes forbidden ("achshivei", see Rosh Pesachim 2:1). Firstly, one could argue that achsivei is not relevant here, since the food is inedible when one is selling it, and therefore permitted, the fact that the buyer plans on ingesting it afterward, thereby effecting achshivei, is not yet relevant. Secondly, many poskim say that achsivei itself does not exist, at least on a Torah level, outside of chametz on Pesach. The Rambam (Maachalot Asurot 14:11), for example, says that there is no Torah prohibition in eating inedible non-kosher food. Furthermore, if the pill is being taken for medicinal purposes, many poskim say that achsivei does not apply (see Chazon Ish Orach Chaim 116:8, Igrot Moshe Orach Chaim 2:92, and Yichave Daat 2:60). Finally, according to many poskim (see, for example, the Taz Orach Chaim 442 s"k 8) even when achsivei exists, it is only a rabbinic prohibition, and selling such pills would therefore be permitted. b) The amount of non-kosher ingredient that is ingested is small: It is forbidden from the Torah to eat even a small amount of forbidden food (see Rambam Shivitat Asor 2:3 and Shulchan Aruch Orach Chaim 612:5), although one would not be punished by Beit Din if he did not eat a significant amount (usually, a kzayit of solid food and a reviit of liquid, the precise amounts that this corresponds to is subject to debate, and beyond the scope of this discussion). However, there are opinions (Minchat Kohen Shaar Hataarovet 1:4 and Pri Chadash Orach Chaim 452), that if a small amount of non-kosher food is mixed in with a majority of kosher food (and one won't eat a kezayit of the non-kosher food within the time of kdei achilat pras), then the mixture is only rabbinically forbidden. This approach is followed by the Tzitz Eliezer 6:16:3), and the Minchat Shlomo (tinyana 64) explains that, therefore, such products would be permitted to be sold. c) The non-Kosher ingredients are only a minority: The Darkei Teshuva S"K 63 quotes from Rov Dovid Biztritch, that if most of the ingredients are kosher, even if there isn't 60 against the non-Kosher ingredients, then it is permitted to do business with such an item, since there are many opinions that taam k'ikar is only rabbinic (aside from mixtures of meat and milk). d) Chewable vitamins made with gelatin: Often, children's chewable vitamins are made with gelatin. Firstly, gelatin would probably be the minority of the vitamin. Secondly, although many forbade gelatin made from non-Kosher sources, since there are poskim who permit gelatin (see Achiezer 3:33:5, Tzitz Eliezer vol. 4 in the introduction, and Yabia Omer 8 Y"D 11), one may sell such items. d) Syrups containing glycerin: Syrups often contain glycerin, which can either be from kosher or non-kosher (animal) sources. Even if the glycerin is from an animal source, firstly, it would probably be only a minority ingredient, and secondly, the Tzitz Eliezer 6:16 believes that it is possibly kosher, and, at most Rabbinically forbidden, in which case one would be permitted to sell it. [5] As mentioned above (see footnote 1), there is a dispute regarding whether the prohibition to sell non-kosher foods is from the Torah or Rabbinic. The Shu"t HaRashba 3:223, as mentioned above, holds that it is Rabbinic, and he explains that the rabbis forbade doing business with such items, out of the concern that one might come to eat from them. The Shach (YD 117 S"K 2) offers another suggestion: the rabbis forbade doing business with such items out of concern that dealing with such items could lead other people to falsely suspect that he eats from them. The Pri Megadim (Siftei Daat Y"D 84 S"K 18), who holds that the prohibition is from the Torah, still suggests that the Torah prohibited doing business with such items out of the concern that he would come to eat from them. There were some poskim (Devar Moshe Yoreh Deah 13, see also Darchei Teshuva Y"D 117 S"K 17 and Kaf HaChaim Y"D 117 footnote 69 from Rav Ovadia Yosef) who explain, that if one does not come into contact with the non-kosher foods, such as if a non-Jewish partner deals with them, then one is permitted to benefit from their sale. However, many other poskim disagree with this opinion (see there in the Darkei Teshuva and Kaf HaChaim, also see the Pitchei Teshuva Y"D 117 S"K 6 who brings the Chatam Sofer Y"D 104-5 who is also stringent, without bringing any dissenting opinions), and it is not generally relied upon without other mitigating factors, still, in our situation it would be preferable if one would be able to arrange the business in such a way that would also be relying on the lenient opinions. [6]We don't mean to imply that it is forbidden to sell such vitamins or supplements if, statistically, one knows that Jewish purchasers will buy and use them, since, for a variety of reasons, it seems that lifenei iver and misayaah would not apply in this case. For a general discussion on the scope of lifenei iver and misayaah you can see Bmareh Habazak 5:37.
Children Waiting Between Meat and MilkI have children of various ages, and it is often difficult to have them wait six hours between meat and milk. Milk is an important part of their diet/lifestyle (including before bed), and eating disorders concern me.There is near consensus on the basic principles and only small differences regarding their application to common cases. Waiting six hours between meat and milk is a double-level stringency. The gemara (Chulin 105a) talks of waiting to the next meal to eat milk after meat. It implies that it is the proper way to be extra careful to avoid eating milk and meat together, and failure to do so may not be equivalent to eating a Rabbinically forbidden food. There is a machloket among the Rishonim if it is sufficient to finish the meat meal and take steps to ensure there is no meat in his mouth or whether one has to wait the normal time that exists between meals (see Beit Yosef and Darchei Moshe, Yoreh Deah 89). Sephardic authorities ruled the need for six (or so) hours, while significant Ashkenazic opinions required just to finish the meal or wait no more than an hour (see Rama, YD 89:1). While the prevalent practice of observant Ashkenazim is now to wait six hours, this may be more of a stringency than a clear ruling (see Chelkat Yaakov, YD 16). The consensus of poskim is that under the age of three, when a child is too young to be significantly educated in religious matters, they do not need to wait at all between eating meat and milk products (they should not be fed them at the same time at any age). Although we generally accept the opinion that forbids “feeding” a young child Rabbinically forbidden food (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 343:1), waiting between these two types of kosher foods is not included (see one of the explanations in Teshuvot V’hanhagaot I:435). After age three, children start becoming capable of following halachic restrictions, but their ability to keep some of them remains a factor. There is a concept, arising in several contexts (see Rama, OC 325:17), that the physical needs of a healthy child are halachically equivalent to the needs of a sick (non-life-threatened) person. For this reason, the halachot of even partial fasting on Yom Kippur begin only at age nine (Shulchan Aruch, OC 616:2). While waiting to eat milk products is not the same as fasting, a full-fledged requirement to wait six hours can compromise a young child’s well-being, especially those whose eating patterns are inflexible. Regarding the sick, very prominent opinions allow eating milk an hour after meat, after cleaning the mouth by eating and drinking (Chochmat Adam, 40:13; see Pitchei Teshuva, YD 89:3), including Sephardic poskim (see above; see Yalkut Yosef, YD III, p. 395 in the name of Zivchei Tzedek). Thus most poskim are equally lenient for children, at least under the age of nine (Chelkat Yaakov, ibid.; see Shema B’ni 54). Many take the pragmatic, graduated approach that the number of hours increases over time (ibid., in the name of Rav M. Feinstein; Teshuvot V’hanhagot, ibid.). Yalkut Yosef (ibid.), while legitimizing leniency even for Sephardim, limits it to eating nutritious food at meals, not to indulging in milchig treats. The Chelkat Yaakov posits that keeping six hours is a minhag and as such should not apply to children under bar mitzva, but he stops short of practical leniency to children over nine. Yalkut Yosef contemplates leniency until one year before bar/bat mitzva. A parent should use common sense and fine parenting skills in applying the general guidelines provided. The laws of chinuch (lit., education) have a formal element and a pragmatic one of how to best raise a specific child under specific circumstances. Maturity and demeanor are among the changing variables. In the face of potential eating disorders, some which can become grave, it is possible to be very lenient, and it is good for a family to have a wise rabbi they are in touch with. This forum does not enable giving advice regarding identifying real health concerns, including eating disorders. Buying Land for ShemittaA group is giving the opportunity to buy agricultural land in Israel for the Shemitta year. Is that worthwhile?We start with an overview of the agricultural mitzvot of Shemitta along with a brief analysis of the significance of obtaining land ownership. The Rambam (Lo Ta’aseh 220-223) lists four such negative commandments, about: 1) working the land; 2) tending to the trees; 3) reaping the produce in the normal way; 4) harvesting fruit of the trees in the normal way. The prohibition of working the land applies even to one who does not own the land. There is a machloket whether there is a Torah prohibition on harvesting someone else’s field (Chazon Ish, Shvi’it 12:5 is lenient; Rav Auerbach, Ma’adanei Eretz 7:4 is stringent). In any case, the reward for refraining from aveirot is a function of the availability of and the temptation toward the aveira (see Kiddushin 39b with Rashi). One who owns a distant, small piece of land is not tempted to work it. Just as we would not suggest buying a donkey and bull to refrain from plowing with them together, the above is not a reason to obtain land before Shemitta. The positive mitzvot are more pertinent. There is a machloket Rishonim whether the positive state of cessation from working the land (Rambam, Aseh 135) is a function of an individual’s work irrespective of ownership (Rambam Shvi’it 1:1) or whether it is a landowner’s responsibility to ensure his field is not worked (Ritva, Avoda Zara 15b). A third approach holds Jews responsible to save the land from being worked, including by redeeming it from non-Jews who may work it (Netziv, Vayikra 25:4). According to the Rambam, obtaining land is not a factor in creating this positive fulfillment (one who takes a sabbatical from his job as a farm worker would fulfill the mitzva). According to the Ritva, buying creates an opportunity to fulfill the mitzva. According to the Netziv (whose opinion is considered somewhat extreme), the mitzva entails obtaining land that would otherwise be worked. There is also a mitzva to deal properly with the fruit of one’s field that were planted before Shemitta or grew on trees, including treating it as ownerless (Aseh 134). While according to Rav Auerbach (above), elements of this mitzva can also be fulfilled by non-landowners in Another gain of buying land is helping farmers keep Shemitta properly. Rav Kook (see his introduction to Shabbat Ha’aretz) and all other poskim who supported the heter mechira, did not do so for those who were willing and able (without extreme financial hardship) to keep the mitzva. This is both in order to not uproot the mitzva and to avoid the great halachic problems involved in the heter mechira. Thus, helping interested farmers survive without selling their fields to non-Jews is similar to giving ma’ot chitim to one who cannot afford mehadrin Pesach provisions or donating to improve a mikveh according to the request of the local rabbi. (A member of the camp that rejects the heter mechira would view it as saving people from sin.) If one purchases the field at its value (including the overhead of arranging the sale), he should not use ma’aser kesafim, as he should not for buying an etrog (see Tzedaka U’mishpat 6:1). A donation (without buying land or the part of the price that is beyond the purchase’s value) to an organization that helps farmers may be taken from ma’aser money (see ibid. 10). We discovered that those who provide individuals with the land/mitzva opportunity include people who also plan to earn a lot of money (unfortunately, not all approbations of important rabbis relate to this element). Baruch Hashem, there are also those who are dedicated to helping farmers as well as providing a mitzva opportunity. While we will not rate groups publicly, we recommend to the wise mitzva consumer to check, not only the sale’s authenticity, but also the appropriateness of the price per area and the number of farmers who will be benefitting from the project. Restrictions of Motzaei Tisha B’AvWhat restrictions of Tisha B’Av/Nine Days exist after Tisha B’Av and until when?From the perspective of the gemara (Ta’anit 30a), the restrictions of the Nine Days end with the completion of Tisha (9th of) B’Av. This is not obvious, as the majority of the burning of the Beit Hamikdash was on the 10th of Av, and Rabbi Yochanan (ibid. 29a) said that he would have thought that the latter date is the more appropriate day for the fast. In fact there were Amoraim who fasted both days (Yerushalmi, Ta’anit 4:6). Based on this background, post-Talmudic minhagim developed to forbid certain matters after Tisha B’Av. The Tur (Orach Chayim 558) writes: “It is a proper minhag to not eat meat on the night of the 10th and the day of the 10th, just to relieve the spirit, so that it should be close to a fast.” The Bach understands this language as a double stringency: one should not eat any meat on the 10th; even regarding other foods, one should limit his eating as is befitting for a day that on some level should have been a fast. The second stringency is not accepted, as we eat non-meat foods normally after Tisha B’Av (although we can relate to Mikraei Kodesh’s (Harari – Fasts, 11:(29)) discomfort with those who, for example, go out for ice cream every Motzaei Tisha B’Av). The Shulchan Aruch (OC 558:1) cites the minhag to not eat meat or drink wine the whole night and day of the 10th. Various Acharonim limit the stringency somewhat. The Be’ur Halacha (ad. loc.) says that it is permitted to eat a food that was cooked with meat as long as one does not eat the meat itself. The Magen Avraham (558:1) says it is permitted to eat meat at a seudat mitzva (we will not get into the question of whether one is allowed to get married at that time). Finally, the Rama (ad loc.) sets the tone for Ashkenazim in limiting the minhag against meat and wine until midday of the 10th. Regarding other restrictions, Ashkenazim are stricter than Sephardim. The Shulchan Aruch mentions only meat and wine, and the Rama does not argue. However, the Maharshal (Shut 92) writes that since the minhag is to extend the Nine Days’ restriction of wine and meat into the 10th, the same should be true of laundering, haircutting, and bathing. The Mishna Berura (558:3) and the broad consensus of Ashkenazi poskim accept the Maharshal. Regarding Sephardim, the Chida and some other prominent poskim also accept this stringency. However, this part of the minhag was apparently not widely accepted, and therefore Rav Ovadia Yosef (Yechaveh Da’at V:41) says that Sephardim should follow the Shulchan Aruch’s opinion that only meat and wine are forbidden, whereas the rest of the restrictions cease right after Tisha B’Av. (The recitation of Shehecheyanu is questionable – see Torat Hamoadim, Fasts 11:5. Mikraei Kodesh (ibid. 18) cites Rav Mordechai Eliyahu as extending the restriction on music throughout the 10th.) There is room for leniency in cases of need regarding laundering, hair cutting, and bathing, even for Ashkenazim, for a few reasons. First, this part of the minhag is not just post-Talmudic, but even post-Shulchan Aruch. Secondly, it is much more common for there to be difficulty in continuing these restrictions, especially as the hot summer takes its toll and the stacks of laundry pile up. All agree that one can do any of these things in honor of Shabbat when Tisha B’Av falls on Thursday (Mishna Berura 558:3). (Halichot Shlomo I, 15:16 says that one can start washing on Thursday night and throw into a load of things needed for Shabbat even things that are not needed for Shabbat, but that haircutting should wait for Friday.) There are other situations, such as people leaving home soon after Tisha B’Av who need a supply of laundry, where stringency is likely beyond the call of duty. (When Tisha B’Av is pushed off from Shabbat to Sunday, Motzaei Tisha B’Av is the 11th, and there is only a restriction on meat and wine and only at night – Rama, OC 558:1). Eating ContestsPlease state your opinion on whether eating contests violate any prohibitions such as bal tashchit? (I am a reporter writing an article.) Is there a difference between contests of volume (e.g., tens of hot dogs in ten minutes) and of speed (e.g., eating three hot dogs fastest)?Presumably, one with a Torah-based mindset will react negatively to such contests (with good reason). However, we do not believe in using words like “forbidden” without honestly weighing halachic issues. We start with the issue you raised – bal tashchit (not destroying). This prohibition, beyond the Torah context of destroying trees, is hard to pin down. The Rambam (Melachim 6:10) describes it as applying not to wasting but to destroying things, including “me’abed ma’achalot derech hashchata” (destroying food in a destructive way). The stress of a destructive manner opens the door for allowing arguably wasteful usage of objects of value for such purposes as recreation (see Etz Hasadeh (Shtesman) 11:2). The fact that, after all, we are discussing eating makes it harder to claim the ingestion of the food is destructive. Rav Zilberstein (in Tzohar, 5758) claims that Rashi would consider stuffing oneself bal tashchit. In discussing one who is bloated eating more, the gemara (Yoma 80b) describes the action as “not eating” but “damaging,” and Rashi (ad loc.) says he damages the food and himself. If it is called damaging the food, it is likely bal tashchit. However, it would seem that since the context there is the parameters of forbidden eating (e.g., Yom Kippur, non-kosher food) and not bal tashchit, it is hard to know what Rashi would say in our context. Another, related (see Rashi, Ta’anit 20b) issue is bizuy ochlin (disgrace of food). Halacha distinguishes between foods (see Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 171:1). Most foods are disgraced only when they are soiled and made unappetizing prior to eating. It is hard to apply that to eating, even if in a not natural way. Bread, though, may not be handled disrespectfully (e.g., throwing it) even when it is unaffected. Thus, while it is hard to consider over-eating an objective bizuy ochlin for most foods, it is reasonable to consider stuffing bread (including hot dog buns) down one’s throat in the context of extreme over-eating forbidden situational bizuy. Safety concerns are also questionable. A small number of people have died (mainly from choking) at eating contests, and it is not wonderful for one’s digestive system. We find in Chazal particular concern for not eating in a dangerous or even not healthy manner (speaking while eating – Ta’anit 5b; eating standing – Gittin 70a). On the other hand, in addition to our reluctance to taking stands on medical matters, we do not want to be hypocritical by outright forbidding eating contests on health grounds when so many people eat very unhealthily. There are a few semi-halachic, semi-philosophical areas about which people can argue, but we will skip to an issue that we believe at least eating contests of volume clearly violate – bal teshaktzu. A secondary application of Vayikra 11:43 is that one should not put his body in a situation in which he feels disgusted. Classic examples include holding in a strong need to eliminate and eating in a manner that disgusts him (Makkot 16b). It is true that poskim allow such situations for certain needs (e.g., one is in public without access to a bathroom – Mishna Berura 3:17; a sick person who needs to ingest a medicine that disgusts him – see Pri Megadim, Siftei Da’at 81:3). However, the anyway dubious practice of an eating contest is not adequate justification. Regarding an eating “sprint” of three hot dogs, we lack the expertise to determine whether contestants necessarily disgust themselves or whether fast swallowing is just a technical skill of swallowing a normal amount of food unusually fast. The food can certainly be used by the body in a normal manner. Therefore, objections to such a contest would be based more on philosophical/ethical grounds than halachic ones. Making Berachot on the Animals in a ZooTo date I have not made berachot on animals I have seen in the zoo, but it seems from sifrei halacha that one should. Should I start doing so, and, if so, what are the basic rules?(We will not discuss the beracha for beautiful animals, which the Mishna Berura (226:32) already said is not really in practice in our times). A baraita (Berachot 58b) says that when one sees an elephant, a monkey, or a kafof (the exact species is unclear), he recites the beracha “…meshaneh haberiyot” (who makes diverse creations). This beracha is also cited regarding abnormalities within humans. Matters of abnormalities are likely to involve an element of subjectivity, as we will mention later. Rav Shlomo Zalman Auerbach is cited as saying the beracha applies to any unusual animal (Halichot Shlomo 23:35). Others say that the list is a closed one (see V’zot Haberacha, p. 156), which can be true for a few reasons. Perhaps Chazal saw a unique characteristic in those animals (see Meiri, Berachot 58b). Even if it could theoretically apply to other animals, it is difficult to know what to consider unusual, and therefore it is best to recite such berachot only when we are sure. (I do not why we are sure what type of monkey Chazal were referring to – a gorilla looks quite different from a chimpanzee, or a mandrel, etc.) There is also a question as to how often to make the beracha. Rav Auerbach is cited (Halichot Shlomo, ibid.) as instructing zoo-goers to recite the beracha on the first animal one finds definitely fascinating and intend to cover the other animals. This approach can be justified on several grounds. When one expects to have different occasions in close proximity where a certain beracha applies, it is often better to make one beracha for all of them (e.g., regarding eating; see Yoreh Deah 19 regarding shechita). It also removes doubt that will arise when it is not clear if a beracha is again necessary. There is also logic to view the trip to the zoo as one experience, as I will explain. Perhaps, it is not that each animal needs to have or be included in a beracha, as different foods do. Rather, seeing unusual animals makes one reflect on the wonder of creation, and the entire trip to the zoo is focused on that. It seems that most religious Jews do not make a beracha on animals in the zoo, including elephants. Does this have any justification? First, it is far from clear that when the beracha is appropriate, it is obligatory (see a brief discussion in Yabia Omer IV, OC 20). Additionally, the Shulchan Aruch (OC 225:9) says that this beracha should be said only the first time in a lifetime for each unusual sight, when it has its greatest impact. If one neglected to make the beracha or was a child at the first opportunity, the beracha is not made up later (see Birkat Hashem, IV, 3:28). While the Rama (ad loc.) says that the clock is reset every thirty days, as is often the case regarding similar berachot, the Mishna Berura (225:30) suggests making the beracha without Hashem’s name. More fundamentally, we must recall the beracha’s subjective nature and note that times have changed. Once upon a time, a person could go through a lifetime without seeing a monkey or even a picture of one, and the excitement of seeing one made a beracha more natural. Nowadays, people go to the zoo periodically and whenever they want, and they have seen images of elephants and exotic animals many times (all agree the beracha can only be said on seeing them in person). Therefore, the excitement is not the same. (Seeing one in its habitat is likely different.) Therefore, those who do not make the beracha at the zoo do not need to begin doing so. However, those who do say or want to start, especially those who get excited by the animal kingdom with whom Hashem has us share the world, do not have to fear beracha l’vatala (see Yabia Omer, ibid.), at least on monkeys, elephants or astounding animals. One can certainly make the beracha without Hashem’s name and should certainly think of Him often during the visit. Havadala on Yom Kippur Which Falls on ShabbatI know that Havdala after Yom Kippur is different than it is on Motzaei Shabbat. How do we treat matters when Yom Kippur falls on Shabbat?How to treat Havdala after Yom Kippur that fell on Shabbat depends on the logic of each individual element of Havdala. We will proceed according to the order of Havdala. In such a Havdala we do say the p’sukim that precede Borei Pri Hagefen like after a regular Shabbat (Mateh Ephrayim 624:5; Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 62:27). The accepted reason for the beracha on besamim in Havdala is that one loses his neshama yeteira (literally, extra soul) when Shabbat ends and the besamim help revive him (Tosafot, Beitza 33b). After Yom Kippur this does not apply because there is no neshama yeteira on Yom Kippur (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 624:3; see Beit Yosef, ad loc.). The Shulchan Aruch (ibid.) says that even if Yom Kippur falls on Shabbat, the fact that it is a fast day means that there is no neshama yeteira. (See Rashi, Beitza 16a who connects between neshama yeteira and eating.) However, many (especially, Ashkenazic) poskim argue with the Shulchan Aruch, as the coinciding of Yom Kippur should not take away the innate kedusha of a regular Shabbat (see Mishna Berura 624:5 and Sha’ar Hatziyun 624:6). The Taz (624:2) points out that it is certainly not a beracha l’vatala to make the beracha on besamim, as one makes a beracha any time he purposely smells such a fragrance. The question is mainly on saying it in its regular place where it gets in between the beracha on the wine and its drinking (thus raising hefsek questions). Regarding practice, there is no right or wrong answer for Ashkenazim, as there are minhagim either way (see Mishna Berura ibid. and Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 62:28). If one smells the besamim and makes the beracha after drinking, there is little to lose (Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata, ibid.). Sephardim certainly should not go against the Shulchan Aruch’s ruling and make the beracha during Havdala. However, Sephardim may make the beracha after drinking if they like (see Kaf Hachayim 624:9; Mikraei Kodesh (Harari), p. 298). A final issue is regarding the requirements of the fire for the beracha of Borei Me’orei Ha’esh. There are two reasons to make the beracha on Motzaei Shabbat. One is that fire was discovered on Motzaei Shabbat (Rosh, Berachot 8:3). The other is that it becomes permitted to use fire, which was restricted on Shabbat. The former does not apply after Yom Kippur that falls during the week, so that the latter becomes the main idea after Yom Kippur. Due to this distinction, specifically after Yom Kippur it is necessary that the light the beracha is made on existed on Yom Kippur and people refrained from using it (Pesachim 54a). That is why people use a flame that was lit from a ‘yahrtzeit candle’ which was lit throughout the day. When Yom Kippur falls on Shabbat and there is also the first reason to make the beracha, a new flame that was lit on Motzaei Shabbat should suffice (Ritva, ad loc.). However, opinions do exist (such as the Magen Avraham 624:7) that one should anyway use a light that existed and was not used on Yom Kippur, in order to stress the fact that on Yom Kippur it was forbidden to use fire. The Mishna Berura (624:7), while not being impressed by this argument (see Sha’ar Hatziyun 624:9), notes that the minhag is to be stringent on the matter. However, he says that if one makes the beracha not on a new fire that was created by friction but from a flame that was transferred from it, one may certainly be lenient. (Note that this condition is fulfilled normally when one uses a match to light the Havdala candle.) Nevertheless, there are still people who are careful to use the yahrtzeit candle system (Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 62:35). Unquestionably, one who does not have such a flame available should make the beracha normally. Diapers With Disappearing InkIs it permitted to use on Shabbat a diaper with forms on the outside that disintegrate when the diaper is soaked, alerting parents to change the diaper?There is a Torah-level violation to erase (mochek) writing or, according to many, a picture or figure (see Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 340:3; Beur Halacha to 340:4). When the erasure does not serve a positive purpose such as enabling new writing, the violation is only Rabbinic (Mishna Berura 340:17). Thus, the diapers in question would seem to have no more than a Rabbinic prohibition. Another possible reason for no Torah prohibition is that the erasure’s result may be “destructive” (mekalkel). It is debated whether considering the side benefit, that the disintegration provides desirable information, it is mekalkel (see Beur Halacha to 340:13). The main cause for leniency relates to who and how the erasing is done. Directly, it is the baby who erases by urinating, but he is almost always too young to require training in Shabbat prohibitions. Although one must not “feed” children prohibited matters, he may allow a situation in which a baby might choose to do a forbidden action (see Yevamot 114a). Here it is even better, as the baby “violates” Shabbat without any knowledge of this consequence of his action, in which case it is not a fundamental Shabbat violation even for an adult (see Shut Rabbi Akiva Eiger I:8). Thus, the question is whether the adult violates Shabbat by creating a situation in which a future event will set off a melacha. Specifically, putting the diaper on the baby creates a situation where erasure will occur. When the direct cause (urination) of the erasure has yet to occur at the time of the adult’s action (diapering), we say that the adult acted through gerama (indirect action). Violation of Shabbat through gerama is a very low level violation of Shabbat, to the extent that it is permitted in certain cases of need (Rama, OC 334:22). In this case, there are often additional points of leniency. For parents who are not interested in the erasure, as they can easily determine the “old way” when the diaper is soaked, the erasure is permitted as a davar she’eino mitkaven (an unintentional forbidden result of one’s action) of the diapering. It is true that when the forbidden result is a definite outcome (psik reishei), the action is forbidden by Torah law (Ketubot 6b). However, when the result is arrived at through gerama, many important poskim permit psik reishei (Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 12:18, based on Rav Auerbach; see discussion in Orchot Shabbat 29:(41)). Some say that gerama is permitted in cases where direct action is only Rabbinically forbidden. Other opinions disagree, and in any case the leniency likely does not apply to every Rabbinic prohibition (see Yabia Omer III, OC 17). Yet the above is probably not needed, as, in actuality, the erasure is not a psik reishei. For a variety of reasons, including the baby soiling with solids before the diaper is soaked, diapers do not always reach the point that forms are erased. When there are not meaningful figures of letters but just a line or dots, there is even more room for leniency, as erasing such nondescript things is not a (full) violation of mochek unless the erasure uncovers or enables writing (see Shulchan Aruch, OC 340:3; Orchot Shabbat 15:59). We find this distinction in such cases as cutting cake with writing or clear figures vs. nondescript shapes (Rama, OC 340:3). One may generally use diapers with disintegrating ink (Orchot Shabbat 15:52). However, note that many of the reasons for leniency are based on the assumption that one does not have intention when diapering for the erasure, which is a valid assumption when one did not intentionally buy diapers with this marginally useful feature. However, for one who values this function, use of such diapers on Shabbat may very well be forbidden and should be avoided. (Regarding a slightly stricter case of a color-changing strip, see the Star-K website, which has a similar ruling to the above.) Owning a grocery store that sells non-kosher productsI would greatly appreciate if the Rabbi can kindly clarify the following halachic question; is it permissible for a Jew to own a local convenience/mini grocery store that also stock's/sell's some non-Kosher products?The Mishna (Sheviit 7:3) states that it is forbidden to do business with items that are forbidden to eat. The Mishna is codified in the Shulchan Aruch Yoreh Deah 117:1. There is a dispute between the Rishonim and Achronim regarding if this prohibition is from the Torah or rabbinic[1].[1] The Gemara Yerushalmi (Bava Kama 7:7) states that this prohibition applies only to foods that would themselves be prohibited from the Torah to be eaten, but it is permitted to do business with foods that are only rabbinically forbidden to be eaten. This Halacha is codified by the Rambam (Maachalot Asurot 8:18) and Shulchan Aruch (Yoreh Deah 117:1). Furthermore, several authorities[2] write that if there is an opinion that the food is permitted to be eaten[3], even if one does not accept that opinion to permit eating the food, nevertheless, it is permitted to do business with such a food. Therefore, since it seems that most products sold in a convenience store, even if they don’t bear a kosher symbol, would either be only rabbinically forbidden[4] or would be considered kosher according to some opinions, they could therefore be sold. Non-kosher meat and non-kosher fish (e.g. shellfish) products should not be sold. There are probably some other products that would be prohibited to be eaten from the Torah, but we aren’t able to give a list of every potential item, so if you have more questions relating to specific products please feel free to ask[5]. Finally, it is important to note, that there probably will be Jewish consumers who will unwittingly purchase foods from the store, which have questionable kashrut issues or which are rabbinically forbidden. Therefore, if you could try to offer kosher products where possible (meaning, when the price difference between a kosher and non-kosher item is negligible), then that would be meritorious[6]. [1]Tosafot Pesachim 23. "Amar Krah", the Rosh Bava Kama 7:13, and many other Rishonim and Achronim, including HaRav Shaul Yisroeli, Amud Hayimini 36, hold that the prohibition is from the Torah. However, the Shu"t HaRashba 3:223, Raavad, Nodeh BiYehuda Tinyana 62, and other poskim (it seems that this is the opinion of the Shach YD 117 S"K 2 as well) hold that the prohibition is only rabbinic. [2]Darkei Teshuva YD 117 S"K 15, 63 from the Be'er Yaakov, Minchat Shlomo 2:65:2, and see also Kaf HaChaim YD 117 footnote 19 from Rav Ovadiah Yosef. [3]Or even if there are opinions that the food is only rabbinically forbidden, Darkei Teshuva S"K 63. [4] For example, if a product contains a minority of non-kosher ingredients, the Darkei Teshuva S"K 63 quotes from Rov Dovid Biztritch, that even if there isn't 60 against the non-Kosher ingredients, then it is permitted to do business with such an item, since there are many opinions that taam k'ikar is only rabbinic (aside from mixtures of meat and milk). [5] The Aruch Hashulchan (Y”D 117:27) writes that there were store owners who did sell Torah forbidden products in their store. He attempts to justify their actions by explaining that if they wouldn’t stock such items, then they would lose a significant percentage of customers, and, in addition, the Torah forbidden products were only a small minority of the items being sold, therefore the Torah forbidden items are somehow rendered insignificant vis a vis the rest of the items in the store. This opinion should not be relied upon under normal circumstances. If there is a very pressing need, then one should ask a rabbi whether it is possible to rely upon the Aruch Hashulchan. [6]We don't mean to imply that it is forbidden to sell such products if, statistically, one knows that Jewish purchasers will buy and eat them, since, for a variety of reasons, it seems that lifenei iver and misayaah would not apply in this case. For a general discussion on the scope of lifenei iver and misayaah you can see Bmareh Habazak 5:37. Our understanding is that the question is in regards to a store outside of Melaveh Malka for WomenMy husband is careful to have a melaveh malka that includes bread and meat. I do not have at all. Should there be a difference between men and women on the matter?The gemara (Shabbat 119b, accepted by the Rambam, Shabbat 30:5 and Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 300:1) says: “One should always set his table on Motzaei Shabbat, even if he needs only a k’zayit [of food].” Rashi explains that it is an honor to Shabbat to “escort” it as one escorts a king when he leaves. Various authorities add other, esoteric reasons. A crucial (including for techiyat hameitim) bone in the body is nourished by food eaten on Motzaei Shabbat (Beit Yosef, OC 300 in the name of ancient works). Another idea is that eating after Shabbat draws the sanctity of Shabbat meals onto weekday eating (see Kaf Hachayim, OC 300:2). Some say it is a segula for women for easy childbirth (see Kaf Hachayim 300:4). However, melaveh malka has a long history of not being kept by the masses, as acknowledged by authorities who nonetheless believed in adhering to it (see Aruch Hashulchan, OC 300:3). It is unclear to what extent melaveh malka is a weak but binding obligation, a proper practice (see Shulchan Aruch Harav OC 300:3; Mishna Berura 300:2), and/or a spiritual opportunity. It is also tricky to implement melaveh malka because there are many things mentioned by one or more poskim to enhance the practice (we will mention only some). The gemara, after the above quote, mentions both (hot) bread and meat, which some, like your husband, see as matters to be makpid about (see Maharsha Shabbat 119b; Mishna Berura 300:1). The gemara implies (as the Taz, OC 300:1 understood) that the main factor is actually the setting of the table, and the food seems an afterthought (“even … a k’zayit”) or that which makes the table “the stage.” Many people who are machmir regarding eating ignore such elements mentioned by poskim as a nice tablecloth, place setting, and candles – matters of kavod modeled after Shabbat. On the other hand, some of the reasons given for melaveh malka do indeed focused on food, as does the ensuing passages of the gemara. Some hiddurim mentioned are close to mutually exclusive. It is best to have melaveh malka soon after Shabbat; yet, it is best to cook for it after Shabbat. One idea is to eat something right away for melaveh malka, with Shabbat ambience, and have more serious eating later (Siddur Beit Yaakov (Emdin) p. 206b). Is there room for leniency not to have a melaveh malka? Besides the possibility that it is not halachically required, there is a serious opinion (Eliya Rabba 300:1, quoted by many; see Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 63:6) that any eating at seuda shlishit after nightfall (whose exact time is unclear) counts as a melaveh malka. The Tehilla L’Dovid’s (300:1) cogent argument that since we treat that time as Shabbat, it cannot count for melaveh malka does not delegitimize the lenient shita (Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 63:6). Many poskim (including the Mishna Berura 300:1) say that one can fulfill melaveh malka without a full meal, even with fruit, as makes sense from the legitimacy of doing so for the greater obligation of seuda shlishit (see Shulchan Aruch, OC 291:5). Women do have some extra room for leniency because melaveh malka is ostensibly a time-based mitzva (see doubt of Pri Megadim 300, EA 1). On the other hand, we assume that women are obligated in such mitzvot when they relate to Shabbat, i.e., Havdala and seuda shlishit (Machatzit Hashekel ad loc., based on Magen Avraham 291:11), as all agree regarding Kiddush (Berachot 20b). Furthermore, many women will presumably desire and deserve their share of the aforementioned spiritual treasures (see Kaf Hachayim 300:2). In summary, your husband’s practices are positive, although there is room for doing more or doing less. You do have incrementally more room for leniency than he. However, we recommend that you have at least some food in an honorable setting in honor of Shabbat after it has departed (see Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 63:3). Birkat Haoreach (blessing of a guest for the host) when eating one’s own foodI was wondering if I should be saying Bircat Haoreach when I eat my own food at a friend's home.There is no obligation to say birkat haoreach if you are eating your own food (see Mishna Berura 193:27 and 201:7 that the beracha is for the one who provides the food and is not dependent on where you are eating) Using a Shabbat Clock for an UrnMy hot water urn has a Shabbat setting, in which the water is heated at a constant level and the switch for boiling the water is disabled. The socket where I plug it in is on a Shabbat clock that is off at night. When it goes on in the morning, the water that has become cold heats back up. Is that permitted?Although we accept the opinions among Rishonim that it is forbidden to reheat boiled water that has cooled down (Shulchan Aruch and Rama, Orach Chayim 318:4,15), you would not be considered cooking since this is done automatically. The question is whether your setup violates the Rabbinical prohibitions of shehiya or chazara. Shehiya, leaving food on the flame from before Shabbat, is sometimes forbidden, out of a concern one will raise the heat. It is permitted if the heat source is covered in a way that reduces its efficiency (Shulchan Aruch, OC 253:1) or (likely) regarding a non-adjustable heat source (Hilchot Shabbat (Eider), p. 340). However, neither lenient factor exists here (one can raise the heat from Shabbat to normal mode). It is usually permitted to use this urn when the water has already been boiled, as further boiling causes unwanted evaporation (see Shulchan Aruch ibid.). Your case could possibly be more problematic since one may desire the extra heat to heat the cold water. Chazara, returning food on Shabbat that had been removed from the heat, has more stringency, including that it is forbidden on a normal, adjustable heat source even if raising the temperature is detrimental (ibid. 2). Is your case considered chazara, considering that the heat is returned to function by a machine rather than a person? The answer may depend on the reason of the stringency of chazara. Rabbeinu Tam says it is a heightened concern one will raise the heat since the food was returned after time off the flame. The Ran says that returning cooked food to a heat source can be confused with cooking. In this case, Rabbeinu Tam’s reason seems to apply, while the Ran’s does not since you do nothing on Shabbat. Let us examine discussion about a parallel case. The Pri Megadim (OC, EA 253:41) and the Chazon Ish (OC 37:21) wonder about the permissibility of various cases similar to what the Rama (OC 253:5) allows. A non-Jew may put, on Shabbat morning, cold cooked food near a fireplace, which a non-Jew will be permitted to light due to the great cold, thereby also heating the food. Why are we not concerned that after the fireplace is on, a Jew will stoke the coals? The Pri Megadim suggests that this must rely on the opinion that reheating liquids is permitted, and so too the reheating is not significant enough to prompt one to stoke the coals. The Chazon Ish gives a few possible answers. One is that we treat a case where the food is put down when there is no heat as equivalent to shehiya. This helps since the Chazon Ish claims elsewhere (37:27) that the concern of raising the flame regarding shehiya does not apply to fully cooked food even if it is now cold. On the other hand, reheating cooled water may be worse than reheating other cooked foods (Orchot Shabbat 2:(11)). There is further room for leniency considering that Shabbat started with the urn operating and there was no action since then (see Am Mordechai, Shabbat, p. 51). Still, the Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata ( Your urn has a feature that provides further grounds for leniency – when the Shabbat mode is on, one cannot raise the heat. This is similar, in some ways, to one who seals an oven where food is heating, which is permitted even though the seal can be removed (Shabbat 18b). It is unclear if the Shabbat-mode button that is deactivated by a simple press is sufficient deterrent (see cases in Orchot Shabbat Beracha on Pureed Vegetable SoupI read your recent response about the beracha on the broth of vegetable soup. Is the halacha any different for pureed vegetable soup?You will remember that according to most fundamental approaches, based on the gemara (Berachot 39a), the beracha on the clear broth of vegetable soup is Borei Pri Ha’adama. On the other hand, there are enough factors against saying Ha’adama to convince most contemporary poskim to prefer Shehakol. Pureed soup shares certain factors, but other factors point in different directions. We dealt with an apparent contradiction with the gemara (ibid. 38a) that says that the beracha on most fruit juices is Shehakol. Another reason to not make Ha’adama on vegetable soup broth is the contention of Rav Shlomo Zalman Auerbach and others that these soups often lack sufficient vegetable taste to justify it. These issues do not apply to pureed soup because one is not consuming just the juice/broth but the whole essence and taste of the vegetables. However, in another way, the situation points more toward Shehakol than toward Ha’adama. We saw the Rosh (Shut 4:15) who says that the broth’s beracha is Ha’adama when and because it is normal for people to cook the vegetables to eat them. The broth is thus dependent on the vegetables, which generally exist even if one is eating only the broth. In this case, though, the vegetables cease to exist as a solid, clearly recognizable entity. V’zot Haberacha (p. 404) entertains the possibility that the beracha should be determined as Ha’adama when it was cooked, before it was pureed. However, he concludes that we follow the form in which it is eaten, certainly when the intention when cooking it was to puree it before eating. Since the soup is actually a semi-liquefied form of mashed vegetables, it is necessary to determine what the beracha is on mashed vegetables. The gemara (Berachot 38a) says that when one takes dates and crushes them into terima, their beracha remains Borei Pri Ha’etz. What is terima? The Rambam and the Shulchan Aruch (Orach Chayim 202:7) say it is totally crushed to the point that it is “like dough,” and yet the beracha is unchanged. The same should apparently apply to a mashed vegetable. On the other hand, Rashi (ad loc.) says that terima is only partially crushed, and based on this, the Terumat Hadeshen (29) and Rama (OC 202:7) say that mashed fruit (and presumably vegetables) should get the safer beracha of Shehakol. This does not necessarily turn into a clear machloket between Ashkenazim and Sephardim, as the Rama says that if one recited the beracha of the fruit/vegetable he can assume he was yotzei. Sephardi poskim also disagree whether to follow the Shulchan Aruch or to also make the safer Shehakol in light of this machloket Rishonim (see V’zot Haberacha, p. 99, Birkat Hashem 7:26-29). Based on the above, we should, on the practical level, distinguish between different levels of puree. If the vegetables are pulverized to the point that there are no or few pieces of discernable vegetables, even if the soup is thick, then the more accepted beracha is Shehakol. However, if the soup is lumpy, then the beracha should be Ha’adama (V’ten Beracha (Bodner), p. 434). This distinction is similar to what many say regarding types of apple sauce and peanut butter. Those who make Ha’adama even for smooth pureed soup have what to rely upon, especially considering the fact that the stronger fundamental opinion regarding mashed potatoes, even if this not usually suggested, is to recite Ha’adama (see Mishna Berura 202:42). An Oven Used for Chillul ShabbatI want to use an otherwise kosher oven that was used for cooking food in a manner of clear chillul Shabbat. Has it become “treif”?Food that is cooked on Shabbat is one of many examples of ma’aseh Shabbat (the result of chillul Shabbat), and as such is forbidden to be eaten. Your question is a good one: does such food treif up utensils? The answer seems dependent on whether ma’aseh Shabbat regarding food is a prohibition against benefit (which, for food, is usually eating) or whether the food is considered ma’achalot assurot (what we call nonkosher). If the former, any residue in the oven will not bring you real benefit. If the latter, then the food is like any other that treif up an oven (we will not discuss how an oven becomes treif or how it is kashered). One reason to not consider this food ma’achalot assurot is that it is prohibited for an external reason – not because of an intrinsic problem with the food per se, but due to its connection to a bad situation. The Ktav Sofer (Orach Chayim 50) compares ma’aseh Shabbat food to bishul akum, as that food is also not intrinsically problematic but tainted by a situation. There is a machloket Rishonim whether bishul akum treifs up a pot (see Tur, Yoreh Deah 113 – the Rashba is strict; the Rosh is lenient). The Shulchan Aruch (YD 113: 16) cites both positions, but prefers the stringent one (he is slightly lenient on how to kasher it). Indeed, the Magen Avraham (318:1) cites the Rashba as saying that ma’aseh Shabbat food treifs the utensil in which it was cooked, and he and the Mishna Berura (318:4) accept this position. Regarding the above fundamental chakira, Rav Orbach (Minchat Shlomo I:5) sees this Magen Avraham as a proof that ma’aseh Shabbat food is ma’achalot assurot. On the other hand, many disagree. Besides significant opinions that are lenient regarding a pot used for bishul akum, this case includes additional reasons for leniency. The Mateh Yehuda (cited by Livyat Chen 42) says that the Rashba only implies that according to R. Yochanan Hasandler (Ketubot 34a) who views ma’aseh Shabbat as an intrinsic Torah law, a utensil would become treif. However, according to the Tannaim that ma’aseh Shabbat is a penalty, only the actual food, which gives real benefit, is forbidden. Some (see Teshuvot V’hanhagot II:196) point out that the Gra rules like R. Meir (Ketubot ibid.) that even the food itself becomes permitted after Shabbat. Finally, there are strong indications that ma’aseh Shabbat does not create ma’achalot assurot. According to the opinion of R. Yehuda, which the Shulchan Aruch (OC 318:1) accepts, the food is forbidden forever only for the person who was mechallel Shabbat. This distinction is difficult if ma’aseh Shabbat is ma’achalot assurot, which are generally objective prohibitions (Ktav Sofer, ibid.). I would add that the fact that ma’aseh Shabbat applies to many nonfood melachot works more cleanly if they all share the categorization of prohibitions of benefit. It is hard for an Ashkenazi posek to argue with the opinions of the Magen Avraham and the Mishna Berura, at least without other grounds for leniency (see Orchot Shabbat 25:53). Rav Ovadia Yosef (Livyat Chen 42), on the other hand, concludes that the basic halacha is to be lenient and views kashering utensils in this case as only laudable. Working in a Non-Kosher EstablishmentIs it permitted for a religious Jew to work (e.g., as a waiter) in a non-kosher restaurant or café where most of the food is not kosher?The question is general(/theoretical?), so we will not ask clarifying questions. The issue of providing non-kosher food for Jewish customers is beyond our scope. Most non-kosher foods are permitted in benefit. Some notable exceptions are chametz, wine with a concern of use for idolatry, and beef and milk that were cooked together. In such cases, one may not earn money from dealing with them, even if he does not own the food or get direct physical benefit from it (see Taz, Orach Chayim 150:6). However, it is not common for these foods to be forbidden in benefit according to all opinions. Regarding wine, many are lenient about benefit in times (like ours) where libations for idolatry are rare) (see Shulchan Aruch, Yoreh Deah 124:6; Rama, YD 123:1). Regarding meat and milk, many combinations are permitted in benefit (e.g., poultry, meat from a non-kosher animal, combined without cooking – learn Yoreh Deah 87). It is thus possible that one could work in a non-Jewish restaurant without violating a prohibition of benefiting from forbidden foods (see more in Tzitz Eliezer XVII:33). Another issue is working professionally with food that is forbidden to eat. The gemara (Pesachim 23a) derives that even concerning forbidden foods from which one may benefit, one may not seek to obtain them for commercial purposes (sechora), just that he can sell that which came his way. According to most Rishonim (see Shut Chatam Sofer, YD 104-106, 108), this is a Torah-level law, although significant opinions among Rishonim and Acharonim say it is Rabbinic (see Noda B’Yehuda II, YD 62). The Rashba (Shut Your question is the opposite case – someone who does not own the food but is in a situation where he is liable to eat it. The Pitchei Teshuva (YD 117:6) assumes that if the prohibition of sechora is to distance one from eating the food, we should follow that logic for stringency and not allow one to work with non-kosher food even without owning it. On the other hand, many poskim (including Sho’el U’meishiv I, There are often additional grounds for leniency. Sechora is forbidden only regarding food forbidden by Torah law (Shulchan Aruch, YD 117:1). In many dairy eateries, the food is primarily forbidden Rabbinically, at least according to many opinions (again, beyond our scope). When the commerce is mainly not in the context of the prohibition of sechora, even if some is problematic, it is likely not forbidden (see Shut Chatam Sofer, YD 108). The classic example is one who raises animals for kosher meat and sells the forbidden parts of the animal to non-Jews. Even when the prohibition of sechora does not apply, it might still be halachically required to refrain from situations where one could easily come to eat non-kosher food (see a variety of opinions in Yabia Omer IV: YD 6). One interesting source is the Maharsha on Rashi, Chulin 106a, who discusses one who, after separating the non-kosher parts of an animal, would cook them before selling them to non-Jews. The issue of the practical concern of eating may be influenced greatly by the type of contact with the food and the extent to which one has permission to eat freely from the food with which he is working (see Yabia Omer ibid.). Preference of Davening in a ShulIs there a preference of davening in a beit knesset as opposed to a house-minyan? Does it matter if the place is not an actual shul but consistently hosts a minyan?The short answer is that there is probably, a small preference. The gemara (Berachot 6a) says: “A person’s prayer is heard only in a beit knesset, as it says: ‘… to hear the praise and the prayer’ (Melachim I, 8:28) – at the place of the praise, there should be the prayer.” The Rambam (Tefilla 8:1) cites this idea with the addition that the prayers will not be “heard at all times” outside of a beit knesset. This would seem to be an important reason to daven specifically in a shul, and indeed the Shulchan Aruch (Orach Chayim 90:9) writes: “A person should try to daven in a beit knesset with the community.” He continues that there is also a preference to daven in a beit knesset even if he will be davening there alone (this is the subject of a machloket Rishonim - see Beit Yosef, OC 90). The question is whether all davening out of a beit knesset is inferior and to what extent. The Magen Avraham (90:15) cites, as the reason for the Shulchan Aruch’s recommendation, the idea of b’rov am hadrat melech (roughly, it is preferable to the King when there is a large group). The Pri Megadim (ad loc.) posits that even without the factor of b’rov am, a shul is always a preference, as he assumes that the preferences of a minyan and a shul are both called for. This is not a clear conclusion. The Tzelach (Berachot 6a) says that the important thing is having one’s tefilla heard and that this can be accomplished either by davening in a shul, even as an individual, or by davening with a minyan, even out of shul. There is another Talmudic source about davening in a beit knesset. The gemara (Berachot 8a) says that whoever does not daven in a community’s shul is called a bad neighbor and is slated for exile. The Chida (Machazik Beracha 90:4) says that this does not apply if the person davens elsewhere with a minyan because the Divine Presence dwells wherever a minyan is praying. However, he continues to say that in order to receive the full positive impact, it must be in a place that is “set for holiness.” The definition of “set for holiness” is not always clear. Public vs. private ownership is not the issue (see Rama 153:7). Whether steps were taken to allow occasional use of the place for meals, especially when limited to mitzva-related eating (see complex issue in Shulchan Aruch, OC 151:11; Igrot Moshe OC I:45) is also probably not critical. However, using one’s living room for a minyan after a regular shiur or a daily Mincha minyan in a business’s board room does not turn these places into batei knesset. While we accepted the preference of davening in a beit knesset (see Mishna Berura 90:38; Ishei Yisrael 8:2), this is not an absolute requirement. This qualification is important, not only to justify one opting out due to a significant inconvenience, but also because other preferences can potentially outweigh that of davening in shul. We will mention some such possible cases, while warning that the particulars of a given case can make all the difference. 1. Davening in a place where one learns on a regular basis (Shulchan Aruch, OC 90:18). 2. The speed of the davening and/or congregants’ behavior make one’s davening noticeably “better” out of the beit knesset (Ishei Yisrael 8:10; see Mishna Berura 90:28; Aruch Hashulchan, OC 90:15). 3. One will have to daven in the shul without a minyan, but can make one elsewhere (Mishna Berura ibid.). We are generally strong believers in the importance of community on various grounds. We note that Rav Kook, commenting on Berachot 6a, says that it is important to show that one connects his prayer to the matter of publicizing Hashem’s greatness and that this is done most profoundly in the communal setting (Ein Ayah, Berachot 1: 48,49). That being said, sometimes even the most communally oriented people have recourse to davening outside a shul. Tisha B’av Pushed Off till SundayWhat is done differently this year with Tisha B’av falling on Shabbat and being pushed off to Sunday?Seuda Shlishit: The baraita (cited in Ta’anit 29a) says that one may eat an extravagant meal on Shabbat even when Tisha B’Av falls on Motzaei Shabbat. The Tur (Orach Chayim 552) cites minhagim that one is allowed and would do best to curtail the Shabbat meal. This is especially so at seuda shlishit, which is, in effect, the seuda hamafseket (the last meal before Tisha B’Av, which usually has strong elements of mourning). However, these considerations are countered by the need to avoid displaying mourning on Shabbat. Therefore, there are no real restrictions, even at seuda shlishit (Shulchan Aruch, OC 552:10). However, the mood should somewhat reflect the coming of Tisha B’Av, as long as it does not bring on clearly noticeable changes (Mishna Berura 552:23). One important halachic requirement is that one must finish eating before sunset (Rama, ad loc.). Havdala: One says Havdala in tefilla or separately in the declaration of “Baruch Hamavdil…,” which enables him to do actions that are forbidden on Shabbat. Havdala over a cup of wine is done after Tisha B’Av (Shulchan Aruch, OC 556:1). If one forgot to mention Havdala in Shemoneh Esrei, he does not repeat Shemoneh Esrei even though he will not make Havdala over wine until the next day. Rather, he makes the declaration of Baruch Hamavdil (Mishna Berura 556:2). Unlike Havdala during the Nine Days, where we try to give the wine to a child (Rama 551:10), after Tisha B’Av an adult can freely drink that wine (Mishna Berura 556:3). The beracha on besamim is not said this week. On Tisha B’Av it is not appropriate, because it is a reviving pleasure, and one can make this beracha only on Motzaei Shabbat. The beracha on the fire is specific to Motzaei Shabbat, is not a pleasure, and does not require a cup. Therefore, we recite the beracha on fire in shul after Ma’ariv, before reading Eicha (Mishna Berura 556:1). There are those who say that a woman should, in general, avoid making Havdala. A major reason is the doubt whether a woman is obligated in the beracha on fire, which is not directly related to Shabbat and thus is a regular time-related mitzva, from which women are exempt (Be’ur Halacha 296:8). Therefore, it is better for one whose wife will not be in shul at the time of the beracha to have in mind not to fulfill the mitzva at that time, but to make the beracha on the fire together with his wife (Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 62:(98)). Taking off shoes: As mentioned, one may not do a noticeable act of mourning before Shabbat is over. While finishing eating before sunset or refraining from washing need not be noticeable, taking off shoes is. There are two minhagim as to when to take them off: 1) One waits until after Shabbat is out, says Hamavdil, and then changes clothes and goes to shul. One can do so a little earlier than the regular time listed for Shabbat ending, which is usually delayed a little bit beyond nightfall to allow for a significant extension of Shabbat. The exact time is not clear and depends on the latitude of one’s location. It is advisable to start Ma’ariv a little late in order to allow people to do so and make it to shul (ibid.:40; Torat Hamoadim 9:1), unless the rabbi has ruled that everyone should take the following approach. 2) One takes off his shoes after Barchu of Ma’ariv. One who takes the second approach should bring non-leather footwear and Eicha/Kinot to shul before Shabbat to avoid hachana (preparations for after Shabbat). However, if one uses these sefarim a little in shul before Shabbat is out, he may bring them on Shabbat (Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata ibid.:41). Eating Questionably Reheated KugelBefore our shul Kiddush, gabbaim noticed the hot plate (for kugel) was unplugged, so they had a non-Jew connect it (I don’t know what they told him). I ate the kugel only after it cooled down. Was that necessary/allowed?When a non-Jew does melacha on behalf of Jews, even without prompting, they may not benefit from it (Beitza 24b). While this suggests your compromise was right, we must consider various factors pointing to other conclusions. First, might one be allowed to ask a non-Jew to plug in the hot plate, even though this is a Torah-level melacha? After all, the Rama (Orach Chayim 276:2) cites the minhag of some to have a non-Jew light a candle for a Shabbat meal because a proper Shabbat meal is a mitzva, and this includes having hot food (Mishna Berura 325:60). Where need justifies asking a non-Jew, benefit is also permitted. While the Rama condones this approach only for exceptional need, the Mishna Berura (276:25) permits it for a mitzva of the masses. However, heating up kugel is not critical for a shul Kiddush at least under normal circumstances. A more promising way to use the non-Jew is with a “good hint.” A regular hint made to him on Shabbat to do melacha on Shabbat is forbidden (Rama, OC 307:22). However, Acharonim rule that a hint that mentions only a need without mentioning any action is permitted (Magen Avraham 307:20; Mishna Berura 307:76). Poskim point out that, for several reasons, this leniency cannot obviate the whole prohibition of amira l’nochri for those who use good hints (see Orchot Shabbat 23:(24)). However, some serious poskim permit it when the non-Jew’s action provides no “halachic benefit” (see Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata (30:3). Does heating up a fully cooked kugel provide halachic benefit? When usage of an object is possible (a hard word to define) without the melacha, it is not considered benefit. One application is that if a non-Jew lights a second candle, it is permitted to do things that could have been done, even with difficulty, with the first light alone (Shulchan Aruch, OC 276:4; see Mishna Berura ad loc. 20). Arguably, since (almost any) kugel can be eaten at room temperature, heating it up is not benefit. On the other hand, Igrot Moshe (YD III:43) limits this leniency to cases where the benefit (e.g., light) is provided by a different object (e.g., candle #1); one may not receive benefit (e.g., coolness) provided only by a non-Jew’s melacha (e.g., putting on an air-conditioner) even if one can do the same thing (e.g., eat in the room) without that benefit. Rav Auerbach argues similarly and also distinguishes between Torah-level and Rabbinic melachot (see Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 30:(167)). If this is correct, then when the non-Jew provides all the re-heating by plugging in the hot plate, a good hint would not help. (How one deals with the apparent contradiction regarding using shoes that a non-Jew finished preparing on Shabbat – see Mishna Berura 252:30, 327:16, and 253:98 (below) – may be crucial). Without exhausting the topic, it is questionable whether a good hint would allow heating up the kugel. Does letting the kugel cool off solve the problem? The Rashba (cited by Beit Yosef, OC 253) discusses (almost exactly) our case and forbids eating the food even after it cools down (see Minchat Shlomo I:5), as a penalty for one who violated the rules of amira l’nochri. While the Rama (OC 253:5) paskens like the Rashba in a slightly modified case, the Mishna Berura (ad loc. 98) limits the stringency to the part of the food that is not readily eaten cold (unlike most kugels). The Rashba himself refers to a case where the Jew knew he was acting improperly. Washing Hands with Soap on Yom KippurIs it permissible to wash one’s hands with soap after leaving the toilet on Yom Kippur or only with water?It is a matter of debate whether afflictions other than eating and drinking, such as rechitza (washing hands with water) and sicha (classically, smearing the skin with oil) are of Torah origin or are Rabbinic (see Beit Yosef, Orach Chayim 611). Rechitza is permitted when it is not for enjoyment but to remove dirt (Shulchan Aruch, OC 513:1). The hygienic need for washing hands after use of the toilet is no less significant than of dirt. Your question is a good one because sicha is more stringent than washing. The Yerushalmi (Yoma 8:1) says that sicha is forbidden even when it is not for pleasure. The gemara (Yoma 77ab) does permit putting oil on chatatim (a type of skin disorder) or for the needs of the sick. Our questions are: 1. Is using soap sicha? 2. If so, does the need for soap justify its use? The gemara (Yoma 76b) talks of sicha in reference to oil. Tosafot (ibid. 77a) assumes that it applies also to smearing animal fats on the skin. Apparently, the two main ingredients in solid soap are vegetable oils and animal fat (although liquid soaps, which we use because of melacha, are more diverse). Yet soaps seem to be fundamentally different, in that the point of sicha is usually to have the skin absorb the substance. This is also evident from the gemara’s (Yoma 76b) portrayal of sicha as being like drinking. In contrast, soap is intended to be applied and soon thereafter removed with only a tiny amount being absorbed. However, we do find very mainstream Acharonim, including the Mishna Berura (554:28) and the Aruch Hashulchan (YD 117:29), who assume that using soaps is sicha. The context of the latter is a discussion of whether it is permitted to use non-kosher soaps, which depends on how far we take the equation between sicha and drinking. On that topic, Rav Ovadia Yosef (Yechaveh Da’at IV:43) adds to other reasons for leniency, the idea that using soap is “less than regular sicha, as it is immediately washed away with water.” I do not know that he meant that such “less than regular” sicha is permitted on Yom Kippur, but the statement corroborates the salience of our distinction and adds at least slightly to the grounds for leniency. Why is sicha stricter than washing (i.e., it is forbidden even without intention for enjoyment)? The Magen Avraham (614:1) says that it is because sicha generally provides greater enjoyment. Rabbeinu Manoach (Shvitat Assor 3:9) says that since most people wash off dirt with water, using oil looks like it is being done for enjoyment. Similarly, Tosafot Yom Hakippurim (Yoma 77b) says that since one can use water, the higher level of sicha was not permitted without special need. Since soap is rarely used for enjoyment, people are unlikely to be confused of his intentions, and it has a function that water does not provide, logic would seem to allow its use for hygiene just like water. Nevertheless, it is quite possible that anything that is under the category of sicha is forbidden even when it does not share the reasons for stringency. The Mishna Berura (554:28) might imply this, as does the common ruling/practice to forbid roll-on deodorant on Yom Kippur. Obtaining Arba’ah Minim for the Sukkot after ShemittaHow does the consumer approach buying a lulav and etrog set this year?Lulav – Classically, it is edible produce that has kedushat shvi’It (sanctity of Shemitta- see below), as the pasuk says “The resting of the land shall be for you for eating” (Vayikra 25:6). However the gemara (Sukka 40a) derives from “for you” that branches that are intended for a use in which the benefit comes before they are destroyed (hana’ato u’bi’uro shaveh), also have kedushat shvi’it. This is as opposed to wood for burning, where the wood burns before one enjoys its heat. The gemara implies that lulav has kedushat shvi’it, and some Rishonim (see Rashi, ad loc.) explain that it is because it is sometimes used as a broom. Others (see Ran, ad loc.) say that it does not have kedusha. Since people no longer use palm branches for brooms or the like, we posit that a lulav does not have kedushat shvi’it (Minchat Shlomo I:51.23). Hadasim – Much of the above analysis applies to hadasim, which can be used for their fragrance. Practically, the assumption is that hadasim too are not cultivated for this purpose, and use for the mitzva of arba’ah minim is not considered worldly benefit, which would create kedushat shvi’it. Aravot – Not only are they not a food, but aravot do not have any benefit that could be cause for kedushat shvi’it. While it is possible to discuss whether these three minim could become forbidden if they were grown in violation of Shemitta, the practical and/or halachic assumptions are that there are no restrictions in obtaining them this year. Etrog – An etrog, as an edible fruit, certainly has kedushat shvi’it, if it is a product of the Shemitta year. There is significant discussion from the Tana’im to our day, whether an etrog’s status follows the time of its budding (chanata), like other fruits, or its harvest (l’kita) because it is watered similarly to vegetables (Kiddushin 3a). According to the latter opinion, if an etrog was picked off the tree after Rosh Hashana, it would not have kedushat shvi’it. While the Rambam (Shvi’it 4:12) follows l’kita, many (or most – see Shabbat Ha’aretz 4:12) say it follows when it grows. While last year extra care was taken to harvest etrogim before Shemitta, we assume that an etrog that grew during Shemitta has kedushat shvi’it even if it was harvested after Rosh Hashana. The main complication regarding an etrog with kedushat shvi’it is paying for it, especially that we do not want the sanctity of Shemitta to be transferred to the money paid for it (a broad topic beyond our scope). (Consumers do not weigh etrogim, so that is not a problem). There are three basic, valid approaches to deal with this issue. One is to buy the etrog b’havla’ah, i.e., the price of the etrog is swallowed up (even if it is more expensive) by being combined with the price of another commodity, perhaps one of the other minim. The mishna (Sukka 39a) actually talks about buying a lulav and getting the etrog along with it as a present. Those who rely on the heter mechira can do so regarding an etrog as well, if there is a hashgacha that confirms that the given orchard was indeed sold. The otzar beit din system is fine for an etrog as well. Under this system, a beit din (rabbinical court) supervises the handling of the orchard and sets the price of the fruit according to the cost of expenses (including permitted labor), not according to the fruit’s value to the consumer. While it is best, according to this system, for all etrogim to have the same price, there are legitimate leniencies to allow the beit din to follow a selection process according to quality and attach different prices to the categories (see Shemitta (Burstein), p. 424)). After Sukkot, one should either eat the etrog, make jam from it, or dispose of it in the way he does for kedushat shvi’it produce. One should always buy an etrog with rabbinical confirmation of its validity. This year, how Shemitta was handled becomes a major component. Business involving the dye carmine, which is derived from bugsThere is a company that I am thinking of investing in. It is based in Israel, and they own flavoring companies throughout the world. They are publicly traded on the stock market. This means that the owners of the company are the stockholders. I am not sure what percentage of the stockholders are Jewish, since it is based in Israel. One of the flavors they own is a dye made from a bug. This causes me to question - Can I buy stock in this company.The Mishna (Sheviit 7:3) states that it is forbidden to do business with items that are forbidden to eat. The Mishna is codified in the Shulchan Aruch Yoreh Deah 117:1. There is a dispute between the Rishonim and Achronim regarding if this prohibition is from the Torah or rabbinic[1]. The Gemara Yerushalmi (Bava Kama 7:7) states that this prohibition applies only to foods that would themselves be prohibited from the Torah to be eaten, but it is permitted to do business with foods that are only rabbinically forbidden to be eaten. This Halacha is codified by the Rambam (Maachalot Asurot 8:18) and Shulchan Aruch (Yoreh Deah 117:1). Furthermore, several poskim[2] write that if there is an opinion that the food is permitted to be eaten[3], even if one does not accept that opinion to permit eating the food, nevertheless, it is permitted to do business with such a food. Your question was regarding investing in the company Frutarom, which produces and sells the dye carmine, which is derived from the cochineal bugs. There are opinions[4] that one is allowed to ingest foods with carmine, since the cochineal bugs used to produce carmine are first completely dried out, nullifying (according to those opinions) the prohibited status of the bugs. Therefore, even though those opinions are normally not relied upon to allow eating products with carmine in them, one can still rely upon them for the purposes of doing business with carmine, and similarly, investing in a company that manufactures carmine would certainly be allowed. [1]Tosafot Pesachim 23. "Amar Krah", the Rosh Bava Kama 7:13, and many other Rishonim and Achronim, including HaRav Shaul Yisroeli, Amud Hayimini 36, hold that the prohibition is from the Torah. However, the Shu"t HaRashba 3:223, Raavad, Nodeh BiYehuda Tinyana 62, and other poskim (it seems that this is the opinion of the Shach YD 117 S"K 2 as well) hold that the prohibition is only rabbinic. [2]Darkei Teshuva YD 117 S"K 15, 63 from the Be'er Yaakov, Minchat Shlomo 2:65:2, and see also Kaf HaChaim YD 117 footnote 19 from Rav Ovadiah Yosef. [3]Or even if there are opinions that the food is only rabbinically forbidden, D"T S"K 63. [4]See Pitchei Teshuva Yoreh Deah 87:20 who quotes the Tiferet Tzvi who allows carmine, since the bugs used to produce it are first dried out, and he compares it to the ruling of the Rema (Yoreh Deah 87:10) that a completely dried out cow stomach no longer has the status of meat. Similarly, Shu”t Yabia Omer 8 Yoreh Deah 11:4 brings several opinions who also permit carmine, and Shu”t Shoel U’Meishiv (third edition 1:39) allows it under certain conditions. See also our Shu”t Bimareh Habazak 2:48. Observance of a yahrzeit on Chol HamoedMy mother's (a"h) yahrzeit is during Chol Hamoed Sukkot. I would appreciate your advice on whether or not I should stay away from festive atmospheres of music and celebration on the yahrzeit, such as a music festival, regardless of the fact that it is Chol Hamoed Sukkot.It is permitted for you to attend the festival on Chol Hamoed. Explanation and Sources: The mourning process in Jewish law is a stepped progression. It starts with the shiva, whereby the mourner demonstrates the loss experienced both actively through such laws as sitting on the floor, as well as passively such as not leaving the house or working, not grooming oneself, limitations on bathing and the such. After those first seven days, that expression continues until the end of shloshim solely through passively refraining from activities such as hair cutting, joyous meals and the such. When one mourners for a parent then those limitations in some manner until the end of the 12 month period. After the 12 month period, all mourning practices – both active and passive – cease. Regarding the yahrzeit, one all agree that one should light a memorial candle[1], say kaddish, and even learn mishnayot[1] for the deceased. However, there is a discussion in the later commentators regarding the prohibitions, if any, of that day. The Trumat Hadeshen[1] writes that even though the 12 month period of mourning technically ends on the morning of the last day of the 12th month, nonetheless it has become the custom to continue those morning practices for the entire day. The Trumat Hadeshen suggests that since one recites kaddish, davens for the tzibbur, and fasts on that day, it become customary to treat it entirely like a day of mourning. The Rama codifies this as halacha.[1] There is a debate as to what exactly the Trumat Hadeshen meant. The Bach[1] explains that he was only referring to the first yahrzeit which immediately followed the 12 months mourning period, but not the yahrzeit of future years, for once one breaks from the mourning practices he never returns to them. The Taz[1] questions the understanding of the Bach, as the Rama himself also brings down that the practice is for a son or daughter to fast on the day of the yahrzeit even in future years[1], and if not that then to at least refrain from eating at a meal the night of[1]. The Taz suggests that the custom to fast on the day of the yahrzeit was not an all excepted custom and did not prevail in all places, and the Lavush himself attests to. The Shach[1] suggests that the Bach and Rama are not arguing, rather the Rama is solely referring to fasting or refraining from joining a festive meal, while the Bach is referring to all other mourning customs of the 12 month period. In regard to halacha in practice, besides for those who have the custom to fast, there are no established prohibitions for the day of the yahrzeit. However, it does seem to be that the unwritten common practice of many is to refrain from joyous activities, as mentioned in the question. The commentaries provide different reasons for the custom to fast on the yahrzeit. Some[1] explain that it should be viewed as a day of teshuva for the son or daughter, and therefore should be spent in fasting. Others[1] explain that the yahrzeit naturally acts as a reminder of the pain and loss one experienced, and therefore the natural reaction is refrain from pleasure or even inflict oneself, which eventually evolved into fasting. Which ever reason or reason are true, it seems to the unwritten practice to refrain from other pleasures, although not codified, does fit with the spirit of that day. Accordingly, the practice of refraining from partaking in a music festival, although not necessarily halachicaly required is nonetheless praise worth. However, when practices of mourning come in conflict with halachik requirements to express happiness and joy such as on Yom Tov or Chol HaMoed, then it is prohibited to display any signs of mourning.[1] Even though regarding mourning on Yom Tov one is still required to observe those prohibitions which are done in private,that is only regarding things which are is strict requirement. But when it comes to things of light custom, it would seem that even in private it would be inappropriate to keep to.[1] All the more so this should be true regarding practices which are not codified and only kept to due to the similarity in nature. Taking food away from a hotel breakfast buffetWhen eating at a hotel where there is an all you can eat breakfast, is it halachicly permissible to bring sandwich bags to take additional food for a later meal which will be eaten outside the hotel.You have to ask the hotel what their policy is and abide by it. Practicing Saying “V’ten Tal U’Matar"How many times is it required to recite repeatedly “V’ten tal u’matar” (=Vten) until we can assume, when in doubt, that I said the recitation correctly?If one is unsure if he remembered to cease saying Mashiv haruach …(=Mashiv), we assume for the first 30 days that he continued the now incorrect recitation (see Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 114:8, based on Yerushalmi). However, the Shulchan Aruch (ibid. 9) accepts the Maharam M’Rotenberg’s (see Tur, OC 114) remedy of reciting the correct version 90 times, after which we assume he got it right. The source that concentrated change is effective like a change over time is the opinion that an ox which gores three times on one day changes its status like one who gored three days (Bava Kama 24a). While many question the comparison’s aptness (see Taz 114:13), this is the accepted practice (see Biur Halacha ad loc.). The Mishna Berura (114:40) says that reciting the new version 90 times is applicable for Vten as well There are also technical questions about this system. The Rama (Darchei Moshe, OC 114:2) points that 90 times seems an inexact substitute for 30 days, as Mashiv is said more than 90 times (due to Mussaf) in 30 days and Vten (absent on Shabbatot) is said fewer. He says that 30 days is just the average time, but the important thing is the 90 recitations, however long each one takes. (The Rama’s opinion in the Shulchan Aruch is unclear (see OC 114:8 and Mishna Berura 114:37)). The Chatam Sofer (OC 20) posits that often 30 days has 101 sayings of Mashiv, and 101 is known to be a number of repetitions which makes a text absorbed (see Chagiga 9b). The Gra (ad loc.) is among those who say that it is the passage of 30 days that creates the change, even though there are more than 90 Mashivs and fewer Vtens during this time. The accepted opinion is that one who does not do extra repetitions determines whether to assume that he said the correct text based on a cut-off of 30 days. Yet, the practice of those who do “artificial repetitions” is to do the ostensibly contradictory 90 recitations. The Mishna Berura (114:37) says we accept the lenient opinion in both major questions because of the concept of safek berachot l’hakel. In other words, if we are not sure whether there is a need to make additional berachot, in this case by repeating Shemoneh Esrei or parts of it, we refrain from doing so. (Admittedly, there are cases (e.g., Mashiv slightly before 30 days) when we could have been more lenient than the standard practice.) Most (see Mishna Berura 114:42; Ishei Yisrael 23:(137)) assume that one can mix and match, achieving confidence about the transition by an appropriate mixture of days and repetitions (e.g., 10 days and 60 repetitions). Some suggest that it is preferable to avoid the artificial 90 repetition system (see Shulchan Aruch Harav OC 114:11; Halichot Shlomo, Tefilla 8:26). The logic is that since it is unclear whether it sufficiently removes doubt that one said the wrong thing, (i.e., it might still be correct to repeat), it is better to leave things with the accepted 30-day guideline. (Rav Yaakov Emdin has a technical issue with the repetitions, as he assumed it required saying Hashem’s Name in vain. However, our practice has us start the recitation after the Name). However, this claim is very surprising. First of all, when not using this system, there are also plenty of doubts (e.g., after 30 days of Vten, which do not include 90 recitations; if one missed some tefillot or made mistakes in some). More significantly, since the repetition, if done with moderate concentration, certainly helps significantly to get things right faster, we are saving a lot of unnecessary berachot by getting ourselves accustomed. It would seem that the approach that one should avoid the repetitions makes sense only for those who rarely make these mistakes anyway. In summary, doing 90 “artificial repetitions” for Vten and Mashiv, which the Shulchan Aruch/Mishna Berura and minhag ha’olam endorse, is valid and worthwhile (but not obligatory). Being injected with a vaccine that contains non-kosherThis year a new flu vaccine is offered that is based on cells of caterpillar (armyworm). Is an observant Jew allowed to be injected with something not kosher?Non-kosher animals are forbidden only in regards to eating. Deriving benefit from them and having any part of them enter the body in a manner that is not eating is fully permitted.
Beracha Acharona on Fruit of Non-Jews in IsraelIf I eat nochri (field in Israel owned by a non-Jew) fruit that gets an “Al Haetz”, do I end the beracha with “… al hapeirot” or “…al peiroteha”?While this sounds like a Shemitta (whose halachot continue regarding fruit) question, it applies every year. It also applies to orchards sold through heter mechira. We start with the main sources on the change of wording of the beracha. The gemara (Berachot 44a) cites both versions of the beracha and first says that in chutz la’aretz one says “peiroteha” (on its [the Land’s] fruit) and in The Beit Yosef (Orach Chayim 208) cites a machloket between Rabbeinu Yona and the Rashba whether one says hapeirot or peiroteha on fruit grown in There is a major machloket, raised most prominently in Gittin (47a), whether a non-Jew’s acquisition of land in Eretz Yisrael uproots the laws that apply to Eretz Yisrael. The halachic conclusion is not fully clear (see Rambam, Terumot 1:10). There are macholokot in different applications, including the one between Rav Yosef Karo (Avkat Rochel 24) and the Mabit (I:11) whether the fruit that grows under a non-Jew’s ownership has Shemitta status. The former’s opinion, that Shemitta status is removed, is the more accepted one (see Shabbat Ha’aretz (R. Kook), Mavo 15). One could then claim that such fruit is uprooted from Eretz Yisrael status regarding our question as well. However, I have been unable to find a hint in classical texts or rulings in more recent sources that indicate a distinction within Eretz Yisrael between the fruit of Jewish-owned fields and non-Jewish fields. There are some opinions (see discussions in Birkei Yosef, OC 208:11 and Kaf Hachayim, OC 208:59) that on fruit from sections of Eretz Yisrael that lost kedushat ha’aretz with the Babylonian exile and were not restored to kedushat ha’aretz in the Second Temple, we do not say peiroteha. Not all agree. After all, these areas are still Eretz Yisrael regarding many spiritual matters (see Shabbat Haaretz ibid.). Hashem gave them to us, we will return, and, according to most, we still presently have a mitzva to live there (see Encyclopedia Talmudit, Yeshivat Eretz Yisrael, ftnt. 28-29). Our question is about areas with the kedusha from the time of the Taking Off Challa on ShabbatMy sons were guests in Bnei Brak. The hosts forgot to do hafrashat challa before Shabbat. On Shabbat, the ba’al habayit separated some challa to be burnt after Shabbat. Was it okay for my sons to have eaten?It is not clear what you mean by “separated some challa,” and the situation for your sons depends on that. Among the mishna’s (Beitza 36b) long list of Rabbinic prohibitions of Shabbat and Yom Tov is taking terumot and ma’asrot, which includes the taking of challa (which is likewise theoretically slated to go to a kohen). Therefore, if your sons’ hosts did hafrashat challa on Shabbat, they apparently acted improperly. We do find leniency for taking ma’asrot in a case where one does not have alternative food to eat for Shabbat, due to the mitzva of eating on Shabbat (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 261:1; see Mishna Berura ad loc. 4). However, that is only to do so during bein hashemashot (twilight, at the time when it is a doubt whether it is day or night). (One can contemplate some leniency as to when bein hashemashot ends in regards to this question, considering the issue is a Rabbinic prohibition, but we will not analyze all the opinions as to specifics.) On Yom Tov, it is permitted to take challa if the obligation began (with kneading) on Yom Tov (which is prohibited on Shabbat) or by making more dough and taking off from it on the existing dough/challa (Shulchan Aruch, OC 496:3). However, regarding your sons, even if their host did hafrasha improperly, they were still allowed to eat the challot. This is because if one took ma’asrot improperly on Shabbat unintentionally (including out of ignorance of the halacha), the food may be eaten (Gittin 54a). (It is a fascinating question why we do not say that since when Shabbat started the food was not fit to be eaten, it should be muktzeh. However, it apparently is not muktzeh – see Tosafot, Shabbat 43a, Shut R. Akiva Eiger II:103; Minchat Shlomo 62.11). Perhaps the hosts did not actually take challa but left enough of the challa (loaf) over to take challa from it after Shabbat. (There is a discussion among the Rishonim whether one may eat everything except the part that will become challa or whether he must leave over enough to take challa off and still have some bread that is permitted to eat – see Tosafot, Beitza 9a.) This practice has a strong basis, but if this is what they did, they misapplied it. Shmuel says (Beitza 9a): “Regarding the taking of challa of chutz la’aretz, one may eat now and take off the challa later.” This is different from the situation regarding ma’asrot, where until the ma’aser has been taken, the produce is forbidden as tevel. Shmuel clearly states that this halacha is true specifically regarding chutz la’aretz, not Bnei Brak. However, one might want to suggest that it might apply even in Waiting Between the Beracha and the Kri’at HatorahIn my shul (I am the rav), it is often too noisy to start laining right after the beracha. (How long/) may we delay the beginning of the aliya?We must investigate different distinctions in the laws of hefsek. (Realize that many sources equate talking between a beracha and the food it goes on to talking between a beracha and the mitzva it goes on.) 1) Speaking is a more problematic break than silence. For example, a single word is a hefsek, while the time it takes to say a single word is not (Mishna Berura 206:12). 2) The most sensitive time is between the beracha and the start of the matter to which it pertains. For example, if one speaks a pasuk or more into an aliya, he does not have to make a new beracha (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 140:2). If he spoke inappropriately in between the beracha and the beginning of the laining, he would have to repeat it (Mishna Berura 140:6). 3) A break that serves a purpose for that which the beracha relates to (e.g., one who asks for salt between the beracha on bread and eating it) does not necessitate repeating the beracha (Shulchan Aruch, OC 167:6). In your question, waiting silently before the beginning of the aliya, there are two factors for leniency (silence, for a good reason) and one of stringency (before beginning the aliya). Let us consider the extent of the leniencies. The Beit Yosef (OC 206) cites a Shibolei Haleket who says, based on his understanding of a Yerushalmi, that if one pauses between the beracha and its subject (regarding food and mitzvot), for more than k’dei dibbur (1-2 seconds), he must repeat the beracha. However, the Magen Avraham (206:3) paskens against this, at least regarding after the fact (i.e., not repeating the beracha), citing the following discussion in the Beit Yosef (OC 140). On Chanuka/Rosh Chodesh they opened the wrong Torah first and had to roll it to the right place (from Naso to Pinchas) after the opening beracha. Some argued that they should have made another beracha for two reasons: 1. The delay for rolling was too long. 2. The beracha was made with an intention for the wrong place. The Avudraham rejects reason #1 because a break of silence does not disqualify, and the Beit Yosef seems to agree. Regarding reason #2, the Beit Yosef is unsure (he cites both opinions in the Shulchan Aruch (OC 140:3)). Regarding #1, some learn from the fact we do not cut loaves of bread until after the beracha (Berachot 39b) that a moderate delay is not a problem (unless people took their mind off the fact the beracha was made (Mishna Berura 206:12)). The Rama (206:3) does say not to wait more than k’dei dibbur between a beracha and the food. This is even for waiting silently but, on the other hand, this is only to be avoided l’chatchila – the wait does not necessitate repeating the beracha (see Mishna Berura 206:12; Mor Va’aholot OC 1). The Rama (OC 167:6) says that one should avoid where possible talking even for a purpose related to the subject of the beracha. We see from the above discussion that according to the Shibolei Leket, a silent break is a problem even if one is involved in getting the mitzva done (e.g., rolling the sefer Torah). (Apparently, this is talking about time beyond normal transition time, as regarding laining and shofar, for example, it is very common to take a few seconds to find the right word or place the shofar at the right spot.) It is unclear if according to those who accept the Shibolei Leket only l’chatchila, we should avoid a silent break when the silence plays a productive role. We summarize as follows. It is certainly preferable to wait for quiet before the berachot and if there is only a slight disturbance, to read at least one pasuk before stopping. If one is going to stop, it is best for it to be less than the amount of time to recite the birkat Hatorah (see Ritva, Megilla 21b) or at least the amount of time it takes to read the first three p’sukim (see discussion in Mor Va’aholot ibid). However, if the need to wait is acute, even a moderate break can be justified. Timtum Halev – Part IIs there timtum halev [approximately, spiritual pollution of the heart] when one ingests non-kosher food in a halachically valid manner, e.g., based on bitul (nullification)?We will divide our view of the sources and analysis to deal with this excellent question into three parts: 1. What causes timtum halev? 2. How severe is exposure to it? 3. How should concern about it affect our decisions? What causes timtum halev? The classical source that introduces the concept of timtum halev is the gemara (Yoma 39a). It derives from the spelling of “v’nitmeitem bam” (you will become defiled) in the context of eating sheratzim (crawling creatures) (Vayikra 11:43) that it causes not just tumah but also timtum of the heart. (We will not try to describe it exactly – Rashi (ad loc.) says “it seals off and blocks out all wisdom.”) The gemara’s statement is that “sins causes timtum halev.” There are at least three ways to understand this gemara (the approaches are not mutually exclusive but can be complementary): A. Acts of sin cause timtum halev, irrespective of exposure to a problematic object. The Maharal (Tiferet Yisrael 8) and Rav Kook (Mussar Avicha 1:4) have this understanding, which is the simple reading of the gemara (see Beit Halevi, Bereishit 6:5). B. The reason that certain foods are forbidden by the Torah is their negative impact on the spirit. While it may be strongest regarding certain specific forbidden foods (e.g., sheratzim), this is generally true, to some degree, of forbidden foods (Ramban, Shemot 22:30). C. Forbidden foods are not necessarily naturally damaging to the spirit, but after the Torah forbade them, they become so. There are practical differences between these approaches. The following prohibitions seem to lack a naturally damaging element. Therefore, A applies and B does not (C depends on the case). 1. Forbidden actions that do not include ingesting foods; 2. Foods that are forbidden based on Rabbinic law – Hashem apparently created these foods to not be timtum causing, but the Rabbis forbade them due to various halachic concerns; 3. Foods that are forbidden because they are too holy for the eater (e.g., teruma, certain korbanot); 4. Foods that are forbidden only at certain times (e.g., food on Yom Kippur, chametz on Pesach); 5. Foods that are forbidden for a circumstantial moral reason (e.g., mother and child shechted on the same day, ever min hachay – see Moreh HaNevuchim III:48). In the other direction, in the following cases, a prohibited food has entered the body, without moral culpability, so that A does not apply and B and C do: 1. The person eating followed halachic rules, which resulted in ingesting the forbidden food (e.g., animal had blemishes we are not required to check for, bitul made it permitted); 2. The eater is not forbidden to eat the food (non-Jew, small child, severely mentally disabled); 3) One needed to eat it to save his life; 4) The substance entered the body in a way other than eating. We begin a small sampling of the many sources that provide different views of some of these matters before focusing on the most central. Chashukei Chemed (Megilla 13a) cites a machloket whether eating forbidden food based on an unavoidable mistake creates negative spiritual effects (Rav Pe’alim – no; Ramah M’panu – yes; see Pitchei Teshuva, Yoreh Deah 29:1). Besides saying that without fault there is no cause for timtum, it is also possible that Hashem intervenes to rectify the spirit of one who followed halacha (see Derashot Haran 11, who says similarly regarding a case in which Sanhedrin mistakenly permits something that should be forbidden). The Netziv (Devarim 6:11) says that the reason it is better to shecht an animal on Shabbat for a dangerously sick person than to give him non-kosher meat is that the latter causes timtum. This assumes that timtum exists even without wrongdoing. However, the fact that all the Rishonim give other explanations (see Beit Yosef, Orach Chayim 328) demonstrates the opposite. We will continue with further analysis next week. Timtum Halev – Part IIIs there timtum halev [approximately, spiritual pollution of the heart] when one ingests non-kosher food in a halachically valid manner, e.g., based on bitul (nullification)?Last time we saw sources and analyzed possible causes of timtum halev. How much should timtum halev concern us? Many halachot assume that, even if timtum halev exists without wrongdoing, it is not a serious normative factor. One is not required to stop a child from eating non-kosher food (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 343:1). Certainly, if one sees a child ingesting poison, he would have to save him! (The claim that the above is “only” on a halachic level, but that one must save the child (see Pri Chadash, Yoreh Deah 81:26) is difficult). If 49 pieces of treif meat get mixed up with 50 pieces of kosher meat, bitul (sometimes) enables the eating of all the pieces (Shulchan Aruch YD 109:1) (some have the stringency to remove some meat to avoid the appearance of impropriety – Rama ad loc.). When treif gravy falls into a larger amount of kosher food and lower its quality of taste, it is permitted to eat the combination (ibid. 103:2). In neither case do poskim raise timtum halev. In fact, it is a machloket if it is permissible to refuse to eat food that is permitted based on bitul (see Pitchei Teshuva, YD 116:10 and a distinction in Mishneh Halachot VII:104). (Bnei Yisaschar (II, p. 95) views the circumstances as a divine mandate to bring tikkun of the issur). If Reuven sold non-kosher food to Shimon, who ate it, Shimon gets a full refund if the food was forbidden from the Torah and has to pay if it was only Rabbinically forbidden (Shulchan Aruch, Choshen Mishpat 234:2-3). The main reasons given (see S’ma, Shach ad loc.) ignore timtum halev as a factor. Thus, it seems clear that on a normative level, when the eater lacks guilt, there is either no timtum halev or it is halachically insignificant. There is a normative halachic source that warns about timtum halev. The Rama (YD 81:7) says that one who has a choice should not have a baby nurse from a non-Jewish or not kashrut-observant wet nurse. This is apparently based on the Rashba (see Torat Chatat 65:11), who says that a non-Jewish woman’s milk is kosher, but it is pious to avoid due to concern for the baby’s future spiritual health. Also, the Chatam Sofer (Shut, OC 63), after justifying sending a shoteh child to a non-Jewish center at which he had the best chance at improved mental health, advised not to send him due to timtum halev (many argue or limit the ruling). Even if these are ‘extra-halachic’ advice, why do they come up where they do? One cannot always reconcile exceptional rulings with the rules. However, these cases, especially the Rama’s, have unique factors. A baby’s basic sustenance on an ongoing basis is from nursing during a crucial point of development in which he lacks performance of mitzvot and has few other things that counteract timtum halev. (Yabia Omer VIII, CM 11 does not accept these distinctions, as he sees the Rama as reason to prefer, if possible, to have blood infusions from kosher-eating Jews. The Netziv (Devarim 6:11) and Torat Hayoledet (42:(2)) do raise the distinction between chance and ongoing exposure to problematic foods.) Practical Recommendations: While some compare eating non-kosher food to poison (see Mesilat Yesharim 11, who addresses a case in which there was halachic concern). However, apparently one dose does not “kill.” Rather, the more one is exposed, the worse for the person. Several things cause timtum halev (see Mishheh Halachot ibid.) and other similar concepts (e.g., ruach ra’ah in food touched before netilat yadayim), and many things rectify problems of the spirit. The average person should trust halacha to factor in this element in a balanced manner and need not factor timtum halev into his halachic decisions (concern for possible sin is serious enough). One who strives for spiritual near-perfection might need to factor in even the finest points, but this response is not geared for such unique people. Lighting Candles When One Needs to Leave the HouseMy husband and I were going away for Shabbat, walking to a different side of the neighborhood to eat with relatives and sleep at a neighbor’s empty home. We left late, so we knew we would not make it in time to light at our destination. What should we have done about Shabbat candles?We start with what one should/can do when he has time. The main place for Shabbat candle lighting is the place of the Shabbat meal (Rama, Orach Chayim 263:11). If the homeowner is lighting there, there seems to be little point to add on. The Shulchan Aruch (OC 263:7) says that if a guest has no place to light or person lighting for him, he should become a partner in the homeowners’ lighting, a practice rarely done these days. The Mishna Berura (263:33) cites a Magen Avraham in the related context of a guest on Chanuka, that if a guest relies on the homeowner (especially regarding food, which is very common), he has no obligation to light. However, if the guest has a room entirely set aside for his purposes, he has an obligation to light there (Mishna Berura 263:31). From this it follows that you should have lit in the place you were sleeping, which many poskim prefer (Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 45:8; Chovat Hadar p. 95), and is the prevalent Sephardi minhag (see Yalkut Yosef, OC 263:20). The Ashkenazi minhag is to light with a beracha where they eat, although it is hard to justify the minhag when the homeowner has already lit there (Tehilla L’David 263:7; see Kavod V’oneg Shabbat p. 11 in the name of Rav M. Feinstein). (While poskim often discuss the bedroom, common practice assumes that it is anachronistic to light in the bedroom. The point of light in a bedroom is to not trip over things (Mordechai, Shabbat 294), which takes away from tranquility in the home. Nowadays, few people feel tranquility with a candle in their bedroom. Rather, they find an electric nightlight, light from the hall or the window, etc., to be preferable to a candle. In many ways, electric lights remove the need for Shabbat candles. However, we assume that the Rabbinic mandate of a flame still adds honor and extra festive light to Shabbat (see Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 43:171, in the name of Rav S.Z. Auerbach; Yalkut Yosef, OC 263:8). If one is sleeping in another’s house, lighting a candle in the normal place where they light adds honor and can be used upon returning from seudat Shabbat. Certainly, when the homeowners have not shown you a secure place to light in the bedroom, one has no halachic right to assume permission to light there and endanger their house (see Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 45:3).) If one lights before leaving his home or the place he is sleeping, he must ensure he will get benefit from the light on Shabbat. The suggested way is for the candles to last until one returns (Mishna Berura 263:30). This was apparently not feasible in your case. If it was already starting to get dark, you might have been able to receive benefit before leaving for Shabbat by doing an activity in a way that the candlelight made it more pleasant (Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 45:8). This works if the wife accepted Shabbat at that time (i.e., she did not need to do melacha afterward), so that she has “Shabbat benefit” even before nightfall. Those Sephardi woman who do not always accept Shabbat with candle lighting (see Yabia Omer II, OC 16) would need to intend to accept Shabbat early this time. The simplest thing for you to have done is to appoint a shaliach to light candles where you would be for Shabbat (see Mishna Berura 263:21). If you are an Ashkenazi woman, the place of eating is also the simplest technically. If you are a Sephardiya, someone lighting safely at the neighbors is best. (If someone can take care of the electric lights, this can be of value both for the main halachic lighting (see Yalkut Yosef 263:22) and the general need of proper lighting.) However, if the shaliach is anyway making her own beracha, adding candles on your behalf, without a new beracha, where you are eating carries little risk. Tricking a CheaterIf someone asks me for an answer during a test, can I tell him the wrong answer? (Response to follow-up question – I prefer not to refuse either to not suffer socially or so the cheater gets what he deserves.)Cheating on a test is an example of geneivat da’at (deception) (Igrot Moshe, Choshen Mishpat II:30), which is forbidden whether one fools a Jew or a non-Jew (Chulin 94a). Many consider this a Torah prohibition, under the rubric of stealing (Ritva ad loc.). It is highly destructive to one’s moral standing (Sha’arei Teshuva 3:184) and distances him from the path of He whose “seal is truth” (Shabbat 55a). We cannot but mention that the amount of cheating that occurs in far too many of our schools is tragic, and is sometimes done even by morally/religiously “quality students.” Your frustration is justified, but your suggestion is flawed on several important grounds. We will divide the discussion based on the motivations you mention. Geneivat da’at applies to such innocuous situations as making someone think you did him a bigger favor than you did (Chulin 94a). Rashi (ad loc.) explains that it is because he makes the recipient unnecessarily grateful. One can ask: is the deceptive act intrinsically forbidden, or is the prohibition dependent on the deceiver eventually receiving more than he deserves. While I cannot explain it succinctly, it is clear to me that the deception is intrinsic as long as he intends it to be impactful, even if that never comes to fruition (see Igrot Moshe ibid.). Thus, for example, every deceitful test answer is forbidden even if the examinee’s final grade (including F) was not improved by the cheating. Based on the above, the cheater violates geneivat da’at even if you give him the wrong answer, meaning that you will violate lifnei iver (sometimes, by Torah law and sometimes Rabbinically) by facilitating his aveira by providing an answer other than his own. “Giving him what he deserves,” does not justify your lifnei iver of aiding in his aveira or in deceiving him even if it were moral (our next topic). Ideally, you should rebuke the perpetrator, acting out of not only love of the mitzvot but also of the unfortunate sinner, who needs guidance (see Rambam, De’ot 6:7). Even if this is not feasible (see Yevamot 65b), you should not give the impression of agreeing with cheating, which may be a form of lifnei iver (see Shach, Yoreh Deah 151:6) and a chillul Hashem. Also, while there are cases it is justified to be deceitful with the deceitful (see Tehillim 18:27 and Yaakov-Lavan story), there seems to be little need/gain/justification for you to lie. The matter of concern for your social standing, which can sometimes be a serious problem, makes a better question. The gemara (Berachot 19b) allows significant halachic leniency to avoid embarrassment. Just as we suggested that one is not required to snitch on fare-beaters to a bus driver (Living the Halachic Process III:I-8), your fear can be an excuse to not tell the proctor about the cheating. However, to take part in the cheating (even with the wrong answer) is more difficult. One might claim that if the cheater could cheat from someone else, you would only be violating a Rabbinic version of lifnei iver (see Shach ibid and that there are times that one may violate Rabbinic prohibitions to avoid extreme embarrassment (Berachot ibid.)). However, such leniencies apply when there is a conflict by chance between one’s dignity and a Rabbinic prohibition. Here, the embarrassment is that one will scorn your halachically mandated morality. Therefore, even if many peers tragically rationalize or otherwise fail to keep this halacha, you must stand your ground and refuse to take part. It is similar to one whose friends invite him to eat (even Rabbinically) non-kosher food and will ridicule him if he refuses. We expect him to stick to his principles, as obligated. We wish you hatzlacha in protecting yourself from the moral corrosiveness of cheating and from the barbs of those who cheat – but in the right way. Working at a Bakery on Chol Hamoed PesachI am the only religious Jewish worker at a bakery owned by non-Jews that has a hashgacha during the year but not for Pesach. I believe that if I take off for Chol Hamoed, they will fire me. May I work then?Concerning work on Chol Hamoed per se (e.g., Sukkot), one of the broad leniencies is davar ha’aved (significant loss) (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 537:1). Therefore, you may go to work if the alternative is losing your job (Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 67:11). Working with chametz on Pesach, though, raises serious problems. In one of our columns (B’ha’alotcha 5775; please read it), we discussed parameters for working with non-kosher food in various capacities. We dealt with various opinions on a few issues: the possibility the worker will eat the non-kosher food, commerce in non-kosher food, and sometimes lifnei iver (facilitating an aveira). According to our analysis, we would rarely condone holding a job such as waiter at a non-kosher restaurant, for a combination of reasons. While there are differences between the cases in different directions, working directly with chametz on Pesach has obstacles that are even harder to overcome. First, the level of concern about eating chametz is more severe than for other forbidden foods. The Rama (OC 450:6, based on the Rivash 401) forbids buying chametz for a non-Jew on Pesach, which we do not find for most non-kosher foods. One of the reasons is the concern the Jewish buyer might come to eat it (Rivash; Mishna Berura 450:21). This is in line with the halacha that one who is watching a non-Jew’s chametz in his house (without accepting monetary responsibility) must make a partition in front of it, which, again, we do not find everywhere (Pesachim 6a; Mishna Berura 440:13). It is certainly, then, forbidden to work with ongoing direct physical contact with chametz on Pesach (see also Yabia Omer IV, YD 6). There is another reason to forbid work dealing with chametz. It is forbidden not only to eat but also to benefit from chametz (Pesachim 21a). The most direct applications of this prohibition are direct physical benefit and selling chametz. However, there are much broader applications of benefit, which are placed under the name of rotzeh b’kiyumo (one wants the forbidden object to exist). The Talmudic sources (see Avoda Zara 63b) discuss rotzeh b’kiyumo mainly, but not only, in the context of yayin nesech (strictly forbidden wine), and almost all Rishonim and poskim say it also applies to chametz. See many examples in Orach Chayim 450, including ones with indirect and minor interest in the chametz. For example, the Magen Avraham (450:10) explains that the aforementioned Rama about buying chametz for a non-Jew as being forbidden also because of rotzeh b’kiyumo. Is it rotzeh b’kiyumo if you forgo pay for your work on Pesach, and thus ostensibly do not benefit? Regarding yayin nesech, this does not help, as one may not even watch yayin nesech for free and without responsibility to pay for loss because a watchman feels bad if he does not do his job well (Shulchan Aruch, Yoreh Deah 133:6). Acharonim disagree to whether one can be in a situation in which he suffers when chametz is lost but does not gain positively from its presence. Some forbid this only for yayin nesech, assuming that it is more stringent than chametz in these areas (see Makor Chayim 450:7). Distinctions are made to reconcile apparent contradictions on the matter. According to a particularly pertinent distinction, one may not do an action of interaction with the chametz on Pesach (Maharam Shick, OC 225). In your case, almost all opinions will consider your work forbidden due to rotzeh b’kiyumon, as you would be actively working with chametz. Even if you artificially relinquish the pay you are due, your right to continued employment and future pay as a result is a benefit of your agreement to work with the chametz. Roasted Foods on PesachIs it permissible to eat roasted food at the seder, and if not, what is included?Eating roasted meat at the seder is one of the cases that the mishna (Pesachim 53a) says depends on the local minhag. However, in this matter there is presently quite a bit of uniformity in minhag among edot (communities based on ethnic origin, which, these days, is more important than locality). The gemara (ibid.) explains that we do not want to do things that look like we have sanctified something as a korban in place of the Korban Pesach. It says that all agree that it is forbidden to eat a roasted complete lamb or to say that an animal or piece of meat is set aside for Pesach (which has a double meaning – the holiday or the korban). Those who have the minhag not to eat any roasted meat on this night extend the reach of this concern further than those whose minhag is to eat most roasted meat. Interestingly, while the Shulchan Aruch (Orach Chayim 476:1-2) presents both minhagim, he does not take clear sides, nor does the Rama. However, Acharonim, both Ashkenazi (Mishna Berura 476:1) and Sephardi (Chazon Ovadia, Pesach II, p. 103) say unequivocally that the minhag is to not eat roasted meat. (I understand that Yemenites do eat roasted meat.) There are some important details to add, including some about which there is not unanimity. The prohibition is on all meat that requires shechita, which includes poultry but not fish (Shulchan Aruch ibid. 2). The standard approach is that pot roast (without the addition of a significant amount of liquid – see Shevet Halevi IX:120) is considered roasted (Magen Avraham 476:1 Mishna Berura 476:1). When the meat was both roasted and cooked, we usually follow the last process that was done, as it determines how the meat appears, which is the main issue (ibid.). While this approach sometimes indicates strictness and sometimes leniency (depending on which was last), there is room for leniency in cases of need (ibid.), which makes sense considering the whole topic is a minhag. (If meat was first totally cooked and was then only heated up without gravy, this is not a problem (see Shaarei Teshuva 476:1 and Chazon Ish OC 37:14), as long as the reheating did not alter its texture to the point that it might seem roasted.) There is some question as whether the prohibition is only at the seder (or sedarim in chutz la’aretz – Mishna Berura ibid.) or even the next day (see Ben Ish Chai I, Tzav 30). However, the consensus is that it is only at seder night – the time that the Korban Pesach would have been eaten (Mishna Berura ibid.; Yechaveh Da’at III:27). There is an interesting dilemma regarding foods from the seder plate, specifically the z’roa (forearm) of an animal and an egg, which are reminders of the Korban Pesach and Korban Chagiga, respectively (Shulchan Aruch, OC 473:4). The Shulchan Aruch says that the z’roa is roasted and the Rama says that the egg is roasted, as well. Because the z’roa is roasted, it should not be eaten at the seder (Yechaveh Da’at ibid.), whereas the egg can be eaten because it is not meat (Mishna Berura 473:32). According to those who cook the z’roa, the Pri Megadim (473, MZ 4) says that it is still forbidden because the fact that it represents the Korban Pesach increases the chance of confusion with it. He says that we don’t forbid eating the egg even though it represents another korban because the egg has other significances (see Rama, OC 476:2). However, one may be lenient if indeed the z’roa was cooked and not roasted (Yechaveh Da’at ibid.). The prohibition on eating the z’roa raises another issue (although not this year, when the seder is on Shabbat). If one did not roast the z’roa before Yom Tov, there is a question how one can roast it at night, given that one can only cook things on Yom Tov that he will eat (Magen Avraham 473:8). The Magen Avraham says that in such a case, one should have in mind to eat it during the day meal. The Maharshal (cited, ibid.) suggests to cook it, rather than roast it, and then eat it that night. Mezuzot on Both Doorposts?I am unsure to which doorpost to affix a mezuza. May I affix one on both sides, or is that prohibited as bal tosif (adding on to a mitzva)?We will start with some of the basic rules/opinions of bal tosif. Tosafot (Rosh Hashana 16b) asks how we can blow shofar both before and during Musaf without violating bal tosif and answers that there is no bal tosif on repeating a mitzva more times than necessary. The Rashba (Rosh Hashana 16a) says that one does not violate bal tosif if the additional activity is mandated by Chazal. (The Rambam (Mamrim 2:9) says that if the Rabbis formulate their Rabbinic law as if it is a Torah obligation, they are in violation of bal tosif.) Many Acharonim compare the matter of two mezuzot due to a doubt to that of two sets of tefillin due to a doubt, and the latter is the subject of much discussion. The Shulchan Aruch (Orach Chayim 34:2) says that one who wants to don the “tefillin of Rabbeinu Tam” in addition to “the tefillin of Rashi” should, if possible, don both pairs at the same time. The Shulchan Aruch just requires avoiding bal tosif by having in mind that while whatever is really the correct tefillin is for the mitzva, the other one is “no more than straps.” (Tosafot Yeshanim, Yoma 57a says that adding to a mitzva just for the purpose of eliminating doubt is not subject to bal tosif, but this is not the accepted opinion.) The Tur (OC 34) rejects the relevance of bal tosif more fundamentally, saying that it applies, for example, when one has five compartments in the tefillin, but not by wearing two separate pairs of normal tefillin. Many take issue with the Tur based on a gemara in Eiruvin (96a), which says that one who finds tefillin on Shabbat outside an eiruv and wants to wear them so that he can bring them to safety may not wear two pairs at a time, among other reasons, because of bal tosif. While we cannot summarize all the discussion on the matter, we mention that the Magen Avraham (34:2) says that one can don two pairs of tefillin only if one of them is not kosher. The Mishna Berura (34:8) says that the Shulchan Aruch’s case is permitted only because it has two factors that minimize bal tosif: 1. the extra element is separate from the basic one (see Sanhedrin 88b); 2. one of the entities is unfit for the mitzva. Even then, one should intend that only one of them (we do not know which) is for the mitzva. Along the lines of the gemara, the Pitchei Teshuva (Yoreh Deah 291:2) says that one who puts two mezuzot on the same doorpost violates bal tosif. This is not as strange an occurrence as one might think. Poskim discuss, for example, one who rents an apartment from a Jew who is not very careful about mitzvot who has a tiny mezuza case covered by paint, which the renter does not have permission to remove. Then, the question is whether he can affix another one. Regarding your question of putting mezuzot on two posts, where only one can be obligated in a mezuza, Acharonim disagree. The Binyan Tzion (99) says that the mezuza that is on the wrong door post has no more halachic significance than the wrong pair of tefillin, and therefore the Shulchan Aruch’s idea of donning two pair of tefillin can be applied to mezuzot on the two questionable posts. The Maharam Shick (Yoreh Deah 287) argues that a kosher mezuza affixed to a door post, even when it is to the doorpost that does not have an obligation, falls within the realm of the mitzva, making it subject to bal tosif when it is opposite a mezuza in the right place. Among contemporary poskim, while there is no clear consensus (see Yabia Omer VI, OC 2), the stronger opinion is to not sanction mezuzot on opposite door posts, whether as a clear ruling (Minchat Yitzchak I:9) or as a practical preference (Shevet Halevi III:150; Bemareh Habazak (IX:35). In addition to formalistic bal tosif issues, it is problematic policy to create a an odd-looking new phenomenon of two mezuzot, even if it is out of a desire for stringency/covering all bases, which itself is very often a two-edged sword. Al Hamichya on a FruitI ate a fruit that requires the beracha acharona of Al Ha’eitz but, due to a lack of concentration, I recited Al Hamichya. Do I have to subsequently recite the correct beracha acharona?It actually depends which fruit you ate. We will start, though, with the Levush’s (Orach Chayim 208:17) overview of the various berachot acharonot and of one reciting the wrong one. Birkat Hamazon is a Torah-level obligation (see Devarim 8:10), prescribed by the Torah for bread, which is filling and is the staple of a classic diet. The Rabbis modeled a Birkat Hamazon-style beracha (Me’ein Shalosh) for the seven foods that are mentioned in the p’sukim around the one on Birkat Hamazon. (There are opinions that this too is a Torah-level obligation.) Within the versions of Me’ein Shalosh, the highest level (and thus the first mentioned when one makes a beracha on multiple Me’ein Shalosh foods) is Al Hamichya because it is for grain-based foods, which are generally more filling than fruits. Afterward, wine (Al Hagefen) is more important, followed by Al Haeitz for grapes, figs, pomegranates, olives, and dates. The Levush explains that it is obvious that a lower-level or an inaccurate beracha is insufficient for that which requires a higher-level one. Additionally, a higher-level beracha does not cover foods which call for lesser praise because an exaggerated beracha is not of value. Thus, for example, reciting Birkat Hamazon for vegetables, as if it constituted a meal, is valueless, and Borei Nefashot must still be said. Two exceptions to this rule are dates and wine. The gemara (Berachot 12a, as understood by Rishonim – see Beit Yosef, OC 208) says that if one recited Birkat Hamazon after eating dates, he fulfilled his obligation because dates are particularly filling. Another gemara (ibid. 35b) says similarly that wine is filling and would have required Birkat Hamazon if not for the fact that people rarely make it the basis of a meal. Therefore, the Shulchan Aruch (OC 208:17) rules that Birkat Hamazon is valid after-the-fact for dates and wine. All other foods that require Me’ein Shalosh are not exempted by Birkat Hamazon that was recited on them outside the framework of a meal with bread (ibid.). What about when the mistake was to recite Al Hamichya instead of Al Haeitz (or Al Hagefen)? The Levush (ibid.) assumes that regarding dates and wine, if Birkat Hamazon is not too much of an exaggeration, then certainly Al Hamichya is not, and one would not have to repeat Me’ein Shalosh. The Taz (OC 208:16, see Pri Megadim ad loc.) disagrees. He argues that Birkat Hamazon contains the word zan (roughly, sustain), which is appropriate for dates and wine, whereas michya (roughly, food that gives life) is a different quality, which does not apply to them. The Malbushei Yom Tov (208:11) reasons that the fact that the halacha of fulfilling the beracha on dates with the wrong beracha acharona was said in regards to Birkat Hamazon implies that Al Hamichya is invalid even after-the-fact, and the Eliya Rabba (208:26) does not discount this possibility. However, the majority of Acharonim assume that after Al Hamichya for dates or wine, one does not need another beracha (see Minchat Shlomo 91, V’zot Haberacha p. 48). Since the general rule is that when is in doubt, he does not make another beracha, this is the proper ruling to adopt. The question of Al Hamichya sufficing for dates and wine is much more complicated when one had both grains and dates or wine and mentioned “al hamichya” without the other elements. In that case, we assume that the person, when omitting the other elements, demonstrated that he did not remember the need to have the beracha cover them. Therefore, the stronger view in that case is to repeat Me’ein Shalosh with just the missing element (see discussion in Har Tzvi, OC I:108; Yalkut Yosef, OC 207:(2)). The clear consensus is that one does not fulfill his beracha acharona obligation on grapes, figs, pomegranates, and olives with Birkat Hamazon or Al Hamichya (see Shulchan Aruch, OC 208:17). Feeding fish on PesachI have a salt water 225 gallon tank with fish and Coral. I feed them frozen fish with other assorted ingredients. What do I do on Pesach?One may not benefit from Chametz, and therefore one should not feed his animals Chametz, which one is also not able to possess. If their diet requires Chametz they should be sold to a non-Jew who will actually take them into his possession for Pesach. On the other hand, if the food is apparently not Chametz, we are not as strict in requiring Hashgacha as we would for eating food ourselves, which is a more severe halachic issue, and it may be fed to the fish. Products Containing Minute Quantities of Non-Kosher FoodI want to use a homeopathic allergy medicine that contains some apis mellifica, which is trace quantities of crushed honeybee. Is this permitted?There is disagreement on the topic of alternative medicine. Extreme opinions are rarely right. Some treatments under the umbrella of alternative medicine are helpful, and some are quackery and serve as a placebo at best. There is also a significant category of medicines and treatments (homeopathic or conventional) whose efficacy is unclear or varies from person to person. We are not in the position to take a stand on which treatments fall into which category. This general disclaimer has added significance in the case of ingesting something non-kosher as a medication. There is significant room for leniency when ingesting non-kosher items in a not classic manner of eating for the medicinal needs of the sick (Pesachim 25b; Shulchan Aruch and Rama, Yoreh Deah 155:3). Not only do many cases of allergy not qualify as sick, but the Rama (ibid.) requires that a medicine must be proven effective for leniency to apply; this is rarely if ever true of homeopathy. So let us look at the kashrut of the ingredient in question. Bees are sheratzim and thus not kosher, even though their honey is (Rambam, Maachalot Assurot 3:3). It is permitted to eat honey into which taste from parts of bees enters, because the taste is assumed to be negative (Shulchan Aruch, YD 81:8). One could say that this is only true when bee parts fell in accidentally, but that if one purposely put them in, he thereby gives them importance, thus preventing bitul (nullification) due to its bad taste (achshevei – Chulin 120a). Many poskim (including Igrot Moshe, Orach Chayim II:92, Minchat Shlomo II:65) say that if the purpose of the non-kosher food is not related to its food qualities but just medicinal ones, achshevei does not apply. In this case, we ostensibly have a simpler reason for permissibility - homeopathic solutions use trace quantities of the active ingredient, so that there is usually sixty times more kosher than non-kosher (see Shulchan Aruch, YD 98:1). On the other hand, bitul is supposed to come about by accident, whereas it is forbidden to add kosher material to arrive at criteria for bitul (Shulchan Aruch, YD 99:5). If this is done, the bitul is disqualified, and the food remains forbidden for the person who did the bitul and those for whom he did it (ibid.). Ostensibly, in this case, that is the consumers of the apis mellifica. However, bitul is disqualified as a penalty for the sin of nullifying the forbidden food. If the food was put into a mixture in which it is batel by a non-Jew, who is obviously not forbidden to make that mixture, there is no reason to penalize him, and it is permitted, according to most opinions, for a Jew to buy the product (see Badei Hashulchan 99:38). If the company is owned by Jews but the act of nullification was done by non-Jews, the matter is not simple. On the one hand, the Beit Yosef (YD 99) says that if a Jew asked a non-Jew to do bitul, the Jew cannot eat it (or sell it to profit from the bitul – Rama ibid.). On the other hand, even if a Jew did bitul, the Taz (99:9) says that if he did not realize it is forbidden for him to do so, the mixture is permitted. Apparently, the product in question has an edible base (including alcohol), whose kashrut we cannot confirm, and thus ingesting may be forbidden due to the inactive ingredient. This leads us to an interesting question. Would it be permitted to give a hasgacha to this product? The Badei Hashulchan (to 99:5) says that this is forbidden because the rabbi becomes a partner in the nullification process through his instructions. However, this is logical only in a case where the rabbi has them do the process according to his instruction. If, though, the regular process renders the mixture kosher by bitul, formal halacha should allow him to inform the public of this fact. However, formal hechsherim are not generally given in such cases (see Igrot Moshe, YD II:41). LED Shoes for Children on ShabbatCan a child wear on Shabbat shoes that have lights (LED) in the soles that light up when he walks?The consensus is that activating light-emitting diodes (LEDs) on Shabbat is not a Torah-level prohibition, but is a Rabbinic level one. One connects a circuit and light is emitted (by the transfer of electrons through junctions of semi-conductors). It is not simple to pinpoint what the Rabbinic violation is (when the diodes do not form writing or pictures). Some (including Rav S.Z. Auerbach) say it is molid (creating something new), even though there is no explicit Talmudic category of molid with light. Others say it is under the category of uvdin d’chol, which is a sort of catch-all for things that by halachic intuition and precedent, must be forbidden on Shabbat, which we assume regarding operating electric systems on Shabbat. In the case of a child’s shoes, we can raise various grounds for leniency. This is especially the case if we assume, as depends on the circumstances, that despite the initial excitement of watching himself light up his shoes, a child eventually walks without thinking about the lights. Since the lights definitely will go on, this is a case of p’sik reishei, someone who intends to do an act (e.g., walking) for a certain purpose, but, by necessity another result, which is forbidden (e.g., activating LEDs on Shabbat), also occurs. While p’sik reishei is forbidden, the Terumat Hadeshen (64) says that a p’sik reishei of a Rabbinic violation is permitted. While we accept the opinion of the Magen Avraham (314:5), who forbids p’sik reishei even of a Rabbinic prohibition (see Mishna Berura 314:11), it is still a mitigating factor. At some point, it is possible that the child is not considered to have a preference that the shoes light up, in which case, we have a p’sik reishei d’lo nicha lei, which the Aruch permits (see Beit Yosef, OC 320). Admittedly, the Aruch’s opinion is not generally accepted (Shulchan Aruch, OC 320:18; see Mishna Berura 320:53, that all agree with the Aruch that there is no Torah prohibition). However, there are quite a few opinions (including Yabia Omer V, OC 28) that a p’sik reishei d’lo nicha lei on a Rabbinically forbidden result is permitted. While many are stringent even in that, in cases in which refraining from the matter at hand causes particular trouble, it is quite accepted to be lenient (Orchot Shabbat 30:5). Thus, if an adult were to ask about wearing the shoes in question, we would not allow it without special need, but this strict ruling would not be a definite one if he did not care out all about the lights. When we turn to the question of a child wearing such shoes, the situation becomes much more lenient. If it is a toddler, who is too young to train in any serious way about observing Shabbat, then his parents do not have to distance him from violations of Shabbat. On the other hand, when one is involved in facilitating the prohibition for the child (the applications are broader than the Talmudic term of “feeding him by hand,” and certainly include putting shoes on him), it is prohibited. The Rashba and Ran say that this prohibition does not apply to Rabbinic prohibitions (see Beit Yosef, OC 343). While the Shulchan Aruch (OC 343:1) does not accept this opinion, many are lenient in certain cases of need, at least with small children (Orchot Shabbat 24:(32) - see Bi’ur Halacha to 343:1). Regarding something which is not even unanimously agreed to be forbidden for an adult, it is much easier to be lenient for a child. Returning Another Person’s TheftI was at a coffee shop, and an ostensibly religious Jew (Reuven) left intentionally without paying. I heard the angry reaction of the proprietor (Shimon) and decided to pay instead of Reuven, hoping to reduce the chillul Hashem. Did my payment exempt Reuven? What about paying kefel (double payment for covert theft)? How did it affect Reuven’s teshuva process? Also, were the berachot Reuven made on the food l’vatala when it turns out retroactively the food was stolen?Your actions and questions show noble concern for both your fellow man and the honor of Hashem, and it is a pleasure to analyze halachic elements you raise. There are troubling educational and societal issues in this scenario, as you understand it, but we will suffice with what you asked. The gemara (Nedarim 33a) says that one who pays his friend’s debt is not considered giving his friend positive benefit but removing an obstacle (this makes a difference regarding nedarim and whether he can demand compensation from the debtor (see Ketubot 107b)). However, it is a given that the debt is considered paid, precluding the creditor’s further demands on the debtor. How payment by a person other than the debtor or his agent works is an important question. One possibility is a concept known as eved k’naani (Kiddushin 7a) –when Levi gives something to Yehuda on behalf of Naftali, it counts as if Naftali gave it (Chazon Ish, Even Haezer 36, p. 237). Another possibility is that there is an implied stipulation that the creditor is receiving money on condition that he waives the debtor’s debt (Mishneh Lamelech, Malveh 5:14). Your question on kefel assumes there was theft, which is apparently not the case. The coffee shop willingly gave Reuven the food, and therefore Reuven did not steal. Rather, upon receiving the food, Reuven became obligated to pay for it, and he (purposely) did not fulfill this obligation. While it is an aveira not to pay a debt (see Tehillim 37:21), such a person does not incur kefel. One could argue that it was theft because had Shimon known Reuven’s plan (assuming the “eat and run” move was planned in advance), he would not have given the food. That is a fascinating outlook which has several related applications (see Pitchei Choshen, Halva’ah 2:(26) for one), to which we cannot do justice in this forum. On at least technical grounds, had Shimon read Reuven’s mind at the moment Reuven would have been stealing, i.e., when receiving/eating the food, Shimon likely would have forced him take the food and pay, rather than take the food back. In any case, kefel is predicated on beit din’s ruling, and since we have lost the uninterrupted chain of semicha from Moshe Rabbeinu, we now lack the authority to obligate penalty payments such as kefel (Bava Kama 84b). If we view the food as stolen, then indeed the berachot were themselves an aveira (Bava Kama 94a). However, if we are correct, the food is permitted, and the fact that the situation will likely lead to do a future aveira (not paying) does not preclude a beracha (compare to poskim on Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 196:1). Certainly, the food cannot become stolen retroactively. Whatever the aveira violated, Reuven certainly requires teshuva. There are several elements to teshuva. Confessing sin, having remorse, and changing one’s future behavior are obviously not affected by your noble actions. However, there is also a matter of practically rectifying one’s actions vis a vis the person whom he wronged. The Rambam (Teshuva 2:9) refers to taking care of any money due and appeasing the victim for the accompanying affront. Your payment removes the ongoing requirement to pay his debt. This helps Reuven if he would otherwise ignore his duty to pay Shimon (although, to a great extent, reducing the positive value of paying if he had a change of heart). The matter of appeasement would still apply. Perhaps you removed some of the sting from Shimon, which probably helps Reuven, and we hope you succeeded in lessening the chillul Hashem. What does a Bracha effectuate?On a daily basis (many times a day) we pronounce and recite many brachot upon/for people, stuff, occasions and situations. But what exactly is a Bracha, what does it do? Bracha is often translated as a blessing or praise, as opposite of curse, but it's not like we pronounce a wish, put on a spell or grant some magic in order to effectuate, realize or change that which has been spoken of. It's not that after we put a blessing over the bread that we're eating blessed bread right? It's still the same bread. So what is it that's changed, achieved, effectuated or gained with a Bracha? Are brachot just declarations, acknowledgements of what G-d does, did or create etc.?I will give you a quick answer and implore you to find additional avenues (there is so much written and there are so many lectures available) to further your understanding of the topic generally, and regarding specific berachot. There are two very different types of beracha that we use, often without realizing that, while they share elements, they are far from interchangeable. 1. Berachot that we find in our siddurim, etc. - these are statements of praise to Hashem, which follow a certain form (Baruch ata Hashem ...). These break into different categories depending on what we are thanking him for : 1. For giving us mitzvot, recited before doing the mitzvot. 2. General praise for things He provides, often said on a daily basis (e.g., Birkot Hashachar). 3. Birkot Hanehenin - berachot said before receiving benefit from the world Hashem created and sustained. 2. Prayers, in which the subject of the blessing is another person - e.g.. I give you a beracha that you should have a long healthy life and understand berachot and other elements of Torah. Hashem is involved in it in that the one giving the beracha turns to Hashem in asking Him to carry out my desire that someone else will be well. This is the opposite of a curse. For some reason, when one makes the request for himself we call it a tefilla (prayer) and when we do it for others we call it a beracha. These are often made up on the spot by the person giving the blessing, although we certainly have set ones, most prominently the set berachot that the Kohanim give (daily in Israel, on holidays abroad). I would point out that the berachot of Shemoneh Esrei are an interesting combination of the two elements, as we praise Hashem for being the one who gives wisdom, salvation, sustenance, etc. in the midst of making requests for success in these matters for us (we say it in the plural). I hope this very basic overview is helpful.
Tisha B’Av Pushed Off Until SundayWhat is done differently this year, when Tisha B’Av falls on Shabbat and is pushed off to Sunday?Seuda Shlishit: The baraita (cited in Ta’anit 29a) says that one may eat an extravagant meal on Shabbat even when Tisha B’Av falls on Motzaei Shabbat. The Tur (Orach Chayim 552) cites minhagim that one is allowed and would do best to curtail the Shabbat meal. This is especially so at seuda shlishit, which is, in effect, the seuda hamafseket (the last meal before Tisha B’Av, which usually has strong elements of mourning). However, these considerations are countered by the need to avoid displaying mourning on Shabbat. Therefore, there are no real restrictions, even at seuda shlishit (Shulchan Aruch, OC 552:10). However, the mood should somewhat reflect the coming of Tisha B’Av, as long as it does not bring on clearly noticeable changes (Mishna Berura 552:23). One important halachic requirement is that one must finish eating before sunset (Rama, ad loc.(. Havdala: One says Havdala in tefilla or separately with the declaration of “Baruch Hamavdil…,” which enables him to do actions that are forbidden on Shabbat. Havdala over a cup of wine is done after Tisha B’Av (Shulchan Aruch, OC 556:1). If one forgot to mention Havdala in Shemoneh Esrei, he does not repeat Shemoneh Esrei even though he will not make Havdala over wine until the next day. Rather, he makes the declaration of Baruch Hamavdil (Mishna Berura 556:2). Unlike Havdala during the Nine Days, where we try to give the wine to a child (Rama 551:10), after Tisha B’Av an adult can freely drink that wine (Mishna Berura 556:3). The beracha on besamim is not said this week. On Tisha B’Av it is not appropriate, because it is a reviving pleasure, and one can make this beracha only on Motzaei Shabbat. The beracha on fire is specific to Motzaei Shabbat, is not a pleasure, and does not require a cup. Therefore, we recite the beracha on fire in shul after Ma’ariv, before reading Eicha (Mishna Berura 556:1). There are those who say that a woman should, in general, avoid making Havdala. A major reason is the doubt whether a woman is obligated in the beracha on fire, which is not directly related to Shabbat and thus is a regular time-related mitzva, from which women are exempt (Be’ur Halacha 296:8). Therefore, it is better for one whose wife will not be in shul at the time of the beracha to have in mind not to fulfill the mitzva at that time, but to make the beracha on the fire together with his wife (Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 62:(98). Taking off shoes: As mentioned, one may not do a noticeable act of mourning before Shabbat is over. While finishing eating before sunset or refraining from washing need not be noticeable, taking off shoes is. There are two minhagim as to when to take them off: 1) One waits until after Shabbat is out, says Hamavdil, and then changes clothes and goes to shul. One can do so a little earlier than the regular time listed for Shabbat ending, which is usually delayed a little bit beyond nightfall to allow for a significant extension of Shabbat. The exact time is not clear and depends on the latitude of one’s location. It is advisable to start Ma’ariv a little late in order to allow people to do so and make it to shul (ibid.:40; Torat Hamoadim 9:1), unless the rabbi has ruled that everyone should take the following approach. 2) One takes off his shoes after Barchu of Ma’ariv. One who takes the second approach should bring non-leather footwear and Eicha/Kinot to shul before Shabbat to avoid hachana (preparations for after Shabbat). However, if one uses these sefarim a little in shul before Shabbat is out, he may bring them on Shabbat (Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata ibid.:41). Restrictions after Tisha B’Av: Since much of the Beit Hamikdash burned on 10 Av, the minhag developed to not eat meat or drink wine on this day. Some are stringent on laundering, bathing, and haircutting until midday of the 10th. On a year like this, only meat and wine are restricted and only at night (Rama, OC ibid.; Mishna Berura ad loc. 4). Eating before KiddushAs a nursing mother, I sometimes get very hungry or thirsty between when I light candles and when my husband comes home from shul. When this happens, is it permitted for me to eat or drink?We start with a look at the halachic indications when there are not extenuating circumstances. Then we can look for the best solutions based on need. The gemara (Pesachim 106b) cites a machloket on whether one who ate before making Kiddush is able to make Kiddush afterward. We accept the opinion that he may (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 271:4). However, all agree with the implication that it is wrong to eat, even small quantities, before Kiddush (ibid.). Often, prohibitions on eating do not apply to drinking water, including before Havdala (ibid. 299:1). The Rosh (Shut 25:2) explains that due to the concept that any eating done on Shabbat has importance, it is forbidden to drink water before Kiddush. However, there is a machloket whether this concept applies during twilight, and thus it is not clear whether one may drink water at that time (Da’at Torah, OC 271:4). When does the basic (Rabbinic) prohibition begin? The poskim assume that once it is possibly Shabbat (from sunset) or one accepted Shabbat, it is forbidden to eat (Bach, OC 271; Mishna Berura 271:11). When women light Shabbat candles, they accept Shabbat (Rama, OC 263:10). Therefore, most assume that it is forbidden for a woman to eat or drink after lighting candles before making Kiddush (Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 43:45). The Dagul Meirevava (to Shulchan Aruch, OC 261:4) says that while davening Ma’ariv makes it Shabbat in regards to all Shabbat prohibitions, it is questionable whether other forms of accepting Shabbat early obligate one to adhere to all Rabbinical laws (Shulchan Aruch, OC 393:2). The Minchat Yitzchak (VIII:18) entertains the possibility that it would be permitted to eat after candle lighting before Ma’ariv. However, he is unwilling to be practically lenient without the presence of other reasons for leniency (e.g., the case he discusses, where one is drinking water to swallow medicine). The Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata (43:46) is willing to be lenient for a woman who is thirsty to drink water and, in a case of need, tea. As mentioned, candle lighting likely makes it forbidden for a woman who lit to eat because, with it, she accepts Shabbat. It is generally accepted conceptually that a woman can have explicitly in mind to not accept Shabbat with her lighting (Shulchan Aruch and Rama, OC 263:10). In practice, because this is not a unanimously accepted possibility, poskim rely on such a condition only in cases of significant need (Mishna Berura 263:43). Along these lines, Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata (43:47) allows a woman who is feeling weak or who is nursing to eat as she likes after candle lighting if she made that condition. However, these leniencies of the Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata’s are only if she finishes eating before sunset. What if a woman gets particularly hungry after that, especially if she is nursing? While there are significant leniencies for nursing mothers so that their milk supply should not be affected, waiting an hour is unlikely to affect that. However, she is still the type of person who, in many cases, may have unusual tza’ar if she cannot eat when the feeling hits her. Nevertheless, in almost all cases, it is hard to be lenient, and that is because she almost always has a great alternative – to make Kiddush before her husband comes home (see Minchat Yitzchak ibid.). There is no halachic reason not to do so. Even if it is not accepted in the family, hopefully a simple discussion with her husband, with the pertinent information, should convince all that her making Kiddush is better than her eating or drinking after sunset before Kiddush. On the other hand, every rule has exceptions, and when there is an acute need, one can be lenient soon after sunset as well, especially to drink any amount of water. Guidelines for eating on Tisha B’av for one who is illIf one is not allowed to fast on Tisha B'av, what are the guidelines for eating?Someone who is sick, even if it is not life-threatening, does not have to fast on Tisha B'av (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 554:6). However, if it is not too difficult, some are stringent, and require that one fast part of the day or eat small amounts like on Yom Kippur (see Biur Halacha ad loc. and Mishna Berura ad loc. 14). If the person in question has the physical and emotional strength to do so, that is laudable, although not strictly required. In a year when Tisha B'av is pushed off until Sunday, it is not necessary to be stringent. Questions about Simanim on Rosh HashanaI have some questions about the simanim (symbolic foods) we eat on Rosh Hashana. Should we have them both nights? Is it done before or after washing, and how does this impact on the berachot made on them?There are various credible minhagim on these matters. We will mainly explain the issues, although we will show mild preferences for certain practices for those who lack a clear minhag. The gemara (Kritot 6a) says that since symbolism has significance, one should “be in the practice” of eating (some texts – “seeing”) certain foods (dates and four vegetable simanim) in the “head of the year.” While some say that “being in the practice” refers to all Rosh Hashana meals and some say that it is only for the year’s first meal, the more accepted practice is to eat the simanim at both night meals (see discussion in Mishneh Halachot XIII:80; Torat Hamoadim, Yamim Noraim 4:1). The more prevalent minhag (in homes and among poskim) is to eat the foods after Hamotzi (see Tur, Orach Chayim 583; Magen Avraham 583:1; Taz 583:2). Besides the logic of eating the foods during the meal, some poskim claim it solves a halachic problem (see Torat Hamoadim ibid. 2). If one eats them before the bread, we have the same question about needing a beracha acharona as after eating karpas before matza. While we solve that problem by eating less than a k’zayit of karpas (see Shulchan Aruch, OC 473:6), many people want to eat more than a k’zayit (combined) of the simanim. Actually, eating the simanim after bread raises other beracha questions. The poskim assume that one makes a beracha rishona on the fruit simanim even though it is during the meal, which is not simple. While fruit eaten for desert requires a beracha rishona, fruit served as an “appetizer” gets no beracha (see Mishna Berura 174:39; V’zot Haberacha, p. 77). Perhaps the fact that it is eaten for ritual, not culinary, reasons is a contributing factor to justify a beracha (see Divrei Yatziv, OC 252). A related question is whether to recite Borei Pri Ha’adama on a vegetable siman. As a rule, we do not do so on vegetables during a meal, as they “accompany the main meal.” In our case, there are varied opinions. The more common practice is to make the beracha, perhaps because they are eaten as simanim, but some argue that this makes no difference (Teshuvot V’hanhagot II:269; Torat Hamoadim, ibid.). Some (see Halichot Shlomo, Moadim II:1:18) compromise by saying to make the beracha on the least “normally eaten” of the vegetables, which some assume is kara (gourd family). (Piskei Teshuvot (583:(13)) cites Rav Diblitski as suggesting a safe although unnatural idea – first eat from a Borei Pri Ha’adama fruit (e.g., watermelon, banana), which certainly requires a beracha.) Another question of minhag vs. regular rules of berachot relates to the order of berachot. When one plans to eat multiple fruit, he makes the Borei Pri Haetz on a fruit of “the seven species” (including dates and pomegranates, in that order, based on their order in the pasuk – Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 211:1,4). Yet, the common minhag for Ashkenazim is to eat – with a beracha and Yehi Ratzon – the apple dipped in honey first. (It is hard to know how the minhag developed. Is the idea of “shana tova u’metuka” more central (even though it is post-Talmudic) and warrant precedence?) Some take the purist approach, making Borei Pri Haetz on the date, and have the apple later (Halichot Shlomo ibid.). A way to keep the order of the Yehi Ratzon yet follow the regular rules of berachot is to have the dates and pomegranates off the table, while having them in mind, when making the beracha on the apple (ibid.). One can also make the beracha on the date, eat a small amount, then eat the apple, pomegranate, and date with the order that fits his Yehi Ratzon preference. An Israeli Being a Chazan Abroad Before Dec. 5If a “chiyuv” to be a chazan is abroad between 7 Cheshvan and Dec. 5th, is it okay for him to be a chazan? Does he say “v’ten tal umatar livracha,” (=vtum) during his silent Shemoneh Esrei (=SE) and chazarat hashatz?We discussed the matter of travelers to chutz la’aretz during this time of year in Living the Halachic Process (II:A-11), and we start with a summary. If an Israeli is abroad on 7 Cheshvan and will be returning during the year, he should start asking for rain on 7 Cheshvan. While some say to do so in its regular place, it is preferable to make the request during the beracha of Shomeiah Tefilla, due to a machloket on the matter. If he started reciting vtum in Israel and traveled later, it is even clearer that he should continue doing so, and there is more reason for him to do so at its regular place. One can question permissibility to be chazan on two grounds. One is the question whether someone who is obligated in one form of SE can function on behalf of a tzibbur that is obligated in a different form. Regarding the matter of an Israeli being chazan for a chutz la’aretz community on second day of Yom Tov, this is a daunting halachic problem (see Bemareh Habazak II:36). One can claim the same issues apply here. However, stringency requires making several assumptions (see responsum of Rav C.P. Scheinberg in Yom Tov Sheni K’hilchato, p. 415-423), and it is very unlikely that all of them are correct. The great majority of poskim say that this is not a problem (see Minchat Yitzchak X:9, Yom Tov Sheni 10:6). Therefore, he can serve the tzibbur according to their needs, which is to not say vtuv. (Yalkut Yosef (5745 ed., vol. I, p. 264) says that even within chazarat hashatz he should unobtrusively whisper vtuv during Shomeia Tefilla. However, that is practically and halachically problematic, and is not accepted practice.) Another issue is how the chazan deals with his conflicting needs during silent SE. On the one hand, he is obligated to have a SE that includes vtum. On the other hand, Chazal instituted silent SE for a chazan who is about to recite chazarat hashatz (which is a valid SE), in order to practice for that task (Rosh Hashana 34b). If our traveler says vtum in its regular place, he is practicing in a way that would ruin his chazarat hashatz, which makes his SE self-defeating. Yet, the Birkei Yosef (117:8) says that this is what he does. He cites as a source the Taz’s (117:2) idea that a community that needs rain at a time when vtum is not said can ask in Shomeia Tefilla (including the chazan) even though chazarat hashatz cannot be done that way. Several poskim see this setup as not problematic at all (see opinions in Yom Tov Sheni K’hilchato 10:(17)), while others prefer avoiding the situation (see B’tzel Hachochma I:62; the Birkei Yosef also implies it). It likely depends on whether we say the idea of practicing is just the original reason to institute silent SE or that it remains the practical guide for how the chazan does the SE. Another application is the question whether a chazan uses his own nusach for silent SE when leading a shul with a different nusach. The Minchat Yitzchak (VI:31) justifies what he claims the minhag is to use one’s own nusach, by saying that it is enough that he does chazarat hashatz from a siddur. In contrast, Igrot Moshe (OC II:29) posits that the practice SE should be done as chazarat hashatz will be, i.e., like the tzibbur. Using an electric bed warmer on ShabbatCan one use an electric bed warmer (a mattress pad with a heating element) on Shabbat?Our understanding is that nothing you would do on Shabbat would affect the operation of the warmer (including that it works at a set level of heat and does not work based on a thermostat.) Therefore, there would be no problem with using it even on Shabbat, with a timer. It doesn't seem to be any different than an air-conditioner or electric heater on a timer, which is commonly used on Shabbat. Using an Hourglass on ShabbatThis past Yom Kippur, I was a few days after birth, and so a rabbi said that I could eat small amounts of food. He lent me an hourglass set to give the correct amount of time for “eating in intervals.” Is it always permitted to use an hourglass on Shabbat, or was it a special leniency because of my medical status?Mazal tov! Chazal forbade measuring things on Shabbat. This comes up in the gemara in Beitza (29a) in the context of using utensils with measure markings in transferring produce from one person to another. It also comes up in Shabbat (157a-b) in the context of measuring a mikveh and other pools of water. There seem to be two approaches to the underlying reason behind the prohibition, and they are likely to be complementary rather than alternative. The Rambam (Shabbat 23:13) connected measuring to Rabbinic prohibitions related to commerce, which itself is forbidden lest one come to write (Rambam ibid. 12). However, the Rambam (ibid. 24:5) also brings it among things that are forbidden as weekday activities (uvdin d’chol). The need for a second element of the prohibition makes sense because many of the applications discussed are totally unrelated to commerce. Likewise, the Mishna Berura in some contexts invokes the reason of commerce (e.g., 323:3, 324:4), whereas elsewhere (306:34) relates measuring to uvdin d’chol. The Beit Yosef (OC 308) cites the Maharil, who was uncertain whether an hourglass is muktzeh because it is used for measuring. Indeed, it is not classical measuring, which is when one uses an instrument to measure an object. In contrast, here one uses an instrument to determine the passage of the non-physical entity of time. While the Shulchan Aruch (OC 308:51) leaves the matter as a doubt, the Rama (ad loc.), like the Maharil, says that the minhag is to prohibit an hourglass. This is the ruling of contemporary poskim as well (see Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 28:35). (Poskim agree that a wrist watch is permitted – see Mishna Berura 308:168; Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 28:20. The distinction between this and an hourglass that makes most sense to me is that a watch tells you what time it is, whereas an hourglass measures the “distance” between point A and point B in time). So indeed, the ruling you received was due to your special need. The idea that measuring is permitted for cases of special need is explicit in the gemara (Shabbat 157b) regarding measuring a mikveh to see if it is still valid, because this is a mitzva. Rishonim extend the leniency from mitzva use to the needs of a sick person. The Tur (OC 306) brings discussion of an ancient “alternative medicine” procedure for one with a headache that included measuring a certain distance and then saying an incantation. One authority forbade it, one permitted because the measuring is not done in a serious manner (see Shabbat 157b), and the Maharam MiRutenberg permitted it because healing the sick person is a mitzva. The Shulchan Aruch (OC 306:7) accepts the latter opinion. It is clear from the context of the above discussions that the needs of a sick person in this regard include one who is not dangerously sick (see also Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 28:35). Tosafot (Shabbat 126b) explains that we are more lenient regarding measuring for a mitzva than for most Rabbinic prohibitions in which a mitzva is not sufficient (see Shulchan Aruch, OC 328:17). Measuring, which is forbidden only because of uvdin d’chol, is more lenient than most Rabbinical prohibitions. In your case, there are actually two ways of looking at how it was a mitzva. One is that it was necessary to allow you to eat according to the ruling you received, so it was the needs of a “sick” person. The other way is that given that you were allowed to eat, the hourglass helped you fulfill the mitzva of lessening the necessary violation of eating on Yom Kippur. Either way, it was permitted for you, even though without a special reason it would have been forbidden to mark the passage of time with an hourglass on Yom Kippur. Double Wrapping Food in a Treif OvenI know that sometimes when warming something in a not kosher oven or a milchig food in a fleishig oven, he double wraps the food. When is this necessary and why?A proper job of double wrapping solves virtually any issue of heating things up in ovens. Sometimes, less is needed, and sometimes double wrapping is only a stringency. We will summarize the issue but will not be able to cover every circumstance. The classic and surest way for a non-kosher food to transfer ta’am (a sufficient amount of particles to give off taste), and thereby make a kosher food forbidden is for them to make direct contact when they are hot. Yet, two other possible ways are discussed in the sources: 1. They are heated up in close proximity so that reicha (vapor) from one is liable to reach the other. When the vapor is strong/wet enough, it is called zeiah, and the chance of significant transfer is greater. Which factors must be present for this to actually forbid the food, l’chatchila or b’dieved, is detailed, complicated, and includes machlokot, so it is beyond our scope (see Shulchan Aruch, Yoreh Deah 108:1). We will relate to scenarios in which the transfer is significant. 2. Heat and/or other factors cause particles to go from the food into utensils, from which they may go and “contaminate” other food that comes in contact with that utensil. Now let’s analyze what can possibly happen in a treif oven. If one heats up kosher food at the same time with treif food, the vapor from the treif food can enter the kosher food. Here, there is a clear requirement for double wrapping for the following reason. With a single wrap, the treif food will make the wrapping treif. The hot kosher food on the inside of the single wrapping would then extract the ta’am from the wrapping and make the food forbidden. When working properly, the double wrapping ensures that there is nothing in between the two wrappings. Under those conditions, we say that ta’am is not transferred from one utensil directly into another one without the medium of a food or liquid (Rama, YD 92:8). If the oven is “empty,” then even if is there is edible non-kosher residue on the walls and ta’am within the walls, it is unlikely that it will produce enough vapor to cause a problem. The problem is that the vapor of the kosher food could provide the medium to transfer the treif particles to the kosher food. However, to prevent this, it suffices to have a single cover to keep the vapor in (see Rama, YD 108:1). Another problem can occur if the kosher utensil is placed directly on non-kosher residue. Then, the non-kosher ta’am can go straight into the utensil and from there into the kosher food. To prevent this one does not require a full wrapping, but a simple sheet of something to separate between the utensil and the possible residue suffices. If milchig and fleishig foods are being cooked or heated at the same time, wrapping only one of them with a single wrapping is not enough. The vapors of each can reach the wrapping, thus making it at that moment, both a milchig and a fleishig utensil, which is a problem (see Rama, YD 95:3). If it is only a milchig food in an empty fleishig oven, then the situation is similar (and perhaps a little more lenient – beyond our scope) to the case of an empty treif oven. In the case of pareve food in an oven that is also baking fleishig, it is questionable whether one covering is enough to keep the food pareve. It is no better than the level of pareve which people call “meat (or dairy) equipment,” which has certain halachot of pareve and certain halachot of fleishig. Some say it is worse because the fleishig and pareve interact within the medium of the utensil that separates them at one and the same time (Chavot Daat 95:1). If the meat oven were empty, then as mentioned before, a sufficiently effective single wrapping would certainly succeed in preventing the oven’s meat element from affecting the pareve food. Again, one must ensure that no meat residue comes in direct contact with the utensil/wrapping. Dilemmas of Chazan for Shabbat KedushaI am a frequent chazan. Someone pleasantly set out at length [condensed here] his objections to the way I (like others) do Kedusha of Musaf. He argued that since the tzibbur now recites “K’vodo malei olam…,” which introduces “Baruch k’vod…,” the chazan must not sing Kadosh in a way that encourages them to repeat it. He should start his tune with K’vodo, demonstrating that Kadosh and K’vodo are separate, and it is better if the chazan says Kadosh quietly. Is he right?Kedusha consists of three introductory statements, each followed by a pasuk (from Yeshaya, Yechezkel, and Tehillim) used by the angels and us to sanctify Hashem’s Name. There is a machloket and different practices whether only the chazan (Tur, Orach Chayim 125) says the introductory passage(s) or even the tzibbur (Taz, OC 125:1). The minhag is to say the longer introductory passages of Shabbat/Yom Tov (Mishna Berura125:1). The Be’ur Halacha (125:1) deals with the dilemma of how the chazan should say the p’sukim of Kedusha. If he waits for the tzibbur to finish, he is reciting them “without a minyan.” However, he needs to recite them out loud so that those in the midst of Shemoneh Esrei can be yotzei with him (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 104:7). Some say that the chazan can accomplish both by starting each pasuk before the tzibbur finishes reciting it (see Be’ur Halacha, ibid.). Some say that the fact that those in Shemoneh Esrei (ibid.) or the tzibbur (Emek Beracha, cited by Teshuvot V’hanhagot I:111) are listening to him makes him considered part of a minyan. One could even claim that the tzibbur’s present minhag to sing along actually creates a minyan (even though they just finished reciting it, one may answer Kedusha multiple times). Regarding weekdays, practice is set, for whichever of the reasons provided. Shabbat davening, though, is a test case. Teshuvot V’hanhagot (ibid.) argues that since the long introductory passage is not an essential part of Kedusha, by the time the chazan starts Kadosh, he cannot connect himself to the tzibbur’s recitation. Therefore, he prefers that the chazan say Kadosh immediately along with the tzibbur, loud enough for those in need to hear him. (Igrot Moshe, OC III:4 does not like the prospect of trying to hear the chazan over multiple voices; it is unclear if he is talking about Shabbat.) One can also start Kadosh soon after the tzibbur, who can get used to being silent for Kadosh and singing K’vodo along with the chazan. While these may be the best ideas from a purist perspective, our average shul is not the place for purists to go against standard practice when there are reasonable alternatives. Some have the practice, which is not new (see Ktzot Hashulchan 83:(22)), that on Shabbat the chazan says Kadosh along with the tzibbur quietly and starts aloud only from K’vodo. The K’tzot Hashulchan surmises that this is based on the assumption that on Shabbat, everyone has finished Shemoneh Esrei by the time of Kedusha. If indeed no one need to be yotzei, this works well, but this is not the case in many shuls. There is enough to rely upon for the standard minhag for the chazan to say Kadosh, with or without the tzibbur singing, after the tzibbur finishes everything. It is true that from a purist perspective, it does not make sense for the tzibbur to sing Kadosh after introducing the next piece. However, while one may not speak during Kedusha (Rama, OC 125:1), considering that all of Kedusha is interrelated, it is hard to consider the tzibbur repeating Kadosh along with the chazan a hefsek. The idea of the tune not making it look like Kadosh is part of the same unit as K’vodo is a nice one l’chatchila. Therefore, there is logic for you, as a talented, learned chazan [ed. note - I know him], to start your repertoire of songs from K’vodo. (There is something nice about “good-old nusach” being heard more often). However, we would not deem joint singing of Kadosh illegitimate or the reason many people do not understand Kedusha’s structure. Place of Chanuka Candle Lighting at a GuesthouseMy extended family will be at a guesthouse for Shabbat of Chanuka. They have told us that we cannot light Chanuka candles in the rooms we will sleep in or our family’s small, separate dining room, but in the main lobby with the rest of the guests. Can we fulfill the mitzva that way, or must we find an alternative?While one usually lights Chanuka candles in his own home, the gemara (Shabbat 23a) does discuss lighting at a guesthouse (achsenai). A guest takes part in the lighting there, at least by contributing toward the oil, unless his wife lights on his behalf. The Shulchan Aruch (677:1) says that in any case, if the guest has his own place to sleep, he should light there so that it does not appear that the occupant of those quarters does not light candles. The Rama (ad loc.) says that in such a case, since people light inside nowadays and people will not be suspicious, the place one lights is where he eats. A precedent is the halacha that regarding matters of eiruvin, a person’s main place of inhabitation is where he eats, not where he sleeps (see Taz, OC 671:2). Contemporary poskim have discussed various cases where it is less clear that the eating place is the best place. Yeshiva students living in dormitories is perhaps the most discussed. The Chazon Ish is among those who say that the yeshiva dining room is indeed the best place. However, many point out drawbacks. First, the dining room, being used by all students, lacks the personal connection to the individual that exists in his home or even dorm room (see Igrot Moshe, Yoreh Deah III:14). Also, students are usually allowed in the dining room only for short periods during the day (p’sak of Rav Abba Shaul). In contrast, one’s dormitory room is his all the time (even if a healthy, motivated talmid is in the beit midrash almost all day). Your scenario might provide a test-case between the reasons. Over Shabbat, your small dining room is set aside for your family, which could make it ideal for most poskim. However, there is a possible drawback if, as it is likely it will not be open to you the whole day. Still, that is to a great extent to keep the room in good order for your next meal, and also on Friday night, it will certainly be available to you throughout the crucial time the Chanuka candles should be lit. While one might claim that the rooms you sleep in are as good or even better, the hotel will undoubtedly not give in (for excellent reason) to have candles burning in several unattended rooms. (During the week, it might work to promise to stay put for half an hour and then extinguish them). In short, if you can make a safe arrangement and get permission to light in your dining room, that is excellent. At first glance, the lobby seems problematic, as it is neither the place of sleeping nor eating. However, important poskim (including Rav S.Z. Auerbach – see Halichot Shlomo 14:8 – and Shevet Halevi (III:83)) making the following cogent point. The discussions regarding the place of sleep vs. eating refer to the choice between places in different buildings (e.g., married children eating with parents and sleeping at home). However, when all major home activities occur in one premises, even a large one like a yeshiva, any location on those premises which they frequent can work. After all, it is accepted and acceptable to light in one’s home in the living room, for example, even if no one eats or sleeps in that room. We would say that the greater the extent to which the lobby is open to and used by the guests, all the more so if it is adjoining the dining room, the stronger the logic of being able to light there. If you visit the candles during the meal, that only improves the situation. In most cases, we would suggest to light with a beracha in the lobby, if you don’t get permission for the private dining room. (If someone wants to be machmir, he can appoint an agent to light at a safe and appropriate place in his own home; it is still worthwhile to light, at least without a beracha, in the lobby.) Dividing Megillat Esther Among ReadersIs it proper to divide the reading of Megillat Esther among multiple baalei kri’ah?It depends what you mean by “proper,” as we will explain. The gemara’s (Megilla 21a-b) discussion of multiple ba’alei kri’ah refers to their reading at the same time, which is valid (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 290:2) although rarely done. The Magen Avraham (292:2) is the first major posek to discuss dividing the Megilla by sections, presenting it as a ba’al korei losing his voice in the middle. As the question is not discussed in the gemara or Rishonim, early Acharonim compare it to parallel areas of halacha. The Magen Avraham compares it to one who had to stop in the middle of haftara reading, where the replacement must return to the beginning (Shulchan Aruch, OC 284:5) and repeat the beracha (Magen Avraham 284:4). He says that while for Megillat Esther too the second ba’al korei returns to the beginning, he does not recite the beracha again because the first ba’al korei’s beracha was said for everybody, as we find regarding a switch in shofar blowing (Shulchan Aruch, OC 585:3). Indeed, regarding the beracha, the Rama (OC 692:2) says that one is allowed to make the beracha on Megilla reading for the reading of another. The great majority of Acharonim say that the second reader does not need to return to the beginning of Megillat Esther. The Eliya Rabba (692:3) and Shvut Yaakov (I:42) agree with the comparison to shofar blowing but apply it the whole way. Just as regarding shofar, the first person’s blasts do not need to be repeated (Shulchan Aruch, OC 583:40), so too the p’sukim of the Megilla do not need repeating. The reason Torah reading needs to be repeated (Yerushalmi, Berachot 5:3) is that the whole reading needs to be linked to the opening and ending berachot. This makes it a problem when the first one made only the opening beracha and the second one only the concluding beracha (see Tur, OC 140). The Eliya Rabba says that Megillat Esther is different in that the ending beracha is not strictly related to the reading and in that the aliya for Torah reading is made by the oleh for the oleh, whereas the beracha for Megillat Esther is on behalf of everyone. Therefore, anyone can continue Megillat Esther where the first left off based on his beracha. The Shvut Yaakov says that the first reason is not universally accepted, but agrees with the second one. It seems that according to the Magen Avraham, it is a major problem to break up the Megilla reading (Mikraei Kodesh (Harari) 7:(91) says otherwise in the name of Rav M. Eliyahu). According to the others, who rule you do not need to repeat, is it proper to divide the reading l’chatchila? Remember that the poskim describe the situation of a ba’al korei losing his voice, which may indicate that otherwise we would not allow the division. The alternative explanation is that it was just not common practice, but no halacha precludes the division even l’chatchila. The Shvut Yaakov and others who cite him prominently (including Shaarei Teshuva 692:2 and Kaf Hachayim 692:11) say that we do not go back to the beginning due to tircha d’tzibbura, but if the community does not care or only a few psukim were read, we would return to the beginning. Thus, it sounds like most poskim do not like the set-up l’chatchila. Thus, I submit that a “purist” minyan would not agree to divide the Megilla reading. In addition to deference to the Magen Avraham and others, it is probably also more kavod for the mitzva to have one person do it. Due to the mitzva’s prominence, it also makes sense to have the best available ba’al korei do the whole thing. However, not all situations lend themselves to purist approaches. These include places where it is difficult for anyone to learn the whole Megilla well and communities in which the importance of involving as many people (especially, young ones) as possible is part of the shul’s DNA. This is a local rabbi’s call. (Since the ten-chapter breakup is non-Jewish, it is distasteful at best to break it up exactly in that way). Effect of Wrong Type of Bitul ChametzWhat are the consequences if, after bedikat chametz, one recited the daytime bitul chametz?We must start with a look at the purpose and mechanism of the various bituls. The Torah forbids possession of chametz on Pesach (Shemot 13:7) and mandates its removal before Pesach (Shemot 12:15). To facilitate this, we search for chametz the night before Pesach and physically “destroy” the leftovers the next day (bi’ur chametz). The gemara (Pesachim 6b) says that after bedikat chametz, the Rabbis instituted bitul chametz. It explains that this is out of concern that he might find some tasty chametz on Pesach, which without bitul would cause him a problem (there are different explanations on how). The gemara refers to bitul chametz at night. The gemara does not mention bitul’s text, and slightly varied versions exist. The consensus, though, is that it applies to chametz that is unknown to the declarer at the time of bitul. One reason to exclude known chametz is because some is slated for eating during the next half day, making a statement that his chametz is worthless and ownerless disingenuous. Regarding chametz slated for burning, we want it in our possession because the complete fulfillment of bi’ur chametz is with one’s own chametz (Mishna Berura 434:7). (This is only a hiddur. We also do bi’ur chametz at a time and in a manner in which it is anyway not clear that the burning of the chametz is a special fulfillment (this is beyond our scope – see Dirshu 445:4).) Daytime bitul is a post-Talmudic minhag designed to deal with the possibility that some of that which was purposely left over was neither eaten nor destroyed (ibid. 11). According to most poskim, it is done after bi’ur chametz and, therefore, is done with catch-all terminology that even includes chametz thrown into the fire but insufficiently burnt (Da’at Torah 434:3). If one uses the daytime text at night, it will ostensibly have applied to even that which he plans to eat and that he plans to burn. Is that a problem? Well, what does bitul do? According to Tosafot (Pesachim 4b), bitul makes chametz hefker (ownerless). Assuming that no one hears the mistaken declaration and takes still desired chametz, the owner can eat the nullified chametz as is or reacquire it (if it is in his house, he requires no action to reacquire it). Regarding wanting to burn his own chametz as well, he can easily reacquire some (which suffices) or all. The potentially more serious issue is the bitul’s impact on one’s mechirat chametz, which rabbis do for us the next morning. However, the same answers probably apply. There is also a more fundamental factor. If one reads the words of bitul and does not understand their content, the bitul is ineffective (Mishna Berura 434:9). This is probably the case for one who reads the morning instead of the night version. Even if he understood the words and forgot that it was the wrong time to do an all-inclusive hefker, we should apply the concept that hefker done by mistake is ineffective (Tosafot, Pesachim 57a). According to Rashi (Pesachim 4b), bitul is not based on hefker but is a special “mental destruction” of chametz, which the Torah indicated is significant in regard to one’s chametz. This certainly does not affect one’s ability to eat chametz he desires before the time of bi’ur chametz. It probably also does not impact the ability to sell chametz to a non-Jew. To the contrary, if anything, it is likely that the act of sale, in regard to food that he put aside in special places for that purpose, may undo such bitul for the following reason. If you do not value the chametz, how are you able to sell it? But you will be redoing the bitul the next morning anyway. Regarding the value of bi’ur chametz after such a bitul, it could in theory be negatively impactful (well beyond our scope). However, again fundamentally, bitul without intent or probably even by mistake is not valid (see Ran, Peaschim 1a). While most likely unnecessary, it does not hurt to state that he reverses his declaration regarding chametz he is aware of. maaser rishon in our timesI understand that the maaser rishon is no longer distributed to those of levitical descent, and this is because genealogies are difficult to verify. Is this true?This is generally true. For large companies, it would also be a financial hardship, if one wanted to be stringent on the matter. However, if an individual in Israel (where the laws apply, albeit probably only on a Rabbinic level in these days) has his own garden and has to take off the tithes, it is a proper practice to give a tenth to an acquaintance who is presumed to be a Levi. What is different between Maaser Rishon and between most other tithes is that there is no religious prohibition of a regular Jew eating it, and rarely would a Levi really care if you gave it to him or ate it yourself. . Berachot on Snacks and Drinks Throughout a HouseWhen I am home for extended periods, I take snacks and drinks on no particular schedule, and I move from room to room and floor to floor. A similar situation exists at work, where I am based in one office but also go to other rooms. Should I make berachot each time I eat or drink?The Beit Yosef (Orach Chayim 273) deals with an apparent contradiction between the Bavli and Yerushalmi regarding making Kiddush in one place and eating in another. The Yerushalmi says that if this was his original intention, the Kiddush is valid, whereas the according to the Bavli, it is invalid. Rabbeinu Nissim (see Rosh, Pesachim 10:5) says that there is no machloket, as it depends on location. Under one roof, even in separate rooms and separate floors, intention to go from one to another connects the locations, whereas it does not help for different houses or from indoors to outdoors. The Ran says that there is a machloket, and we accept the Bavli that intention does not waive the requirement to eat in the room where he made Kiddush. The Rama accepts Rabbeinu Nissim (OC 273:1) and, based on that, rules that one can make a beracha in one room or floor with the intention to exempt food he ate in a different one (OC 178:1). If you regularly move around the house, that counts as your standard intention (see Mishna Berura 206:20). If you normally eat in those other places, you do not need a new beracha if under the same roof (ibid.). If you usually eat only in one room and did not intend otherwise, you would need another beracha to eat in a different room not visible from the first (see Mishna Berura 178:12). However, going normally to other rooms does not obligate you in a new beracha upon return (Mishna Berura 178:3). Although the Shulchan Aruch is non-committal about Rabbeinu Nissim regarding Kiddush (OC 273:1) and is silent on the matter in OC 178:1, the above seems true for Sephardim. Yalkut Yosef (OC 273:5) relies on Rabbeinu Nissim b’di’eved regarding Kiddush and rules like the Rama in OC 273:1 (ibid. 178:9), as the Shulchan Aruch (OC 178:3) implies. After seeing the beracha can extend, we should consider how to best time the berachot. We wrote about berachot strategy during sporadic drinking during a hike in Living the Halachic Process (II, B-4) and will summarize what we need to know to get started here. There are a couple of halachic doubts regarding breaks in drinking: If one does not continue before becoming thirsty again, does the beracha rishona’s efficacy cease? After how long should we assume one becomes thirsty? Should one make a beracha acharona when he finishes a round of drinking and the next round is not far away, and how does that affect the beracha rishona? Regarding a hike, we distinguished between “frequent sippers” and “occasional gulpers.” Frequent sippers should make one beracha in the beginning and one beracha acharona at the end (if they drank a revi’it in one shot at some point). Occasional gulpers are to make a set of berachot for each drinking. While indoors without exertion, one is likely to eat and/or drink less frequently, but on the other hand, he will probably not get as hungry/thirsty as quickly, which “extends the life” of the beracha rishona and allows one to wait for the beracha acharona. Assuming people will not eat or drink very often, the standard practice should be to make a set of berachot for each “unit” of eating and drinking. Despite this, one should train himself to expect to move around before finishing each food session and not make additional berachot necessary. Regarding cups of tea, coffee, or water, it is halachically preferable to drink a revii’it at one point so that he can make a beracha acharona at the end of a cup and thereby also solve any beracha rishona questions as well. If that does not suit his needs, it is usually best (except for “chain drinkers”) to have in mind that the beracha is effective for just one cup and then (plan to) not take another cup until at least a couple dozen of minutes pass, so that a new beracha is appropriate then. Halachic Consequences of Use of Medical MarijuanaAfter years of unsuccessful ‘conventional’ treatment for debilitating pain, the medical marijuana my doctor has prescribed for me has proven more effective and with lesser side effects. My license is only for "leaves," not pills or oil. Obviously, I can't smoke on Shabbat, so I baked a batch of “cannabis brownies” to eat. These take effect about 90 minutes after ingestion. Can I eat one of these brownies before shul? If so, should I make Kiddush first? Also, can one do Birkat Kohanim while using medical marijuana (although it affects coordination briefly and I feel a bit drunk, I am not drunk, and it does not impair my thinking ability)?[We trust that our readership is aware of the great distinction between drug abuse and between responsible use of medical marijuana – as prescribed by a doctor in a place it is legal, for those in great need]. It is generally forbidden to eat anything before davening except for water and, for some, tea and coffee (with various opinions about sugar – see Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 89:3 and Mishna Berura ad loc. 22). However, it is permissible to eat food for a health need, even when one is not fully sick (Mishna Berura 89:24). Anyone who has a prescription for medical marijuana is sick enough to be justified to ingest his treatment as needed. Regarding Kiddush, there is a quandary. Assuming the brownies have a decent taste, they require a beracha, even though their main purpose is medicinal (Mishna Berura 204:42). Therefore, the halacha is that you should not eat it before Kiddush. On the other hand, you don’t need the Kiddush wine for health reasons, so what justifies Kiddush before davening? The Be’ur Halacha (to 289:1) says that one makes Kiddush before pre-davening eating for health purposes. The Igrot Moshe (OC II:26) disagrees in a case where not all halachic opinions agree that the food lends itself to Kiddush, which raises the purpose that the wine was not justified. However, assuming the brownies are real flour-based cookies and you are having a k’zayit of them, Kiddush is in place (see Mishna Berura 273:25). Is it preferable to ingest the active ingredient as a non-food, to avoid the undesired situation of eating and Kiddush before davening? This “improvement” makes the halachic situation worse regarding medicines on Shabbat, which are permitted in a food form that is not recognizable as medicinal (see Orchot Shabbat 20:132). While the need likely justifies taking medicine (see Shulchan Aruch, OC 328:17), the halachic issue of eating before davening is easier to waive than that of taking medicine on Shabbat. In the absence of a net gain by an alternative, the medicated brownies are fine. Now to Birkat Kohanim. The gemara (Ta’anit 26b-27a) derives from a connection between Birkat Kohanim and both nazir and service in the Beit Hamikdash that it is forbidden to duchen when drunk. The gemara indicates this is only a Rabbinic derivation/halacha. A nazir is forbidden only in grape products and service is fully forbidden only after drinking wine (see Kritot 13b). Therefore, some say that there are no restrictions on Birkat Kohanim after consuming something intoxicating unless he is as drunk as biblical Lot was (Magen Avraham 128:55). The Taz (128:35) disagrees and disqualifies one who has drunk anything that makes him unfit to “speak before a king,” and we are stringent to follow this opinion (Mishna Berura 128:141). The halachic cut-off point wine of a revi’it (Shulchan Aruch, OC 128:38) does not apply to other drinks. While the Taz says one should therefore not drink anything intoxicating before Birkat Kohanim, this is reasonable for those who are drinking recreationally, not for one whose use of something “intoxicating” is medically necessary. (see Chayei Adam I, 32:7 regarding Kiddush on a small amount of whiskey before Birkat Kohanim.) Therefore, assuming you will make Kiddush on grape juice and that during Birkat Kohanim you will be acting in a fully presentable manner, you should perform the Torah-level mitzva of Birkat Kohanim. When to Cut the Challa?Does one fulfill lechem mishneh if the bread is cut, or the matza is broken, prior to the completion of the beracha?The basic question you ask is the subject of a machloket in the gemara (Berachot 39a) in regard to the preference of making a beracha on a full loaf of bread throughout the week. According to Rabbi Chiya, one does betziat hapat (the breaking of the bread, which, itself, has halachot) as he is making the beracha. Rava argues that the important thing is that at the conclusion of the beracha the bread is still whole, and therefore one should not cut off a piece until after the beracha is complete. The gemara (ibid. 39b) concludes that we accept Rava’s opinion (see also Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 167:1). As mentioned, the above is referring to weekdays, where the stakes are low, as one is not required to use a full loaf. On Shabbat, when one requires lechem mishneh, it is all the more important that the challot remain intact throughout the beracha. The Rama (OC 167:1) makes a practical distinction based on the heightened level of importance of wholeness on Shabbat. The Rosh (Berachot 6:19) says that although the separating off of the part of the bread to be eaten is done after the beracha, one should make a significant although partial cut of the loaf before the beracha. The reason is to minimize the delay between the end of the beracha and the eating of the bread. (See Bach, OC 167, who explains that it is not a halachically forbidden delay, but l’chatchila it should be minimized to the extent possible.) The Rama says that this preferable cutting is justified during the week when the wholeness of the loaf is only preferable, but on Shabbat, when it is crucial, one should not cut it at all. (If one did cut it, but only mildly, so that if one lifted the loaf by the smaller part, the weight of the larger part would not make it break into two, it is fine b’di’eved – see Rosh ibid. and Darchei Moshe, OC 167:2). Poskim (Magen Avraham 274:1; Mishna Berura 274:5) recommend the following compromise, which most people follow, although to different degrees. One scratches a line on the challa at the place where he is going to want to cut, thereby saving time for that purpose. Many people do more than scratch but make a small cut, just not a significant one, due the concern the Rama addressed. (That seems to make more practical sense than scratching, because to have to position the knife exactly at the place of the scratch takes more time than to start cutting from the outset. In any case, any minhag along these lines is fine.) Due to the above, using matza for the second “loaf” of lechem mishneh can cause challenges. (We are not even getting into the fact that using matza is a problem in regard to Sephardim (and, thus, when one has Sephardi guests), as matza is not bread for them, and its beracha is actually Mezonot.) One has to actually hold both loaves during the beracha (Berachot 39b; Shulchan Aruch, OC 274:1), and in the daytime the loaf which one is cutting should be on the top (ibid.). It requires some care to hold a nice-sized challa on top of a matza without the matza breaking. (Preferably no part of the lechem mishneh should break (Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 55:8), although we generally assume that if the piece that broke off is less than 2% of the “loaf,” it is not a problem (see ibid. (24)). Use of Salad Slicers on ShabbatMay I use a salad slicer (approximately, a hand-operated food processor) on Shabbat?The gemara (Shabbat 74b) states, according to the explanation of several Rishonim, that cutting certain vegetables into small pieces is a Torah-level violation of tochen (grinding). There are several lenient opinions that limit the scope of this prohibition on cutting. Some say (see Tosafot ad loc.) that it applies only to foods that are not edible whole, which makes cutting them into small, edible pieces a significant and thus forbidden change. The Rambam (Shabbat 21:18) implies that it is only when it is cut up in preparation for its being cooked. These two possibilities, and especially when one connects them, logically make cutting comparable to grinding grains to be used for baking bread. A further leniency is cited by many, including the Rama (Orach Chayim 321:12), in the name of the Rashba (Shut IV:75). The Rashba says that cutting done soon before consumption is considered part of the eating process and not a forbidden melacha, similar to the distinction regarding borer (selecting). If one makes a standard salad right before the Shabbat meal it would thus seem that there should be several grounds to permit the matter. However, there are a few difficulties in allowing use of a salad slicer on Shabbat. First, the Shulchan Aruch (OC 321:12) considers the cutting into small pieces of all vegetables, even not for the purpose of cooking, as a full-fledged violation of tochen. Furthermore, the Magen Avraham (321:15) is among those who are unhappy with the leniency of cutting soon before eating (see Mishna Berura 321:45), at least when the vegetables are cut very small. In this regard, a simple compromise is to indeed turn the device only enough for the vegetables to, by and large, be cut into relatively large pieces. Many poskim point out that there are no exact dimensions for what is considered small, and that the matter is relative to the normal preparation of the salad (see Dirshu 321:59). There is also a machloket about when a vegetable is cut thin in one dimension but remains larger in the other two dimensions (and thus, for example, the pieces still need to be chewed before swallowing). Igrot Moshe (OC IV, 74) is lenient on the matter, while some others say that cutting thin in any dimension is a problem (see Orchot Shabbat 5:(12)). However, it is still a problem to use a salad slicer because it is a utensil that is made for the purpose of cutting into small enough pieces to be considered tochen. The Biur Halacha (to 321:12) follows the comparison that the Rashba made to borer. For borer, it is not enough that the selecting is done for short-term use, but it also must not use a utensil because that makes it more work-like. Using a regular knife that is used for cutting of all shapes and sizes does not impact the permissibility because that is the way that permitted cutting is done as well. However, when one uses a special set of blades which is made for making salads of small pieces, it is forbidden even if he limits the use so that it does not, in this case, produce small pieces (ibid.). This is on two possible grounds. One is that it turns the action into one which is closer to classic tochen. The other is that use of such a special preparing machine is a violation of uvdin d’chol, weekday-like activity, even in cases when the melacha of tochen does not apply to the object being cut (Shulchan Aruch, OC 321:10). Joining a Shushan Purim SeudaAt my Purim seuda this year (Friday, in Yerushalayim), I will be hosting my children from outside the city. Are there any limitations on their participation considering that it is Erev Shabbat?While the main halacha of refraining from serious eating before a holy day is before Pesach (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 471:1), it is proper to refrain from even a moderate meal during the last quarter of Friday day (ibid. 249:2). It is also prohibited to make, anytime on Friday, an especially big meal. However, this is permitted for seudot mitzva that fall specifically on this day (Rama ad loc.), including a Purim seuda (Rama, OC 695:2). At first glance, since the Purim seuda does not apply, halachically, to your visiting family, they do not have an excuse to do that which is normally forbidden. However, one can argue cogently to the contrary. One who makes a brit or pidyon haben on Friday makes a seuda (Rama ad loc.), and standard sources do not limit whom he can invite. It follows that whoever joins the seuda is properly contributing to the occasion’s festiveness. Similarly, we cite for those for whom it is not intuitively obvious, that important sources (including Eliya Rabba 695:4; Aruch Hashulchan, OC 696:3) write that Purim is properly celebrated in the context of a broad gathering of family and friends. We would not, though, say that this is a proof that your out-of-town guests have no more restrictions than you. Consider that the nature of a seudat brit is that the ba’alei simcha invite and rely on guests who are not ba’alei simcha. In contrast, it is plausible that since one’s whole community is celebrating Purim, participation is a mitzva only for such people. On the other hand, some festivity is appropriate for all Jews on both Adar 14 and Adar 15 (Rama, OC 695:2). It is even likely that the “prohibition” on eating a big meal in the morning is not a problem at all for your guests. The source to refrain from it is a gemara (Gittin 38b), which tells that a family that set a meal on “Erev Shabbat” was punished. Rashi (ad loc.) explains that their main Shabbat meal was Friday night, but most say it is referring to a seuda on Friday day. However, some say it is a problem only if it is on a regular basis (Ramban, Gittin 38b)); some say any occurrence of a big meal even in the morning can ruin one’s appetite (Shulchan Aruch, OC 249:2); others (Rashba in name of Rach; Pri Megadim, EA 249:4) say that is to not take away from Shabbat preparations (here, the seuda and Shabbat organizers are Shushan Purim people). Thus, only according to one approach (albeit, the Shulchan Aruch’s) should it be a real problem for the guests in the first place. In the final analysis, based on multiple grounds, we posit that it is appropriate to include your children in the seuda. The question remains whether any limitations are appropriate. While most years, the Purim seuda is preferably held in the afternoon, on Friday it is preferable to start it in the morning so that one will have enough time to recover his appetite by Shabbat (ibid.). (There is an opinion that it is enough to start before the last quarter of the day (Shut Maharil 56, cited as a secondary source in Mishna Berura 695:10).) There is a serious albeit minority approach to hold the seuda at the end of the day and have it turn into a Shabbat meal (contact our office for guidelines). The involvement of out-of-town guests is an added reason to prefer an earlier meal, as serious eating close to Shabbat is clearly problematic, and the advantages of enhancement of Purim by eating later do not apply directly to them. Therefore, having the meal in the morning (starting is enough - Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 42:(96)) is significantly preferable for the guests. If the guests want to be stringent, there is logic for them to eat less than they might have. It is not justified for them to get drunk or even drink a lot of wine. (Any year, it is hard to justify getting drunk when it is not his Purim, nor do we ever favor drunkenness on Purim.) Receiving Credit Card Benefit on Purchase for Someone ElseReuven paid for Shimon’s plane ticket using his credit card and was to be reimbursed. Is it considered that Reuven lent money to Shimon, so that if Reuven receives more than he gave because of credit card points he earned, it is ribbit (forbidden usury)? Also, who deserves to get the points, i.e., should Reuven credit Shimon for his gain?When Reuven gave money to the airlines via his credit card based on Simon’s request, it is indeed considered as if he lent money to Shimon. This is based on a broad concept known as arvut (guarantorship). By means of arvut, the one who becomes obligated is not the one who received the money (the airline) but the one who requested the money to reach the party he specified (Shimon) (Kiddushin 7a). This concept can be used in creating loan obligations, kiddushin, and transactions. Thus, if Shimon would refuse to pay Reuven back because Reuven did not directly give him anything, we would say “Are you kidding?! When asking Reuven to pay the airlines, you said (or implied) you would pay Shimon back.” Now that we have determined that Reuven has, effectively and halachically, lent money to Shimon, the question is whether Reuven can receive benefit as a result of the transaction. Indeed, ribbit is not only when a lender receives money straight from the hand of the borrower. If, for example, the borrower wanted to give the interest to the lender by means of a shaliach (agent), it would also be forbidden. However, the problem is only if the benefit that Reuven receives is, in some way, coming from Shimon (Bava Metzia 69b). This case is different because of the nature of the benefit the credit card company gives Reuven. Because credit card companies benefit when their card is used more times/for larger sums of money, they sometimes give incentives to cardholders to use their card as much as possible. The company, thus, gives benefit to the cardholder, i.e., because Reuven decided to use their credit card; they are certainly not doing it at Shimon’s behest. Therefore, there is no problem of ribbit. Is Reuven, though, required to give or share the gain with Shimon, and, then, if Shimon waived his rights, would that waiver not be considered ribbit? The gemara (Ketubot 98b) asks about a case in which someone serves as an agent to buy a certain amount of a commodity for a buyer for a certain price, and the seller decides to give more commodity than was requested. The gemara says that if the object does not have a set price, we say that the buyer’s money ended up bringing him more than expected. If, though, there was a set price, we view the extra as a present. Who receives the present? The gemara accepts the opinion that it is divided equally between the buyer and the agent. Rashi explains that this is because there is a doubt for whom the present was intended. Based on this, the Rama (Choshen Mishpat 183:6) says that if the seller specified that he added on for the agent, the agent keeps the whole surplus. The Rif (Ketubot 57b of his pages) says that even assuming the agent was the intended recipient, the buyer deserves a share because the benefit came through him. The Beit Yosef prefers the Rif’s opinion, and the Shach (183:12) wonders why the Rama wrote according to Rashi as if it is agreed upon. One might have claimed that our case depends on the machloket of the Rif, Rashi et al., as Reuven got the benefit because of Shimon’s purchase. However, in this case, Shimon is less directly involved with the credit card company than the gemara’s seller is to the buyer. Also, the “present” is part of an ongoing deal between company and client (Reuven), to which Shimon is not a party. The Rashba (Meyuchas L’Ramban 60; see K’tzot Hachoshen 283:7) says that when the present is because of the agent’s relationship with the seller, the agent receives the whole benefit. Keeping Foods Cooked in Chametzdik PotsSometimes I have foods that I cooked in chametzdik pots without any chametz ingredients that I fail to finish before Pesach. May I keep them in the corner of the freezer and mark them as chametzdik? (I try to not sell chametz, especially if it was already cooked.)First we will deal with the question of whether it is really forbidden to eat such food on Pesach. Let us assume (see Shulchan Aruch, Yoreh Deah 122:7) that the pot was eino ben yomo (had not been used for 24 hours) from chametz use. For forbidden food, what comes out of such a pot gives off a negative taste (noten ta’am lifgam), and the food is permitted if done accidentally (ibid. 103:5). If one made pareve food in an eino ben yomo fleishig pot without an intention to eat with milchig food, he may eat leftovers with it (ibid. 95:2). There is a machloket whether noten ta’am lifgam of chametz is permitted on Pesach (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 447:10), or not (Rama ad loc.). The Rama is machmir only on Pesach. On Erev Pesach, despite the Torah-level prohibition to eat chametz, the regular rules of kashrut apply, and it is permitted. Do the laws of kashrut change when Pesach starts and turn what was not considered chametz due to bitul (nullification) pre-Pesach into chametz based on Pesach standards (chozer v’neior)? This too is a machloket. The Shulchan Aruch (ibid. 4) prefers the lenient opinion, that those things that were batel remain batel. The Rama says that it depends on the type of bitul. If it is only in regard to knowledge (i.e., we do not know where the chametzdik food is), the food becomes forbidden when Pesach starts. If there is a physical mixture (i.e., it is mixed in in a way that the chametz does not give taste to the mixture), it remains permitted. The classic case of the latter is when there was 60 times more kosher vs. chametz that is mixed in. However, we cannot assume there is 60 times more non-chametz because the food in a pot will not be 60 times the volume of the pot. However, since noten ta’am lifgam allows for bitul with less than 60, the food cooked in an eino ben yomo chametzdik pot was batel before Pesach (Mishna Berura 247:21). Thus, such a pot would not make the food forbidden even to eat on Pesach. We must, though, consider the high possibility that small amounts of chametz got into the food, whether in the ingredients, the pot’s surface, the work area, or storage containers. Assuming, as is also highly likely, we are discussing trace quantities of chametz, it was batel by 60 times. We then return to the above question of chozer v’neior, which is permitted, according to the main opinions, in such a mixture. (For this reason, many purchase (e.g., milk) and cook as much as possible before Pesach, so that trace quantities of chametz would be batel before Pesach and remain such.) Thus, on this point as well, it is probably permitted to eat the food (although our minhag is not to do things like that). If one is not in the practice of eating such food, may he at least keep it around? There is no violation of bal yeiraeh (possession of chametz) when there is only taste of chametz or there are trace quantities that are batel by 60 (Mishna Berura 452:1). While according to some (including Tur, OC 442) it is permitted to leave in one’s possession any food that is permitted to eat on the level of Torah law, the more accepted approach is to not leave most (exceptions beyond our present scope) foods that are forbidden to be eaten even Rabbinically (ibid.). This, though, would not apply to foods that it is only a chumra not to eat. Even so, it is proper to remove them from the places (like the same freezer) where kosher-for-Pesach foods are being kept, lest one mistakenly eat them (ibid.). If you put such food in a different place (e.g., a different freezer or a section of the freezer that is taped off), you are not required to sell it, but you do not lose anything by including it in your sale. Stringencies regarding sale of chametz apply to cases where you need to rely on the sale, not when it is extra. Preferring the Fruits of Eretz YisraelDo the fruit of Eretz Yisrael in our times have kedusha that would make it preferable to eat them over other foods?Usually discussion of kedusha of the Land’s produce relates to land-based mitzvot. Without going into detail, we posit that most land-based mitzvot apply on a Rabbinic level rather than a Torah-level after the Beit Hamikdash’s destruction. However, the parameters regarding your question may be different. Actually, Eretz Yisrael’s special qualities exist at all times, as we find in many statements of Chazal from the post-Temple period (see Ketubot 110-112). True, there were elements that were greater at the time of the Beit Hamikdash (see Sota 48a regarding the special taste of fruit) or will be greater when Mashiach comes (see Ketubot ibid.). The success of the fruit of the Land is also a harbinger of the advent of the era of Mashiach (Sanhedrin 98a). But even in destruction, Eretz Yisrael is wonderful, and one should feel a special love for everything connected to it (Ketubot 112a-b). Indeed, the great majority of poskim posit that the mitzva to live in Eretz Yisrael applies now (see Ramban, Mitzvat Aseh 4; Pitchei Teshuva, Even Haezer 75:6). Does the Land’s innate kedusha create a preference to eat its fruit? The gemara (Sota 14a) wonders why Moshe so strongly desired to enter the Land. It dismisses the possibility that he was interested in eating its fruit and says that he wanted to fulfill the mitzvot of the Land. Based on this approach, there are Rishonim (see Tur, Orach Chayim 208) who say that we should not say, as part of the beracha acharona on fruit, “v’nochal mipirya” (we shall eat of its fruit), as this is unimportant. While the poskim do not come to a consensus on the matter (see Sha’ar Hatziyun 208:51), all our texts include the phrase. Yet the Beit Yosef explains the phrase’s relevance as follows. Since the beracha is thanking Hashem for food, focus on food is appropriate. He seems to agree that overall it is not particularly important. On the other hand, the Bach (ad loc.) argues that while for Moshe eating the fruit was not important, for us, when things are proper, the fruit of Eretz Yisrael connects us to a world of spirituality. There are other indications of the fruit’s special status. The gemara (Berachot 44a) says (as the Rashba ad loc. and Shulchan Aruch, OC 208:10 understand) that if one eats fruits that grew in Eretz Yisrael, his beracha acharona includes “… v’al peiroteha” (on its fruit), instead of just say “v’al hapeirot” (on fruit). This stresses the significance of the fruit coming from the Land. The seven species of produce for which Eretz Yisrael is praised have a high priority regarding what fruit to eat right after one’s beracha (Shulchan Aruch, OC 211:4). Logically, produce that is actually from Eretz Yisrael should have prominence in this regard, as V’zot Haberacha (p. 124) says in the name of Rav Mordechai Eliyahu. Others point out (see Mishpetei Uziel I, OC 24; Teshuvot V’hanhagot I:188) that there is not support for this outlook in classical sources. (One could explain that until recently, the fruit of bnei Eretz Yisrael was always from the Land and Jews living abroad did not have access to the fruit of Eretz Yisrael. Since few had a choice between them, the topic is not discussed.) In any case, we note that we do not find a preference to eat the seven species, just that, if we do, it has precedence for the beracha. In other words, prominence does not necessarily mean one should go out of his way to eat it. We put things together as follows. There is no halachic obligation or clear preference to eat the fruit of Eretz Yisrael. However, since one is supposed to love the Land and matters connected to it (see above), wanting to connect to Hashem and His Land by eating its fruit is displaying and likely fostering a healthy outlook, which gives it added value. (To the extent that eating such fruit helps Israeli Jewish farmers and thereby helps strengthen our hold on the Land, this is valuable (see Gittin 8b).) Dancing at a Wedding during your Sefira PeriodI was invited to a wedding, during my sefirat ha’omer observance period. May I go? If so, may I dance?As we have written (see Living the Halachic Process III, D-21), we believe in the legitimacy of the various minhagim for which days of sefira to observe and that one may choose different ones on different years according to needs. Certainly, then, one should respect someone else’s choice. True, it is proper for a community to have set practices that all conform to, including in this matter (Rama, Orach Chayim 493:3). However, in the great majority of contemporary Jewish communities, there is a great mix of people from various places of origin and backgrounds. While in certain areas of halacha, community consensuses have developed, the poskim recognize sefirat ha’omer as one in which diversity still exists (see Igrot Moshe, Orach Chayim I:159). One can ask, though: considering the different opinions, is it okay to make a wedding at a time that puts people in a situation of choosing to do things that are ostensibly forbidden for them? The Minchat Yitzchak (IV:84) deals with a wedding of Sephardi boy and an Ashkenazi girl in Buenos Aires which needed to be around Lag Ba’omer. Ashkenazim (in that place, at least) can have weddings on Lag Ba’omer but not after; Sephardim can have weddings after Lag Ba’omer but (probably) not on it. Although the Minchat Yitzchak arrived at a way of doing it which could work for everyone, he posited that participants could not take part in a wedding seuda that would go against their minhag of sefira (the ceremony without lively music would be permitted). The simple reading of the Chatam Sofer (I:142) is similar. However, Rav Moshe Feinstein (Igrot Moshe, OC I:159) posits that everyone can take part freely in the wedding during such times. His rationale is that once a marriage has taken place, it creates simcha obligations that break normal rules. For example, a couple who get married at the end of Nisan are allowed to continue with sheva berachot festivities, which should have been forbidden for the other participants. Rav Moshe even claims, based on the end of the Chatam Sofer’s teshuva, that the latter agrees that people can take part in the wedding. Rav S.Z. Auerbach (as cited in Halichot Shlomo, Moadim 11:19) similarly posits as a simple matter that if a couple is celebrating a wedding, invitees can take part. (He and Rav Moshe seem to disagree whether one could take part in the celebration if they got married at a time that was not appropriate for their own minhag.) It is possible that the Minchat Yitzchak would agree that given the practice that people do get married at times that do not fit all, one could take part b’di’eved. In any case, we prefer the approach of Rabbis Feinstein and Auerbach for several reasons: the approach makes sense; those poskim are among those who most impact on our rulings; it is proper to be lenient on sefira questions (Chok Yaakov 493:2; Chatam Sofer ibid.). Imagine that we would be limited by the chumrot of all the sefira opinions and consider the not so distant three weeks with no weddings. It turns out that 4 months of weddings are squeezed into just over a month, which in many communities causes problems of hall availability and conflict that can be very stressful (and/or expensive) to couples and their families. There is one further reason to allow full participation (see Halichot Shlomo ibid.). Seudot mitzva create all sorts of dispensations regarding national mourning. We know about eating meat at siyumim during the Nine Days. For a closer example, according to many (see Dirshu 493:8), there can be dancing at a hachnasat sefer Torah during sefira. Therefore, music/dancing at a wedding might not be forbidden, as it is an important part of an important seudat mitzva (see Rama, OC 338:2). In fact, according to some, the main reason not to get married is that it is a bad omen to get married at such a time (see Shvut Yaakov II:35). Thus, there is an additional reason for dancing at the seudat mitzva being fine. Leaving a Client with Half the BillA real estate agent (=Shimon) tried to interest my friend (=Reuven) in a project and suggested that they meet over a meal to discuss it. After each ordered a meal and the discussion proceeded, Shimon realized the deal would not materialize. When the waiter brought the bill, Shimon paid only for his own meal. Reuven was annoyed, as he believes it is customary for an agent who invites a potential client to pay. Shimon argued that he never said he was treating and the halacha is that even if one invites someone to his home and does not explicitly tell the guest their meal is free can charge for it (Rama, Choshen Mishpat 246:17). Who is right?[We have determined that this question is for halachic curiosity and not to be used to make a claim. This allows us to discuss the matter generally, and to do so less rigorously than if this were a din Torah.] Shimon was mainly accurate in citing the Rama (based on Terumat Hadeshen I:317), except that even if it is implicitly clear from context that the provider intends to give the food for free, the recipient is exempt. This enables Reuven to claim that common business practice that the professional who is wooing a potential client pays (we take no stand on the veracity) overcomes the standard halachic assumption. However, two distinctions make things difficult for Reuven. First, in the Rama’s case, the provider has to extract money, which puts some burden of proof on him. In contrast, the restaurant accepted Shimon’s claim that he must pay only his own meal and Reuven for his own. Indeed, if Shimon would have run out, Reuven would have to pay for his own meal without complaints against the restaurant. So, Reuven wants Shimon to reimburse him and therefore has to provide relatively more proof. More importantly, in the Terumat Hadeshen’s case, there is more room to claim that the provider decided to charge after the food was given. In this case, it sounds that Reuven agrees that Shimon never intended to pay, if Reuven were not interested in the project (just that he is annoyed by it). Putting the indications together, Shimon never obligated himself, even if Reuven thought he did. Perhaps, though, Shimon caused Reuven damage by causing him to order his meal. On one level, where is the damage? Reuven received a meal that is worth the money he paid! Yet, the concept of d’mei basar b’zol is relevant. This means that when one eats something expensive when he was justified to believe he would not need to pay, he pays only at a discount rate (see Bava Kama 112a). Thus, the difference between that rate and what Reuven paid might count as damage. Sometimes, one who causes another to spend money based on an assurance which he does not see through, has to pay. One case is when one tells his co-litigant to travel to court and the former does not come; he has to pay for the uncalled-for expenses (Rama, Choshen Mishpat 14:5). However, the restaurant date was not pointless for Reuven. Besides the meal, it had the potential to facilitate great benefit for both Shimon and Reuven (many believe that a good venue for a business meeting is valuable). The fact that it did not work does not retroactively make the effort uncalled for. While this could induce Shimon to pay, it also means that Reuven was not damaged. Although we cannot get into a complete analysis of sources and factors we were not supplied, my experience/intuition lead me to expect that Shimon could not be compelled to pay. That does not mean that Shimon acted properly. If Shimon was aware that Reuven expected him to pay, and especially if this encouraged Reuven to listen to Shimon’s sales pitch, then Shimon violated g’neivat da’at (deception). The gemara (Chulin 94a) includes in this prohibition relatively innocuous cases in which the deception could cause a party to give something of value due to a favor he thinks he received. There is reason to suspect that Shimon did that. It would be laudable but not required if, as teshuva for g’neivat da’at, Shimon reimbursed Reuven, at least partially. Selling Food Supplements OnlineI sell a wide variety of food supplements and health products in an online business. I buy products from manufacturers and store them in a warehouse, from which we ship an order. Our clientele are a broad population in the US, which will certainly include a minority of Jews. People will not know that a frum Jew owns the business and rely on us that the food is kosher. Must the products be kosher? (I can send pictures of each product’s label for your approval.)We will start with an overview of the halachic issues involved. Regarding the possibility that Jews will buy a non-kosher product, you need not be concerned about it for a combination of reasons, including the following (see more in Living the Halachic Process, vol. II, C-20). There is no Torah-level prohibition of lifnei iver (facilitating sin) because people can get these products elsewhere. Only a small minority of the customers are Jews and your intention is not for them. Therefore, since those who buy non-kosher items are not interested in keeping kosher, it is not your problem. The question is about your selling not-kosher, which could be a problem even if it is to non-Jews. The gemara Pesachim 23a learns from the pasuk, “Vesheketz yiheyu lachem,” that certain foods that are forbidden to eat are but are not forbidden in benefit, have certain limitations on benefit. The gemara states that if he did not seek to obtain the non-kosher food, he can sell them, but he may not purposely obtain the foods in order to gain from them. The prohibition applies only to food that is forbidden from the Torah (as opposed to Rabbinically) (Shulchan Aruch, Yoreh Deah 117:1). This applies primarily to meat and fish products, as opposed to many other non-kosher foods (dairy products, pastries, etc.). According to most Rishonim, this is a Torah prohibition (see Shut Chatam Sofer, Yoreh Deah 104-106, 108; Yabia Omer, vol. 8, YD 13). The Rashba (Shut III:223) says that the reason is to minimize the possibility of coming to eat forbidden foods, while others say it is a gezeirat hakatuv (heavenly decree without a known reason). The consensus of poskim is that the prohibition applies when a Jew owns the food, even in cases where he is not expected to come in direct contact with it (Chatam Sofer, ibid 108, cited in Pitchei Teshuva, YD 117:6). Even if you are not considered to have contact with the food (we do not know to what extent you visit the warehouses), the prohibition applies because of your ownership (see ibid.). Thus, you should check (we can help) that the products are not forbidden by the Torah. [After receiving labels of many products, we realized we need to discuss non-kosher ingredients – from animals or non-kosher fish – that are in capsules.] There is no Torah-level prohibition in eating a not kosher food by swallowing it when it is encapsulated in a non-food (see Mishneh Lamelech, Ma’achalot Assurot 14:12; Aruch Hashulchan, YD 85:40). Thus, one can argue that non-kosher food in a capsule is not a problem. On the other hand, one can argue that the food inside is still forbidden food, and it could be taken out of the capsule and eaten. Furthermore, perhaps the only important question is if the food is forbidden, and whether or not it will be eaten in a halachic manner is not important (see above). The halacha is that one is not allowed to go out of his way to get things that are forbidden to eat by the Torah and are slated to be eaten (Shulchan Aruch, YD 117:1). Such things are forbidden in commerce even if you are not likely to eat them. However, in this case, at the time you will obtain the capsules, they are not slated for eating in a forbidden manner, and it is therefore permitted to buy them in order to sell. There is much discussion as to whether gelatin capsules themselves are permitted (beyond our scope). However, it is sufficient that there legitimate opinions permit it (at least from the Torah), as in such a case, it is permitted to sell it (Darchei Teshuva 117:63). Zimun for a Sephardi, an Ashkenazi, and a KatanI am Ashkenazi. I was eating with a Sephardi and a katan (under bar mitzva). Were we supposed to do a zimun?We start with the only source I found on the topic, which provides practical (intuitively logical) guidance without explanation. Then we will provide the background and critique the ruling. V’zot Haberacha (p. 132), basing himself on communication with Rav Auerbach, Rav Eliyahu, and Rav Scheinberg, gives the following compromise. Zimun can be done, led only by the Sephardi. If there are nine and a katan, the Ashkenazi should answer the zimun without Hashem’s Name. The gemara (Berachot 48a) accepts Rav Nachman’s opinion that a child counts toward zimun if he knows to whom we bentch. So rule the Rif, Rambam (Berachot 5:7), and Shulchan Aruch (Orach Chayim 199:10), whether for a zimun of three or of ten. (Only one of the quorum can be a katan – Mishna Berura 199:25). You seem aware that this is the minhag among Sephardim. On the hand, the Rosh (Berachot 7:20) cites and accepts the implication of the Yerushalmi that only youngsters with two pubic hairs (the sign of basic physical maturity) count toward zimun; the Rama (OC 199:10) and Ashkenazi practice accept the Rosh. Indeed, then, we have a conflict between minhagim. In a mixed group, whose minhag should “win out”? One thing to investigate is: how important is each side’s ruling to them? According to the Sephardi ruling, is there an obligation to do zimun or is it only optional? There is an opinion in the gemara (Berachot 45) that there is an optional zimun when two eat together. However, I did not find any indication in the poskim that a zimun including a child is deficient in any way. Therefore, the indications are that the Sephardi member of the group should feel a need to do zimun, for when a zimun is called for, it is forbidden to bentch without it (Shulchan Aruch, OC 193:1). Is it forbidden (i.e., for an Ashkenazi) to do zimun which is not required? From the discussion of an optional zimun for two, we see that according to the opinion that it is not optional (which we accept), it is forbidden. What is problematic about a zimun’s words? The Shita Mekubetzet (Berachot 45b) says that even a zimun of three is a mini davar shebekedusha (something that requires ten), making it forbidden without its (reduced) quorum even without uttering Hashem’s Name. The Pnei Yehoshua (Berachot 45b) says that it is a disgrace to call out to a single counterpart to praise Hashem, as it is not sufficiently significant. Is it better to err on the side of recitation or omission? Note that the stronger indications are that a katan counts for a zimun. The implication of the Mordechai (Berachot 172) and Rama (Darchei Moshe, OC 199:4) is that we refrain from zimun in order to be on the safe side. Thus, out of doubt, one would not do a zimun. So how can the poskim we cited expect an Ashkenazi to risk an improper zimun in order to afford his Sephardi friend a “less important” opportunity? Apparently, the poskim reason that the main problem with an unwarranted zimun falls on the initiator (i.e., the mezamen). Once the Sephardi asks the Ashkenazi to praise Hashem, answering is less of a problem and actually it is a problem to refuse to praise Him. Using Hashem’s Name makes it beracha-like, which is problematic even without initiating. We can appreciate, then, why the Ashkenazi should neither say the Name as part of ten nor lead the zimun. This resembles the situation of a Sephardi who calls out Barchu at the end of Monday-Thursday davening in an Ashkenazi shul. The minhag is to answer, probably because once it is reasonable to call it out, how can one not respond. In some ways our case is worse. Regarding Barchu, even when there is not a need, the ten provide a tzura (form) of a proper recitation. In contrast, if a child does not count, the zimun is innately lacking. In the final analysis, there is logic both to and against the poskim we cited. In the absence of contrary sources or compelling logic, we obviously accept their ruling. Interrupting the Meal to Recite Kri’at ShemaWhen I make Shabbat early, I make a break in the meal to recite Kri’at Shema when its time comes. Recently, a guest told me that this is not only unnecessary but one is called a hedyot (a moderately derogatory term) for doing so. Should I change my practice?The mishna (Shabbat 9b) lists activities in which one must not partake before Mincha; one is eating. (see details in Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 232:2.) However, if he did, he does not stop in the middle for Mincha. There are different versions in the mishna regarding stopping for Kri’at Shema, and the gemara (Shabbat 11a) discusses elements relating to it. The Shulchan Aruch (OC 235:2) rules that one may not eat a meal within a half hour of the beginning time of the night’s Kri’at Shema, and that if he did, he must stop to recite Kri’at Shema, without its berachot or davening Ma’ariv. The Ran (Rif’s pages, Shabbat 4a) derives this from Sukka 38a, regarding stopping a meal to take a lulav, which distinguishes between Torah-level and Rabbinic mitzvot. The Ran (ibid.), and Mordechai (Shabbat 224) say that one must stop a meal for Torah mitzvot e.g., Kri’at Shema, only if he started eating improperly (for Rabbinic laws, e.g., tefilla, one may continue even if he started improperly – see Tosafot, Shabbat 9b). This is how the Mishna Berura (325:23) paskens. (These poskim may disagree regarding one who improperly started eating within a half hour of z’man Kri’at Shema, but before its proper actual time.) Your practice of reciting Kri’at Shema during the meal is therefore not required, if you start the meal early enough. (Actually, not everyone who davens at an “early minyan” starts the meal early enough, especially when he davens at a minyan that keeps the same time all summer.) But is your practice a positive, negative, or “pareve” chumra? There is a concept that one who does something from which he is exempt is called a hedyot. The source is a Yerushalmi on our general topic (Shabbat 1:2), which is probably the logic behind what your guest told you. The Yerushalmi told of rabbanim who were eating together; one stopped to daven Mincha and was criticized by a colleague as above. It is very hard to determine when to apply this rule, as many respected sources have written “one who is machmir shall receive beracha.” Understanding the reason behind the rule, about which there are various opinions, helps. These include: the stringency looks like he is adding on to the Torah; yohara (haughtiness/ holier-than-thou); casting aspersions on those who are not machmir (see more in the entry on this topic in Encyclopedia Talmudit, vol. XXVIII). It seems to be a small jump from the Yerushalmi to your question. However, some (Sh’vut Yaakov II:30) understand that the Bavli disagrees (see Shabbat 9b). Furthermore, Kri’at Shema, being a Torah-level mitzva is stricter (see above). Indeed, the Rambam (Kri’at Shema 2:6; see also Shulchan Aruch Harav, OC 70:5) says that even when one started eating at a permitted time and is not required to stop for Kri’at Shema, doing so is praiseworthy. The Rambam actually hints at a reason for this ruling, which may help us apply the matter to our case, as he describes one who is concerned that he might not recite Kri’at Shema within its time limit. Therefore, if one recites Kri’at Shema during the meal because he has reason (e.g., based on past experience) for concern that he will not remember after the meal to recite it again, it does not make sense to consider him a hedyot. Many participants in early Shabbat meals forget to recite Kri’at Shema after the meal, so machmir based on such grounds is not inappropriate, even if one is allowed to be optimistic. Walking in IsraelWhat are the parameters of the idea that every 4 amot one walks in Eretz Yisrael is a mitzva? Is it only to new places? Does one have to walk on foot?We have good news and bad news. The bad news is that we were not able to find any classical or semi-classical sources that there is a mitzva for every 4 amot one walks in Israel. The good news is that there are bigger and better ways to get that effect, which those of us who live here do naturally. On to the sources! The gemara (end of Ketubot) attributes many wonderful benefits to Eretz Yisrael. One who lives there “dwells without sin” (Ketubot 111a). Being buried there is like “being buried under the altar” (ibid.). Rabbi Yochanan adds: “Whoever walks 4 amot in Eretz Yisrael is assured to be one who receives the World to Come.” Thus, walking in Eretz Yisrael has a powerful spiritual merit! The Rambam (Melachim 5:11) paraphrases this gemara. However, his language indicates that this source may not be relevant to your question. The Rambam starts with the great merit of living in Eretz Yisrael and then continues: “… even if one walked in it 4 amot, he will merit the World to Come.” Thus, someone who lived in chutz la’aretz, took one trip to Israel, landed at Ben Gurion, walked a few steps, and took the next plane out gets this merit. He presents it as (obviously) a (significantly) lower fulfillment of connection to the Land than living there. The question is: if one is living in Israel and meriting extreme spiritual benefits (and has already walked hundreds of thousands of amot), does he get an additional mitzva for walking another four? HaRav Yehuda Shaviv (Techumin (XXIII, p.)) and HaRav Shlomo Aviner (cited in Shut Eretz Yisrael, 44) assume that a tiyul in Eretz Yisrael is a matter of mitzva and between them cite a few sources: the above gemara/Rambam; a letter by HaRav Tzvi Yehuda Kook; and Mishneh Halachot (III:189). The latter source is dealing with a different question. Is it a mitzva for a ben chutz la’aretz to visit Israel? Some prominent sources posit it is not. The Maharit (II:28) says that if one made a neder to visit Eretz Yisrael, it can be nullified according to the rules for a non-mitzva vow, for there is a mitzva to live in Eretz Yisrael, not to visit it. Also, one is allowed to embark on a voyage by sea on Friday only for a mitzva, and there is a difference of opinions if visiting Eretz Yisrael counts (see Magen Avraham 248:15; Mishna Berura 248:28). The mainstream opinion to reconcile the “non-mitzva” sources with the gemara granting importance to even a “4 amot visit” is that it is not a mitzva per se, but it is nonetheless very worthwhile. So there is a great spiritual jump when one who had no physical connection came and walked in the Land. But there are two ways to learn the gemara regarding one who already has a great connection by living in Israel (or, to a lesser degree, being in the midst of an extended stay). It is possible that walking more furthers it (1000+1>1000). The other approach is that 0 to 1 is a great jump, but that for one who lives every (or most) breathing moment of his life in Israel (and hopefully contributes to its flourishing), caring about a few more steps is missing the point. (Compare to one who wins a huge lottery and cares about the cents at the end of the multi-digit number.) While one can argue that approach #1 is correct, it is hard to claim that the gemara proves it. Even according to approach #2, traveling in the Land is significant. Appreciating Eretz Yisrael is important (see Ketubot 111a-b) and may even be connected to the mitzva to live in it (Eretz Hemdah I,1). Seeing sacred, beautiful, … parts of the country promotes appreciation, and the more, the better. This is what Rav Tzvi Yehuda and others refer to. But it should make no difference if this enhanced connection/appreciation came on foot, by car, by going somewhere new, repeating an old visit, or thanking Hashem for Israel when you go to bed. The sources do not seem to indicate that walking per se is a mitzva. When my family has seuda shlishit before sheki’a (sunset), I join them. The amount I eat varies, but I do not like to have a full meal with bread. MayWhen my family has seuda shlishit before sheki’a (sunset), I join them. The amount I eat varies, but I do not like to have a full meal with bread. May I continue eating after sheki’a?The gemara (Pesachim 105a) says that one who is eating as Shabbat enters must interrupt his eating to recite Kiddush. It suggests that similarly one who is eating as Shabbat ends would have to interrupt the meal for Havdala. However, the gemara concludes that Havdala does not interrupt eating; it only interrupts drinking. Rashi explains that continuing the meal one started on Shabbat actually honors Shabbat. Since drinking is not considered a kavua (set, important) form of eating, there is nothing significant to continue. Furthermore, starting to eat when one should be making (or soon making) Havdala is a severe matter. This gemara is the basis for the halacha that one who starts seuda shlishit before shki’a may continue freely (see Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 299:1). (The Shulchan Aruch ibid. mentions a minority opinion that once the time for Havdala has actually come, one must stop in any case; this is not accepted.) May one continue when he has started eating but it is not a classic Shabbat meal, which must begin with bread and end with Birkat Hamazon (see Shulchan Aruch, OC 188:6-7)? The K’tzot Hashulchan (94, BHS 3) says that anything less than a proper meal is not the type of eating that allows one to continue. The Aruch Hashulchan (OC 299:5) adds that the fact that one did not wash and have bread shows that he did not consider it important enough. The Shevet Halevi (VIII, 36) seems to disagree, positing that any food that one eats in order to fulfill the mitzva of seuda shlishit has importance, and that status determines the matter of continuing. Rav Abba Shaul (Ohr L’Tzion II, 22:8) is lenient if one ate cake since eating a lot of cake constitutes a full meal regarding Birkat Hamazon. The Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata (59:(47)) cites Rav S.Z. Auerbach as being unsure about this matter, but rules stringently even for one who was eating cake. It is not clear to what extent all the above opinions disagree and how far each opinion goes, as we will explain. There are different opinions found in the Shulchan Aruch (OC 291:5) as to what one must eat for seuda shlishit. While the main opinion requires a bread meal, there are others: a mezonot food; meal-like foods; even fruit. It is possible that some of those who do not count cake were working with the assumption that this does not suffice for seuda shlishit, and cake lacks importance on its own merits. If you accept the opinion that it works for seuda shlishit, it is not unreasonable that it does for continuing as well. It is also possible that in contemporary society, in which many people rarely eat bread, other serious eating would also count. We would expect a consensus (it is not widely discussed) that a gluten intolerant person in the middle of an otherwise normal seuda shlishit would be able to continue. The idea that no bread is a sign of not having a set meal does not apply in these cases. In the other direction, perhaps the Shevet Halevi allows continuing eating only the main food with which you want to fulfill the mitzva. This likely includes all the intended non-Mezonot food and drink to go along with the Mezonot food of a breadless meal. However, if one intends to fulfill the mitzva with cake more or less alone and then, for example, when a nice desert is served, one decides to have that too, it is likely not included. Thus, it is difficult to answer your question, as it lumps many possible scenarios together, and each has its own opinions and nuances. Do the Chatan and Kalla Need to Eat at Sheva Berachot?Must the chatan and kalla eat (bread) at Sheva Berachot (upper case for the week and the meal; lower case for the berachot recited) in order to recite the berachot? (Sometimes one does not feel well and eats little or nothing.)There are several issues, which we will only be able to touch upon, that lack a consensus among classical poskim. Two overlapping but distinct halachic elements of the Sheva Berachot period (usually a week) are pertinent to our question. One is an obligation of simcha (a week if it is a first marriage for the kalla, three days if she was previously married), in which the chatan must not work but focus on making the kalla happy. The other is that during these days, sheva berachot are to be recited when applicable. A minyan is required to recite sheva berachot (Ketubot 8a). It is done specifically following Birkat Hamazon of a meal done in celebration of the marriage (Shulchan Aruch, Even Haezer 62:4). There are different opinions as to how many of the participants have to have eaten bread, which necessitates the Birkat Hamazon after the meal – the most prevalent opinion is seven (see Yabia Omer III, EH 11; Nitei Gavriel, Nisuin 102:2). Does the couple have to be among those who had a full halachic meal? Several Acharonim discuss the matter. Rav Shlomo Kluger (Haelef Lecha Shlomo, Orach Chayim 93) posits that even at the wedding, if the chatan does not bentch with the others, sheva berachot cannot be recited. The logic is that the celebration (including the seudat mitzva) must include the chatan for the berachot to be relevant. This is not unanimously held. The Radbaz (Shut IV:249) justifies a minhag that the chatan would not eat during the wedding, but would do so with the waiters after the wedding and that sheva berachot would be recited at both meals. Nevertheless, most Acharonim (see Tzitz Eliezer XIII:99) accept Rav Shlomo Kluger’s ruling. What is not as clear is whether this applies to the kalla as well. Rav Kluger (and the Tzitz Eliezer ibid. and Hillel Omer, OC 63, who cite him) writes not to make a beracha if the chatan did not eat bread, but does not mention if the kalla’s not eating would cause the same result. If the kalla is equivalent, we can still ask: is one eating enough or are both required? Let us search elsewhere. The couple’s presence is needed, even if eating is not. The Ritva (Ketubot 8a) says that chatan/kalla must both be present at the celebration to recite sheva berachot. The Ran (Sukka 25b) writes that it suffices for the chatan or the kalla to be present at the place where the sheva berachot are recited. Neither distinguishes between the chatan and kalla. Rav Ovadia Yosef (Yabia Omer ibid.) assumes there is no reason to distinguish and posits that it is critical for both of them to eat bread (Nitei Gavriel ibid. 5; Hanisuin K’hilchatam 14:86 concur). The Maharam Shick (EH 90) does distinguish, saying that the berachot relate to the mitzva of marriage, which is incumbent specifically on the chatan. Note that while the simcha element is for the kalla’s benefit (see Rama, EH 64:2; Chelkat Mechokek 64:1), the sheva berachot relate more to the chatan (ibid.). Moving Kugel into a Cholent PotMay I take a kugel that was on a hot plate on Shabbat and put it into a cholent that is in a crock pot?In addition to making sure the kugel and cholent are fully cooked before the transfer, two issues need to be addressed. One issue is chazara – the prohibition on putting, on Shabbat, a food that was off a heat source onto one unless factors exist that make it considered an innocuous return to its place (see Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 253:2). The main factors are: the heat source must be in a state that raising the heat is unlikely; the food was removed from a heat source with the intention of returning it; one did not put it down (ibid.). When these conditions are met, one may transfer the food from one heat source to another, even if the latter is hotter (Rama, OC 253:2 and Mishna Berura 253:62). Thus, it would seem okay to take food from a hot plate to a crock pot assuming the steps were taken to reduce the chance of raising the crock pot setting (which is a separate discussion). However, the matter depends on an important machloket: Is it permitted to move food from a refrigerator on Shabbat morning to a hot plate? Let us briefly explain the opinions and the connection. There are two Rabbinic concerns about returning food to a heat source: one may “stoke the coals” (i.e., raise the setting); placing the food looks like cooking. “Shabbat hot plates” have only one setting, eliminating the concern of adjusting. Regarding looking like cooking, some (Halachos of Shabbos (Eider), p. 313; Am Mordechai, Shabbat 7) argue that since hot plates are made only for reheating, no one will make a mistake. Rav Ovadia Yosef adds that the fact that a hot plate is known to be used only for reheating on Shabbat improves the situation, as does the fact that there is space between the heating element and the metal upon which the pot sits (Yechaveh Da’at II:45). They, thus, posit that the hot plate is not halachically considered “on the fire.” The Orchot Shabbat (2:(117)) argues cogently that if someplace is considered “on the fire” enough to forbid taking food from the refrigerator onto it, then one may move food from there to anywhere “on the fire.” However, if a place is categorized as “off the fire,” such that one may put food from the refrigerator onto it, then it is forbidden to move from that place to a full heat source. It is difficult to argue with this thesis, for if it is wrong, one could take food from the refrigerator to even a stove top with a blech in two steps. First, put it on a weak heat source, and from there move it to a full heat source. Thus, if you follow the lenient opinions above, regarding the hot plate, you could not move the kugel from there to a crock pot, for the latter is a full heat source, as it is used for cooking food from scratch. If you follow the stringent opinions regarding placing food on a hot plate on Shabbat (such as Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 1:25), the laws of chazara would not preclude your moving a kugel from a hot plate to a crock pot. (If one is stringent for a hot plate only out of doubt/chumra, then it would be a problem to treat as a real heat source in order to allow moving from there to a crock pot.) Another issue is hatmana – insulating something to keep it hot, which is forbidden on Shabbat and sometimes even before Shabbat (see details in Shulchan Aruch, OC 257-8). If the kugel is wrapped in aluminum foil or the like and put in the cholent, with the latter keeping it warm, it seems a candidate for this prohibition. (Food directly within other food is not a problem (Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 1:72).) However, there are at least two ways to solve all problems. First, if the kugel is not fully submerged, it is not hatmana (see Mishna Berura 258:2). Second, if one makes holes in the aluminum foil, so that taste of cholent is expected to enter the kugel, the cholent and kugel are considered united enough for hatmana not to apply (Orchot Shabbat 1:93). (Additional grounds for leniency regarding hatmana are beyond our present scope.) For the conclusion of the discussion see Moving Kugel into a Cholent Pot – Revisited Davening in Front of a MirrorIs the prohibition against davening in front of a mirror or reflective glass a chumra or a serious halacha?The matter of not davening in front of a mirror is not a Talmudically mandated halacha, but it is modeled after, an extension, or perhaps even an application of one or more halachot of Chazal. The Radbaz (IV,107), in discussing davening facing the image of a lion, says that since we forbid davening in front of a mirror because it looks like he is bowing to himself, it is certainly forbidden to daven in front of an image of a lion (which is found in the kisei hakavod). He connects this to the halacha of not davening behind one’s rebbe (Berachot 27b), which, he posits, is in order not to look like he is bowing to him (as one suggestion in Tosafot ad loc. has it). Although he mentions looking like “bowing,” which we do only during Shemoneh Esrei, it likely applies throughout davening (see Machatzit Hashekel 90:37). Others connect this practice to a different halacha. The gemara (Berachot 5b) says that one should not have a break between himself and the wall when he is davening. The poskim understand that it has to do with creating a distraction (see Beit Yosef, Orach Chayim 90) and posit that it is likewise improper to have colorful pictures or wall hangings in front of him (Shulchan Aruch, OC 90:23). The Machatzit Hashekel (ibid.) says that this is an additional reason not to daven in front of a mirror. (Da’at Torah, OC 90 suggests that only the latter concern is correct.) This problem can be solved by closing one’s eyes or looking only at one’s siddur (Mishna Berura 90:63), which will not work for looking like bowing (Mishna Berura 90:71). There is some logic for a reason that combines the two (admittedly, this does not seem to be the Radbaz’s intention). When one looks at himself when davening, we view this self-absorption as antithetical to the mindset one should have in davening. While this is not literally bowing to himself, there is an element of it, figuratively. This “prohibition” is not mentioned in the Shulchan Aruch (Rav Yosef Karo met the Radbaz late in life (in Safed) but apparently did not have access to his scholarship when writing his sefarim). However, many of the classical commentaries on the Shulchan Aruch and related works cite it as a halachic fact (see Mishna Berura ibid.). Therefore, while it may not have the full force of a formal Rabbinical prohibition, it is an accepted minhag related to full halachot, which we do not consider a chumra. This status makes it more reasonable to look for leniency in cases that are close but not identical to the classic case, when logic so dictates. Several Acharonim are lenient when one can see his image but not in a mirror per se. The Shevet Halevi (IX, 21) justifies the minhag to daven before reflective objects when that is not the object’s purpose (he discusses a “Shiviti Hashem l’negdi tamid” sign situated in front of the chazan). Ohr L’tzion (II, 7:11) says that it is permitted to daven in front of a window, even if the lighting makes his image clearly visible, as long as he closes his eyes or angles himself so he does not see it. The apparent logic is that fear of looking like davening to himself only applies when he puts himself in front of a mirror, which makes him look interested in looking at himself as he davens. However, when the ability to see is incidental, no one will think that one is davening to himself. Admittedly, some poskim are machmir even in the case of davening before a window at night (see Ishei Yisrael 9:(66)). It would seem that one difference of this not being a full-out Talmudic prohibition could be in a rare case where the only way to daven is opposite a mirror. If it were a full-fledged prohibition based on the first reason, it might be better not to daven at all. Although I did not find sources on the matter, it would seem that indeed it would be better to daven (although he should certainly not look) than not to daven at all, if this is his only option. Making Up a Skipped Beracha during Shemoneh EsreiAfter Kedusha of chazarat hashatz, the chazan went to “R’ei v’onyeinu” instead of “Ata chonen” and finished the beracha before people succeeded to correct him. He went back to “Ata chonen.” When he got up to “R’ei v’oyneinu,” he did not recite it, reasoning that it was incorrect to repeat it. Was he correct, and why?Dealing with skipping berachot of Shemoneh Esrei is the subject of a machloket between Amora’im and apparently Rishonim. Rav Huna (Berachot 34a) says that when one makes a significant mistake during any of the sections of Shemoneh Esrei (first three; next thirteen; final three), he returns to the beginning of the section. Rav Asi agrees regarding the first and last sections, but regarding the middle one, he does not require going back to the beginning (Ata Chonen). He expresses his opinion as follows: “The middle ones have no order,” and the Rishonim accept the opinion of Rav Asi. (In your case, either way he had to return to Ata Chonen, which is the one he skipped). Rashi (ad loc.) seems to take the gemara’s language quite literally, and says that since the middle berachot do not have an order, if one skipped a beracha, he can make it up at whatever point he catches the mistake. In other words, after saying the beracha that he missed, he continues with the next beracha that he had been up to before his realization. For example, if he skipped #6 and realized after #8, he would recite #6 after #8 and then jump back to #9, without repeating #7-8. In your case, the chazan went from #3 (Ata Kadosh) to #7 (R’ei). Therefore, Rashi would have him make up #4-6 and then skip over #7 to continue with #8. (A minority of Acharonim learn Rashi differently.) This is exactly what the chazan did, when he skipped R’ei because he had already recited it. Tosafot (ad loc.) disagrees, and says that after going back to the beracha he skipped, he continues straight from there, even though it means that he will repeat whatever he recited between making the mistake and discovering it. In the example above, after going back to #6, he continues with #7 and continues forward, thereby reciting #7 and #8 twice. Tosafot posits that the importance of saying the berachot in order is important enough to justify repeating berachot. We are used to repeating berachot when something was done wrong the first time. If one forgot something, for example, Ya’aleh V’yavo, he goes back to R’tzei and continues straight. In your case, the chazan should have recited R’ei another time. Tosafot deals with the language of the gemara by saying that the lack of order is only in comparison to the halacha found regarding the first and last berachot. While there, one has to go back to the beginning of the set, this is not necessary in the middle ones (rather, one starts with the one he skipped). Tosafot bring a strong proof that the order of all the berachot is important. The mishna (Megilla 17a) says that if one read Megillat Esther out of order, he does not fulfill that mitzva; the gemara says that the same is true for Hallel, Kri’at Shema, and tefilla. This indicates that this is an absolute requirement even b’dieved and therefore justifies repetition to get the order back in synch. (One does not have to go back to the beginning of Shemoneh Esrei, but rather ignores the berachot already recited out of order.) Indeed, the gemara (Megilla 17b) says that Anshei Knesset Hagedola instituted eighteen berachot “al haseder” (according to an order). The gemara then goes on to bring p’sukim to show the logic of each beracha following the one before it. There are other sets of berachot regarding which the order is not critical, such as most of the sheva berachot (see Ba’er Heitev, Even Ha’ezer 62:1) and Birchot Hashachar (Mishna Berura 46:20). When Does a Negative Practice Become Binding?If one decided to accept a stringency and is refraining from doing something, without a verbal acceptance of a neder (oath), at what point is it considered binding? While for something active, three performances make it binding, how does refraining from action work to accomplish it?Let me strengthen this insightful question. We find sources that positive minhagim are more identifiable than minhagim of refraining. The gemara (Pesachim 55a) deals with the possibility that refraining, for religious purposes, from something in front of others who believe it is permitted is yohara (haughtiness). The gemara says, though, that when one whose minhag is to not work on Tisha B’Av refrains from work in front of those who do, no one takes offense because onlookers will say that he is idle because he happens to not have work to do. Similarly, when one, for example, refrains from eating a certain food due to kashrut concerns, the “non-act” of not eating is not like a clear, noticeable, countable religious practice. Can one count three occurrences of not doing something? This being argued, there is a concept of those who are bound to a practice of refraining from action and that this is an extension of the concept of neder (Nedarim 15a). This is likely a Rabbinic obligation (Tosafot ad loc.), although significant opinions hold it is a Torah law (see presentation in Kol Nidrei 72:5). Your reference to three times is arguably a popularly held mistake. The classical Rishonim and the Shulchan Aruch (Yoreh Deah 214:1) do not mention a need for three times to be binding. On the other hand, besides mention of the text of Hatarat Nedarim, many Acharonim mention three times. The standard way of dealing with the apparent contradiction is as follows. If one intends the practice to be binding, it becomes so even after one time. If he did not have clear intention as to whether or not it be permanent, then three occurrences make it the norm, and therefore automatically binding (Shulchan Aruch Harav, Orach Chayim 468:17; Kaf Hachayim, OC 417:25). Now to get to your question – how does doing an inaction (whether three times or once) become binding? I did not find this question discussed where one might expect it. We must determine what this dearth of sources means here (see Living the Halachic Process, V, G-1). Apparently, refraining from something for religious reasons does not need special requirements to be halachically significant. Let us consider that a neder is a matter between a person and Hashem and that since Halacha extends it to occurring without verbalization, it does not need to be clear to others what he was thinking. So if one was in a situation that he would have done X and he did not do so for a religious reason, this is equivalent in our context to actually performing a mitzva. This same concept is behind the fulfillment of negative commandments in general. Every moment one does not sin is not a mitzva of refraining for which he receives reward but is neutral. However, if he is tempted to do an aveira (e.g., eat non-kosher food, drive somewhere on Shabbat.) but is refraining because of the mitzva to do so, he does receive reward (Kiddushin 39b). In such a case, refraining, beyond the letter of the law, from something one wants, creates a neder. What is a little trickier is the following. Sometimes a person refrains from something, not out of a full decision, but because of “why not?” Let’s say that when he goes to a store and there is chalav Yisrael milk and regular milk, he purposely picks the chalav Yisrael. If he thought that he will henceforth only have chalav Yisrael, this should be binding. But it could also be that if he were in a place that the only milk is regular, he would buy that as well. Is that considered refraining from something? While it is hard to know where to draw the line, there might be a difference between three positive acts and three acts of refraining that are not necessarily indicative of his future plans. The Logic Behind the Unusual Fast of the FirstbornWhat type of fast is ta’anit bechorot on Erev Pesach? If it is a real fast, why do people use a loophole (taking part in a siyum) to get out of it?Acharonim raise several peculiarities of this fast, some of which may be related to the various opinions as to why the firstborns are supposed to fast The fast’s source is in Massechet Sofrim (21:3), which is significant but later and of lesser stature than the Talmud. It is cited by many (including Tur, OC 470, Tosafot, Pesachim 108a) but not all Rishonim, but it is brought as a fact by the Shulchan Aruch, without mentioning a way (e.g., a siyum) out of it. The Tur is among sources that indicate that it is a commemoration of the miracle of the saving of the firstborn from makat bechorot. This is the explicit rationale behind two mitzvot – redeeming human firstborns and sacrificing animal firstborns (Shemot 13:15). But questions are raised on this approach. We usually celebrate positive miracles; we do not fast over them! The miracle impacted the descendants of the firstborns in Egypt, not contemporary firstborns! Isn’t Seder night the right time to commemorate the miracle (that’s when it occurred)? The Birkei Yosef (470:7) says that it should have been that night but was moved up because we cannot fast on Yom Tov. Others (see Mikraei Kodesh (Frank) Pesach II:22) say that we are reliving a fast that occurred in Egypt on the 14th. When the Jews realized that all firstborns were in danger, firstborns fasted lest they be killed along with the Egyptian firstborn. Although the decree was for the death of Egyptians, not Jews, they did not rule out the possibility that sins would connect with the danger and some Jews might die. Reliving this act of protection would also explain the minhag of some that parents fast for their firstborn who are too young to do so (see Shulchan Aruch and Rama, Orach Chayim 470:1-2), as parents are concerned for their children. Otherwise it is difficult, as if one’s child is too young to do a mitzva, where do we find that a parent does it in his place? In this way, it is also parallel to Ta’anit Esther, which commemorates Esther’s fast (see Rambam, Ta’anit 5:5). There is a third approach, which is found, with variations, which we will inexactly combine (Halichot Shlomo, Pesach 8:(1) in the name of Rav Auerbach; Mo’adim U’zmanim VII:169). The firstborn were elevated to a special level when being saved in Egypt, and this should have enabled them to lead the service in the Mikdash for all generations. However, Bnei Yisrael’s sin of the Golden Calf, excluding the Tribe of Levi, caused the distinction to be taken away from them. On Erev Pesach, which is a prominent type of Mikdash service, the firstborn take note of their descent into a lower level, and seek atonement by means of fasting. Some minhagim and varied opinions work out differently according to the different explanations; we will only hint at some directions, without much detail. There is some question as to which Egyptian firstborns died, and thus which Jews were saved. This question can impact on the minhagim of whether firstborn girls fast or not (see Shulchan Aruch and Rama, OC 470:1). Firstborn girls were not slated for service in the Mikdash. Reheating Liquids on ShabbatRegarding the prohibition to reheat liquid foods on Shabbat (in cases where there is not a problem due to returning food to a heat source), what constitutes a liquid?It is noteworthy that your premise of a prohibition is not obvious. The mishna (Shabbat 145b) teaches us that ein bishul achar bishul (=ebab – once a food has been (fully?) cooked, there is no further prohibition of cooking), and no gemara clearly distinguishes between solid and liquid. The distinction begins with Rashi (Shabbat 34a) on the topic of hatmana (insulating food) on Shabbat, who raises a concern one might heat up the food before insulating and thus violate bishul. The Rosh (Shabbat 3:11) in reconciling the two sources above posits that Rashi’s problem refers to food with liquid. Many poskim have offered suggestions why liquid is worse. Perhaps the most accepted is that the change in the food from the first cooking is less noticeable regarding liquids that have cooled off (see Chazon Ish, Orach Chayim 37:13). Several Rishonim, including the Rambam, Rashba, and Ran, apply ebab even to liquids (see Beit Yosef, OC 318). Yet, the Shulchan Aruch (OC 318:4) is stringent on the matter. The Rama (ad loc. 15) cites those who are lenient on reheating liquid and concludes that it is permitted unless the food cooled off totally. The more accepted explanation of this compromise is that the Rama fundamentally accepts the lenient position, but is stringent Rabbinically when it is cooled off because it is unnoticeable that it was already cooked. Even for Sephardim, Rav Ovadia Yosef (Yabia Omer X, OC 26) posits that the Shulchan Aruch did not totally discount the lenient position. This leads the way for various leniencies. For example, he ruled that if one did reheat a liquid on Shabbat, it does not become forbidden to eat and that it is permitted to ask a non-Jew to reheat a liquid on his behalf. There are broad differences between opinions on the parameters of a liquid. The Beit Yosef (OC 318) cites Rabbeinu Yona as saying that it depends on the majority of the food. This seems surprisingly lenient; after all, even if the prohibition does not apply to the solid part, how can one ignore the cooking occurring to the liquid? There are a few approaches to explain. One is that we find elsewhere regarding the laws of Shabbat that an object is defined by its majority. Also, the food was already cooked, just that we say that the process was “lost” when it cooled down. Therefore, if regarding the object’s majority the cooking is not lost, we can apply the rule of ebab. Also, whether the cooking is positive or negative may depend on majority. Yabia Omer (VII, OC 42) follows this lenient position, and Igrot Moshe (OC IV, 74 Bishul 7) allows it in a case of great need. The Chatam Sofer (Shut OC 74) says that any amount of (external?) surface liquid makes reheating forbidden. Most classical sources (see Rosh, Shulchan Aruch ibid.) seem to take an in-between approach, referring to “have liquid in it”. Unfortunately, few poskim go into detail of what that entails. Orchot Shabbat (1:22) distinguishes between liquid sitting on the solid and that which accumulates separately. How would cholent with a little liquid that accumulates mainly near the bottom be considered? It seems logical on this matter of machloket to forbid only cases in which the liquid part has significance (see similar language with a different understanding in The 39 Melochos, p. 594). This can be when one will purposely eat the gravy, or when he wants it there to make it easier to heat up the whole food. Many cholents would be considered to have a significant liquid element, especially at night (at night, there is usually not a problem because one returns it when it is still hot). However, when reheating chicken, meat, or an oily kugel, one would not have to worry about a small pool of gravy that inadvertently appears next to meat. (We are not getting involved now in the discussion of the status of congealed gravy that becomes liquid after being heated). Fulfilling Kiddush from One Who Did Not EatIf the person making Kiddush in shul does not eat after Kiddush, is his Kiddush valid?We must distinguish between a valid Kiddush for the person who made Kiddush and for those who listened to Kiddush and then ate. We accept Shmuel’s opinion (Pesachim 101a) that Kiddush is valid only in the place of a meal (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 273:3). Therefore, if Kiddush is made and no one eats, the Kiddush is in vain. According to the great majority of poskim (see Sha’arei Teshuva 273:7; Pri Megadim, MZ 273:1; Living the Halachic Process II, C:3), if some eat the food required for a seuda and others do not, only those who ate are yotzei with Kiddush. Thus, at first glance, the person making Kiddush was not yotzei. Therefore, although the mekadesh is usually advised to drink a m’lo lugmav (app. 2 ounces) (Shulchan Aruch, OC 271:14), if he will not eat afterward, he must not drink from the wine, if he has not yet made his own Kiddush (Shulchan Aruch ibid. 4). On the other, if he is willing to drink a revi’it (a little more than 3 oz.), this counts as his meal according to most authorities (see Shulchan Aruch ibid. 5; Mishna Berura 273:22, 27). In certain contexts, it is common for the one making Kiddush to not eat anything. For example, a rabbi at a hospital may go from ward to ward making Kiddush without eating in each place. An older practice is of one making Kiddush in shul even though he is going to eat only at home (see Shulchan Aruch, OC 279:1). The gemara (Pesachim 101a) already mentions this practice and asks how it is possible considering that the person who makes Kiddush does not eat in shul. The gemara answers that it was instituted to fulfill the mitzva of Kiddush on behalf of guests who eat and sleep in the shul. Many Rishonim (see Tur and Beit Yosef, OC 279) are bothered by the situation in which there are clearly no such guests and we continue to make an ostensibly pointless Kiddush. However, when there are indeed such people who want to be yotzei with the person making Kiddush in shul, all assume there is no problem for the Kiddush to be done by one who is not eating on behalf of one who is eating. Therefore, it is not surprising that the Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 54:6, citing the Pri Megadim (ibid.), says that in the case you describe, the people listening to Kiddush and then eating fulfill the mitzva of Kiddush, while the one making Kiddush but is not eating does not fulfill it. The possibility to do the mitzva for others while not fulfilling the mitzva oneself is a straightforward application of the rule of arvut (responsibility for others) in mitzvot. The more famous application is when one has already fulfilled a mitzva and wants to do it a second time for one who has not yet fulfilled the mitzva (Rosh Hashana 29a). The Dagul Me’reveva does raise the possibility, based on a surprising line in the Rosh (Berachot 3:13), that a man cannot do so on behalf of a woman. However, Rabbi Akiva Eiger (Shut I,7) convincingly argues that there is no difference between men and women in regards to arvut (he reads the Rosh differently). The Mishna Berura (Sha’ar Hatziyun 271:9) posits that Rabbi Akiva Eiger is correct. Generally, arvut applies only to mitzvot and their berachot, which are obligations for the one who is in need of fulfillment and not to berachot on food, which the person is not required to eat (Rosh Hashana ibid.). However, the gemara concludes (ibid. 29b) that when the beracha on food is itself a mitzva (e.g., the wine for Kiddush) then arvut applies to it as well. Therefore, it is not required that the mekadesh drink the wine of Kiddush, as long as someone else is drinking the required amount (Shulchan Aruch, OC 271:14 – there is a question whether the m’lo lugmav can be reached by adding up what more than one person drank). This is even possible when others are drinking from a different cup of wine (Mishna Berura 271:77), although it is normally best for the one making Kiddush to drink the proper amount from the Kiddush cup (Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 48:14). Heating Pad on ShabbatI have muscle pain in my back, which sometimes becomes severe. Going to bed with a heating pad has made a big difference sometimes. May I use it on Shabbat, or is it a problem of muktzeh?There are a few issues of muktzeh involved here. One is whether to consider a heating pad a kli shemelachto l’issur or a kli shemelachto l’heter. On the one hand, in order to use it, one must put it on, which it is forbidden on Shabbat. On the other hand, if one prepared it before Shabbat (by keeping it on or setting a Shabbat clock), then further use does not include melacha. (We are not delving into issues of medical activity on Shabbat. While not a trivial question, with the level of need involved, there are ample grounds to permit it – see The Halachos of Refuah on Shabbos, p. 26.). Rav Moshe Feinstein (Igrot Moshe, Orach Chayim III:49, regarding an electric fan) treats such items as kli shemelachto l’issur. However, regarding a case very similar to ours, an electric blanket, he raises the serious possibility that it is a kli shemelachto l’heter. This is also the opinion of Rav S.Z. Auerbach (Minchat Shlomo I:9) and Rav Asher Weiss (Shut Minchat Asher I:33), although none of them was willing to rely on this heter alone. In any case, it is permitted to use a kli shemelachto l’issur for a permitted use (l’tzorech gufo) (Shulchan Aruch, OC 308:3) and this would be a classic example. A further problem is the fact that the heating pad has a filament that becomes glowing hot. In certain areas of halacha, this is considered like fire (see Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 43:4 regarding using an incandescent light for hadlakat neirot Shabbat in a case of need). We find that a lit ner (oil cup) is full muktzeh, which cannot even be moved for a permitted use (Shabbat 47a). This is because the flame is muktzeh (more than a kli shemelachto l’issur), and the oil and cup are a bassis l’davar ha’asur (something which is supporting that which is muktzeh). So ostensibly, the whole pad is a bassis for the heat-emitting electrical wires, which are the heart of the device (Orchot Shabbat 19:(246)). We must understand why the gemara posits that a flame is muktzeh. One answer in the Chazon Ish (OC 41:16) is that the fact that one does not move a flame on Shabbat (since it can go out) makes it muktzeh. Another answer he suggests is that the flame is considered nolad, something that did not exist before, as the flame is constantly renewing. Rav Asher Weiss (in a letter to Zomet) says that it is because a flame is a separate unit that does not fit into one of the categories that would make it not muktzeh (i.e., food, a utensil). Even according to the Chazon Ish’s explanations, the heat-producing electricity might not be like a flame (see Minchat Shlomo I:14, who analyzes this Chazon Ish). In any case, several contemporary poskim posit (including Igrot Moshe, OC III:50), mainly in the context of an electric blanket, that we do not view the heated wires and the electricity therein as a separate unit like a flame is. Rather, it is subsumed under the overall utensil of the blanket, which is either a kli shemelachto l’heter or kli shemelachto l’issur (see above), but, either way, it can be moved as part of its use. Rav Ovadia Yosef (Yechaveh Da’at V:28; see also Chelkat Yaakov, OC 118) adds also that the electricity in the wires are not comparable to a flame because the results are not visible. However, many, including Rav S.Z. Auerbach (Minchat Shlomo I:14), permit to move even lamps whose electricity gives off a noticeable light. In the final analysis, then, it is permitted to use the heating pad. Rav Moshe Feinstein (Igrot Moshe ibid.) required attaching a reminder to the controls and the wall socket so that one not change the setting or unplug it. Rav Ovadia (Yechaveh Da’at ibid.) considers that a new gezeira and therefore unnecessary, although he also wrote that it does not hurt to be stringent. All agree that one does not have to be concerned lest he inadvertently pull it out of the wall, against his intention. Chanuka Candles Inside and Outside?I grew up lighting Chanuka candles inside the house. In my community, the uniform practice is to do so outside. I think that is great, but I miss seeing them inside my house. Is it permitted to light a second chanukia indoors (could it be bal tosif)? If permitted, what is the best way to do it?Little is written about whether lighting halachically unneeded candles on Chanuka is bal tosif. We will start with general rules regarding mitzvot. Rishonim ask why it is permitted to blow beyond the first set of tekiot on Rosh Hashana. Tosafot (Rosh Hashana 16b) answers that just repeating a mitzva is not bal tosif. The Rashba answers that it is permitted because it follows Rabbinic instruction. (There is a machloket whether the Rashba also accepts Tosafot’s answer – see Minchat Chinuch #454 and Pri Megadim, Orach Chyaim, Intro. I:40.) There are also opinions (see Ra’avad, arguing on Rambam, Lulav 7:7) that using more of a correct mitzva object than required (e.g., two etrogim), is permitted. It is more lenient when the two objects are used in separate places (see Sukka 31b). On the other hand, maybe the fact that they are both on legitimate parts of one’s house connects them (see later). According to Tosafot and the Ra’avad, then, there is no problem lighting extra chanukiyot, and the Pri Megadim (ibid.) suggests that bal tosif never applies to Rabbinic mitzvot. There are more basic grounds to say that extra chanukiyot is fine. Even those who argue with Tosafot do not forbid bal tosif for doing more than required regarding every mitzva. Is it forbidden to say Kri’at Shema or mention the Exodus more than required?! Sometimes, more is a good thing. Classical sources and minhagim support the thesis that we look positively on more pirsumei nisa than required by strict Halacha. The Terumat Hadeshen (I:101) says that a man away from home who can fulfill the mitzva with his wife’s lighting can prefer to light himself based on the concept of mehadrin. Also, when one has lit in the correct place but there is a side of the house where the candles cannot be seen, he should light there too (Shulchan Aruch, OC 671:8). We do this without a beracha, apparently because it is not a real mitzva (Rama ad loc. based on the Ran, Shabbat 10a of Rif’s pages). There is a minhag to light candles in shul for Shacharit, without any halachic mandate. These are indications (not proofs) that strengthen the logic that bal tosif should simply not apply to Chanuka lightings, which would explain the near silence on the topic. Therefore, Rav Carmel (one of our roshei kollel) ruled that you need not be machmir and can light freely without a beracha to enhance your experience. For one who is concerned, despite the above, that there could be a problem, we tersely present some practical ideas. Many posit that if one repeats a mitzva “with a twist” to remove a doubt, there is no bal tosif. (The Shulchan Aruch’s (OC 34:2) idea of putting on Rashi and Rabbeinu Tam tefillin at the same time is different because they are mutually exclusive, whereas inside and outside lighting can both be fulfillments.) See (Bemareh Habazak IX:35.) a machloket about putting mezuzot on both doorposts when one is unsure of the correct side. If you have some doubt if your lighting outside is definitely done in the right place/way (see our discussion of the pros and cons on the inside-outside question in Living the Halachic Process, III, D-11) this might eliminate bal tosif questions (see Divrei Yatziv, OC 287). This works better if your wife hears your beracha outside and then lights inside, with the two of you having in mind to be yotzei with the better lighting. If the lighting is as an extra, other “machmir” ideas include lighting without kavana for a mitzva before the mitzva’s time or after the real candles go out. We discourage putting the extra chanukiya in the window, as it goes against the local practice of one, outside lighting, and to use the type of artistic chanukiya (see LTHP, I, D-10) that people like you would use for atmosphere, not mitzva. Frozen Challa for Lechem MishnehMay we use a frozen challa for lechem mishneh on Shabbat?We will start by removing the main suspense: the one-word answer is clearly, “Yes.” After seeing why, we will see why some prefer avoiding the situation and weigh certain factors and distinctions. The gemara (Berachot 39b) says that on Shabbat, one needs to start the meals with two loaves of bread, based on the pasuk (Shemot 16:22) regarding the double portion of manna that fell in the desert. The gemara then says that Rav Kahana would hold two loaves [during the beracha] but only cut off bread from one of them. Rabbi Zeira, it continues, would cut into the “whole sheiruta.” Rashi (ad loc.) explains that this means that his first cut was enough challa for the whole meal. The Rashba (ad loc.) says that it means that R. Zeira would cut bread from each of the loaves. It does not seem that the Rashba understood R. Zeira’s practice as being a halachic requisite, and in any case, the accepted opinion is that of Rashi, that the preference is to cut a big piece but of only one loaf (Rambam 7:3; Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 274:1). Several Acharonim (see Yabia Omer, VIII, OC 32) understand that according to Rashi’s approach, only one loaf is there for eating, whereas the second one is just for a reminder of the miracle in the desert. Accordingly, the second one does not need to be fit to eat from a practical perspective. There is a machloket whether we go as far as saying that it does not have to be ready to be eaten at all. For example, some say (see Tzitz Eliezer XIV:40) that one can even use matza for lechem mishneh on Erev Pesach even though one is not allowed to eat matza at that time. The Pri Megadim (MZ 274:2) suggests that even one who does not usually eat bread baked by a non-Jewish bakery could count it for the second loaf of lechem mishneh. On the other hand, some poskim prefer not to use frozen challa for lechem mishneh. The Shevet Halevi (VI:31) opines that if there is an opinion that instructs to actually cut from both loaves then everyone agrees that it should at least to be fit to eat. The Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata (55:(39)) cites Rav SZ Auerbach as saying that it is likely that it needs to be fit to eat at some type during the meal (the Shevet Halevi above seems to assume that the loaf would not be defrosted by meal’s end). Therefore, it seem that if one uses a pita or a roll, which will defrost within fifteen minutes or so, the consensus should be that it is totally fine. One could ask that regarding a large loaf, as well, even if it takes more than an hour to defrost, the outer layer should defrost quicker, and the minimum size of a challa is only a k’zayit. The stringent leaning poskim probably assume that since people do not eat challa by peeling off the outside, the challa would have to be mainly defrosted (this distinction may be implicit in the Rambam, Shabbat 9:4). Another distinction to consider is whether seuda shlishit is different from the other meals. In the direction of stringency, it is usually a shorter meal, therefore giving less time for defrosting, especially since for many it has a set finish time – before the standard time for Ma’ariv. It is even possible to argue that at that point of the day, if it does not count toward lechem mishneh, it is muktzeh. (The Tzitz Eliezer ibid. discusses this correlation, but says that it is fit for lechem mishneh and therefore not muktzeh; Mishneh Halachot XI:197 rejects the possibility of muktzeh). On the other hand, there is more room for leniency because it is unclear that lechem mishneh is needed at seuda shlishit (see Shulchan Aruch, OC 291:4-5). In short, when there is a need, frozen lechem mishneh is valid, but there is some halachic logic to avoid it if it will not defrost during the meal. Yabia Omer (ibid.) said that it is preferable to borrow a challa from a neighbor and return it. Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata (55:(43)) has a slight reservation whether it is considered fit for him to eat if he lacks permission to eat and not return it. Drinking during DaveningI showed my surprise to a serious young man who was drinking coffee during Shacharit. He said it helps him daven and is permitted. Can that be correct?We are not discussing one with special physical/medical needs. It is forbidden to eat before davening Shacharit (Berachot 10b), as derived (although it is probably Rabbinic) from “Do not eat on the blood” (Vayikra 19:26) – i.e., before you have prayed for your blood (=life). It is considered haughty to indulge in food before addressing Hashem, and therefore drinking water, which is not indulging, is permitted (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 89:3). Many Acharonim permit drinking coffee and tea, specifically when one needs it to concentrate on davening; adding flavor enhancers is questionable (see Mishna Berura 89:22). Tefilla is supposed to be done with reverence and awe. Many halachot govern how one’s body, clothes, and surroundings must be at that time (see Shulchan Aruch, OC simanim 97-99). The height of tefilla is considered “standing before the shechina” (Rambam, Tefilla 4:16). Eating and drinking when in close contact with Hashem is considered a big chutzpa (see Shemot 24:11). Since this is antithetical to tefilla and a beit knesset is set aside for tefilla, it is forbidden to eat there (Shulchan Aruch, OC 151:1). The incongruity between eating and davening is behind the halacha of not eating even before davening. It seems obvious that eating in the midst of davening is worse than eating before. Therefore, even if one davens in a place where he may eat, e.g., at home, in a beit midrash (Rama ad loc.) or he follows the lenient minhag (see Be’ur Halacha ad loc.), he should not drink during davening. One can deflect these conclusions. If drinking coffee is permitted before davening, then it is not halachic eating, and who says the halacha is stricter during davening than before? (The counter-argument is that it is only permitted before due to need, and if one can drink before davening, why let him drink during it?) Also, assuming it is forbidden during Shemoneh Esrei, who says P’sukei D’zimra’s lesser level of “meeting Hashem,” as a preparatory/introductory stage, carries the same weight (Rama, OC 89:3 may equate them)? Indeed, many of the halachot of tefilla refer only to Shemoneh Esrei (see Mishna Berura 97:3). What do the sources say? There are many sources on drinking before davening; I did not find classical sources on this question. Why would there not be much discussion of the matter? It is either because: A) It is obvious that it shares the same halacha as eating before davening; B) It is obviously permitted; C) It is obviously forbidden; or D) Few people were interested in doing such a thing, for sociological or convenience reasons. Intuitively, I find A and B implausible. C seems logical (Chevel Nachalato 17:3 cites Rav Y. Ariel as saying it is forbidden). D is a possibility. It is very possible to combine C and D. Perhaps there is not a full-fledged issur, but sensitivity to shul and tefilla made it taboo. I spoke to many (Ashkenazi) decades-long shul attenders, none of whom can recall until recently healthy people drinking during P’sukei D’zimra and later. Those who need coffee, drink before davening. Then they enter shul, put on tefillin, and DAVEN ONLY. That is a very appropriate minhag even IF arguably not fully required. There are signs that some in the new generation view things differently. While they can be wonderful Jews and daveners, they would be pulling things in the wrong direction, according to several rabbanim (and non-rabbanim) I have discussed the topic with. Drinking while davening degrades the atmosphere of the shul in our eyes. Siyum for Taanit Bechorot Via Live StreamingOn Erev Pesach, I will be in a small Jewish community that will not have a siyum. Is it permitted for me – a bechor – to break the ta’anit bechorot based on a siyum in which I “participate” via Skype?In the context of the halacha not to fast throughout the month of Nisan, Massechet Sofrim[1] states that an exception is that bechorot fast on Erev Pesach. The Tur[2] and Shulchan Aruch[3] cite this practice as normative, and the Tur explains that it is in commemoration of the miracle that the Jewish firstborns were saved in Egypt. The idea that one may eat at a seudat mitzva and thereby cancel the fast is debated among the Acharonim. The Magen Avraham[4] does not allow firstborns to eat even at a brit mila on Erev Pesach. The Mishna Berura[5] reports, however, that the minhag in his time was to allow eating at seudot mitzva, including the meal at a siyum. The idea that a siyum meal can serve this role as a seudat mitzva is found in the Rama[6] regarding the permissibility of eating meat and drinking wine at a seudat mitzva during the Nine Days. In these contexts, there is room to distinguish between those people who are the main individuals involved in the seudat mitzva, for whom the day is like a Yom Tov, and the other participants. For example, one who is a sandek on the day of his parent’s yahrtzeit may eat on that day, even if he ordinarily follows the minhag of fasting on that day, whereas a simple participant in the brit may not.[7] Similarly, even those who do not allow firstborns to eat at another’s seudat mitzva are lenient regarding a firstborn who serves as the mohel or sandek, as well as the father of the circumcised baby.[8] In any event, the minhag is to allow all participants at a siyum to eat at the siyum’s meal, and as a result, to continue eating the rest of Erev Pesach. The simple logic for this leniency is that each individual’s participation makes the celebration more special, thus heightening the ba’al simcha’s[9] event. Therefore, participation in the ba’al simcha’s meal is what is crucial regarding our discussion. Indeed, some allow even a firstborn who missed the siyum itself to take part in the seudat mitzva.[10] Following the logic that it is the enhancement of the ba’al simcha’s event that matters, the Minchat Yitzchak[11] says that even the Chavot Yair,[12] who rules that a meal held the day after the siyum was made is still considered a seudat mitzva, is discussing only a seuda in which the one who made the siyum participates. The gemara[13] relates that Abaye was especially emotionally involved in the Torah successes of others, to the extent that he would make a party for the rabbis when a young scholar finished a massechet. Some[14] understand that the halachic status of such a party extends even to one who is not present at all at the celebration of the one who finished the Torah section; the vicarious joy of all those who are happy about the siyum is equivalent to their participation in the seudat mitzva. The Minchat Yitzchak[15] writes that according to this approach (which he discourages relying upon but considers legitimate), one can be considered a “participant” in the seudat mitzva even if he does not actually eat together with the main party. In most cases, it would not seem logical to consider one who “takes part” in a seudat mitzva via Skype as being a halachic participant, certainly in regards to increasing the simcha of the one who made the siyum. However, according to the approach that anyone connected to the siyum is entitled to celebrate his happiness due to the occasion, it is at least somewhat plausible to say that witnessing the event via Skype is sufficiently significant. A number of authorities take a surprisingly lenient approach about siyum standards for ta’anit bechorot,[16] relying heavily on the following two factors: 1) The fast is only a minhag. 2) For many people, fasting would have a significantly negative impact on the Seder. While not actually cancelling the minhag, some seem to lower the bar of who is included in the siyum, such that they enable almost anyone to eat. If one feels a need to be lenient, Skype participation can indeed be contemplated. If so, it is best to watch the siyum and celebrate it as a group, and/or to witness a siyum that brings one true simcha (e.g., based on one's connection to the person or to the level of accomplishment). We now apply our past response to those under Coronavirus quarantine or limitation on gatherings if the present situation (as of the time of this writing) persists. There are important factors that indicate that it is fully permissible, even as a single participant, to eat based on remote participation in a siyum via live streaming. In the area of need, many people will be unable to take part in a siyum in person, which creates a she’at hadechak, as above. This is combined with the fact that doctors have raised reservations about the advisability of fasting during the time of a serious infectious outbreak. On a more positive note, such remote participation in a siyum has much more power than usual. While normally, such participation is abnormal, which detracts from its efficacy, this is presently the “new (temporary) normal.” Furthermore, the one who makes the siyum will be fully aware of his remote participants, and he will be honored and touched to share his personal simcha with many others, instead of being limited to a small group where he is. The remote participants will also feel part of the simcha, as the light of Torah, which unites us at happy times, like the recent siyum hashas, unites us as well in difficult times. Undoubtedly then, taking part in such a siyum at this time is absolutely fine. In contrast, if one would have to break or even bend the instructions or advice of medical authorities and/or one’s rabbi, chas v’shalom, to take part in a siyum in person, that is unacceptable.
[1] 21:1. [2] Orach Chayim 470. [3] Orach Chayim 470:1. [4] Ad loc. in the introduction to the siman. [5] Ad loc. 10. [6] Orach Chayim 551:10. [7] Mishna Berura 568:46. [8] Ibid. 470:10. [9] The person to whom the happy event is directly related. [10] See Teshuvot V’Hanhagot II:210. [11] VIII:45. [12] Shut Chavot Yair 70. [13] Shabbat 118b-119a. [14] See Az Nidberu XII:58. [15] IX:45. [16] Including Az Nidberu and Teshuvot V’Hanhagot op. cit.; Yabia Omer, I, Orach Chayim 26, is quite stringent. Washing Hands after Leaving a HospitalWhen visiting a hospital, I saw a kohen alert sign. Upon leaving, should I have done netilat yadayim due to exposure to tumah?We will first survey the point of netilat yadayim in various cases including yours. When one becomes tameh on the level of Torah law in a manner that he needs rechitza (washing) to remove the tumah (e.g., due to bodily emissions or contact with dead animals), this consists of immersing his whole body in a mikveh (see Eiruvin 4b). This does not suffice for one who came in contact with a dead human; a process that involves para aduma ashes is also needed. There are times that exposure to tumah does not make a person tameh according to Torah law, but Chazal decreed tumah on his hands, such that if they touch something holy (e.g., teruma), they render it tameh (see Rambam, Avot Hatumah 8:2). As an extension of the Rabbinic tumah for teruma foods, Chazal required netilat yadayim with a beracha before eating bread, irrespective of known contact with any tumah; it may also be connected to the need for cleanliness (see Beit Yosef, Orach Chayim 158). There is another standard netilat yadayim with a beracha – in between when one wakes up in the morning and davens. There are different opinions among the Rishonim if this is because the hands became dirty during sleep or because one is like a new creature who needs sanctification (see Mishna Berura 4:1). Another reason for washing hands is the prospect of ruach ra’ah (literally, a bad spirit) that cling to the hands in various situations. The Shulchan Aruch (OC 4:18) has a list of situations in which one should wash his hands (without a beracha), including, upon leaving a bathroom, after cutting nails, and after touching sweaty parts of the body. Some of them are because of cleanliness, especially if one is to partake in something holy, and others are because of ruach ra’ah (e.g., leaving the bathroom – Mishna Berura 4:40). The Shulchan Aruch cites as “some say” (see Mordechai, Berachot 192) that one washes after being among the dead (i.e., in a cemetery – Mishna Berura ad loc. 42, based on Shut Maharil 42). In Yoreh Deah (376:4) he says unequivocally that one washes after a funeral. Actually, the Tur (YD 376) cites a Gaon who views such a minhag as baseless. The reason given for doing it is the ruach ra’ah, not the laws of tumah. The latter is not an issue because washing the hands (or even going to the mikveh) will not remove the tumah, but it helps (at least partially) regarding ruach ra’ah, as we saw above. The question, then, is what type of setting of contact with to the dead warrants washing? The Shulchan Aruch (OC 4:18) mentions that after touching the dead, one should wash. The Magen Avraham (4:21) infers that if one is in the proximity of a single corpse without touching it, he does not need to wash. However, he continues that it is customary to wash even if he “comes into [the place of] one corpse, as well as one who escorts it.” While I lack the understanding of how ruach ra’ah works, the sources seem to imply that the intricate laws of tumah, especially of ohel (roughly, being “under the same roof”) are not the factor, as they are for a kohen in a hospital. One can escort the deceased and not become tameh, and yet there is washing. (The Aruch Hashulchan (4:21) cites the minhag that it depends if he is within four amot of the deceased; while there is a Rabbinic concept of tumah within four amot of a corpse (Sota 44a), the problem might still be the proximity rather than the Rabbinic tumah.) In the other direction, if one is somewhere in a large hospital when a corpse is taken out through the basement, while this could be crucial for a kohen, who is bound by the Torah laws of tumah, it need not create a connection and corresponding ruach ra’ah that would require washing. Since I have not found a source to say that there is a need to wash after leaving a hospital in which someone has died and the minhag is clearly to not do so, we can assume that this is correct. Our explanation is likely correct. Reciting Borei Nefashot on Food When One Will Still DrinkWhen I eat a fruit and drink, if I finish the fruit but will continue drinking for quite a while, when should I recite Borei Nefashot? If I do it after finishing the fruit, should I make a new beracha on the drink?Even if you did not eat a fruit, what to do about Borei Nefashot on drinking over time is not simple. If you never drink a revi’it at one time, you are not obligated (due to doubt) in Borei Nefashot (Mishna Berura 210:1). It is inadvisable to go more than a half hour between one drink and another, as that may be enough of a break to detach the drinking from the beracha acharona and perhaps the beracha rishona. Those who drink large amounts with significant breaks should make a set of berachot each time (see Living the Halachic Process, II, B-4). We proceed to the impact of the fruit. One has at least a half hour and perhaps significantly more (see V’zot Haberacha, p. 50) from the end of eating fruit to recite Borei Nefashot; you can also leave a little fruit to eat many minutes later. Therefore, your question can usually be avoided. Your question pertains if after eating the fruit, you will continue sporadic drinking for a long time (without leaving the vicinity). The first issue is whether Borei Nefashot’s efficacy on the fruit is extended by continued drinking without a long break. During a long meal in which 72 minutes pass between eating bread and bentching, the food one continues to eat extends the time (Magen Avraham 184:9). There are two ways to explain this halacha. The Pri Megadim (ad loc.) suggests that continued eating slows digestion. The Mishna Berura (184:18) says that it is a halachic matter – Birkat Hamazon does not expire in the middle of a meal. The Shevet Halevi (VII, 27) posits that if the reason is physical, it applies to any eating/drinking, but if it is halachic, it likely only applies to a meal or other unified eating (see V’zot Haberacha, p. 191). Therefore, it is a machloket whether you may wait much more than a half hour after finishing the fruit to make Borei Nefashot. The Har Tzvi (OC I:96) prefers the opinion that we do not extend the time for eating due to drinking, as the beracha on one is not covered by the beracha of the other. Therefore, it is improper to wait beyond the normal time for making a beracha on the fruit. (The Shevet Halevi concurs in practice). How does reciting Borei Nefashot impact on the beracha on drinking? The Har Tzvi instructs to have in mind when saying Borei Nefashot that it not apply to the drinking, so he can continuing drinking based on the original beracha. He rules this way despite seeing the ability to affect the matter by intention as a machloket. The Pri Megadim (Peticha Kollelet, Berachot) says that for a beracha acharona (as opposed to a beracha rishona), when one beracha can apply to multiple foods, it does even if one did not have that intention. The Har Tzvi disagrees, with aid from the Rav Pe’alim (II, OC 32). Logic suggests that the Pri Megadim might actually agree that here one can limit the Borei Nefashot’s reach for the following reasons. The Pri Megadim’s apparent logic is that a beracha acharona is different because given the standing obligation to make the beracha, one cannot detach it from all the foods (see Rav Pe’alim ibid.). However, in our case, the time to make Borei Nefashot on the drink has not yet come, and in fact it would cause an unjustified new beracha. Therefore, it is illogical that the Borei Nefashot on the fruit should be forced onto it. Therefore, when there is reason to make a Borei Nefashot on the fruit but not the drink, one should recite it with intention just for the fruit. On the other hand, it is often wise to purposely have Borei Nefashot on the fruit also “end the round” of drinking for the chance of several cases: 1. he will take too long a break in the drinking; 2. he will unwittingly leave the house; 3. he will forget Borei Nefashot at the end; 4. he drank in a way that it is a safek whether he requires Borei Nefashot. Simchat Torah for those Not Completing the Torah ReadingHopefully, I/we will be able to make it to shul for Simchat Torah (=ST), but I and many others will not be finishing up the Torah reading, as we missed a few weeks when our shul was closed. Does this effect our ability to celebrate ST, halachically or experientially?At this point, we expect that much of the physical celebration will have to be toned down due to the Torah’s mandate to protect ourselves/each other. But your question has a practical dimension and gives pause to consider what we celebrate on ST. Your question is based on the possibility that some ST practices are due to our “making a siyum” on the Torah reading. Indeed siyumim do justify joyful actions that are otherwise forbidden, (e.g., eating on Ta’anit Bechorot, eating meat during the Nine Days). Do any ST practices need special justification? V’zot Haberacha is the Torah portion for the last day of Sukkot (Megilla 31a) and is not only the next parasha up but also connects Moshe’s beracha to Shlomo’s beracha at the end of Sukkot (Avudraham, Shemini Atzeret). But reading Bereishit and the multiple aliyot need a link to the special event. The same is true for those who lain at night and the minhag to take out all of the sifrei Torah when we are not going to read from all of them (see Rama, Orach Chayim 669:1). Dancing on Yom Tov is also permitted only because of the celebration (Teshuvot Hageonim 314). If only individuals, but not a whole shul, miss a parasha there would be no question for the individuals to act like everyone else. Otherwise, we would need new rules for many people, who miss due to illness, travel, etc. most years. Indeed, kri’at haTorah is a public mitzva (Ramban on the Rif, Megilla 3a) and thus relates to the community. Your question is pertinent when a majority of the shul missed parshiyot (see Mishna Berura 135:7). The matter of finishing up also has an individual element, which you can fulfill. The halacha of shnayim mikra v’echad Targum requires you to read the parasha twice and learn it with Unkelus and/or Rashi every week (Shulchan Aruch, OC 285:1). While it is best to complete this practice each Shabbat, one can make it up until ST (ibid. 4). In that way, those who miss have a level of siyum, parallel to the communal one. A possibly related machloket to our question is what a shul does when reopening after missing parshiyot. The Rama (OC 135:2, based on the Ohr Zarua) says that they must make up a missed parasha. The Meiri expounds that we do not say “what was, was,” in order that at the year’s end they will have finished everything. On the other hand, many (including the Magen Avraham 135:4) rule like the Maharam Mintz that one makes up only one parasha at most; if more was missed, we would not be bothered that parshiyot were missed. Others require to make up as many as needed (Mishna Berura 135:6 cites both opinions). One can claim they disagree whether it is important to have read every parasha by year’s end. We can (but need not – beyond our scope) reason as follows: If your shul held by the strict opinion, they made up the missed parshiyot. If they did not find that necessary, apparently they hold that the “hole” in the Torah reading is not significant. Clearly, the minhagim of ST, which have developed over centuries (see Hamoadim Bahalacha p. 135-141) are connected to that which WE finish the Torah. However, in the absence of sources to the contrary (which I have not found), we must presume that the fact that it is time for Klal Yisrael to finish the Torah makes it a time to celebrate. Various practices and sources indicate that the focus is on honoring the Torah (see Netzer Mata’ai 6; Pnei Aharon, OC 10) and thanking Hashem for our opportunity to learn it, not celebrating our diligence in finishing our reading. Therefore, even when communities miss multiple parshiyot, whether European Jews during World War II, Jews behind the Iron Curtain or, l’havdil, us this year, ST is still a time for heart-felt joy and special practices, in honor of the Torah and our strong connection to it. Eat Meat on Shabbat when it Bothers his Wife?My wife and I are relatively newly married. I am used to having fleishig Shabbat meals, whereas my wife is disgusted by meat (including poultry, mainly by the smell). Is it right for us to stop having meat at Shabbat/Yom Tov meals or should we try to figure out an arrangement that my wife can live with?There is a mandate of “v’karata laShabbat oneg” (you shall call Shabbat a day of indulgence) (Yeshayahu 58:13). The gemara (Shabbat 118a-b, as does the pasuk ibid.) promises great reward for those who indulge properly in Shabbat meals, and the Mishna Berura (242:1) cites opinions that the basic obligation is from the Torah. The basic obligation of the two main meals of Shabbat is to have bread (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 274:4) and [preferably wine for] Kiddush. But as far back as we know, it has been customary that the festivity of these meals includes meat, and meat features prominently in the sources. The Shulchan Aruch (OC 250:2) states: “He should have much meat, wine, and treats according to his ability.” While one should not normally nullify oaths on Shabbat, one may do so for a need of the day. The Shulchan Aruch (OC 341:1) gives an example of undoing an oath not to eat on that Shabbat, and the Mishna Berura (341:2) applies this even to an oath not to eat meat because “eating meat is a mitzva on Shabbat.” However, there is strong evidence that there is no obligation to eat specifically meat (or poultry) on Shabbat. An onen’s (one before the burial of a close relative) prohibition to eat meat or drink wine is suspended on Shabbat (Shulchan Aruch, Yoreh Deah 341:1). Rabbeinu Yona (Berachot 10b), accepted by the Rama (ad loc.) and the Shach (ad loc. 7), says the onen is not required to eat meat if he does not want to because it is not an obligation to have specifically meat. The Mishna Berura (ibid., in Sha’ar Hatziyun 341:4) said that the Shabbat need justifying nullifying oaths is not limited to meat specifically but to any food that makes Shabbat enjoyable. The Mishna Berura (242:1) posits that the foods mentioned in the gemara as appropriate for Shabbat are examples based on their time and place, and that we generally assume that meat is festive in people’s eyes, but that this need not be across-the-board. If any food preference (besides bread) is somewhat objective it is fish, as it includes a mystical element, and even there it is not required for those who dislike it (see ibid. 2). So clearly, your wife should not eat meat if it bothers her in any way. But I understand your question not to be about your wife eating meat, but whether meat should be served for you or guests, who do appreciate it. Let us assume that you cannot find a technical system, such as your preparing a meat-based food whose smell does not offend your wife, but that she is capable of putting up with it with sacrifice (as she probably does as a guest of others or at semachot). Is a Second Netilat Yadayim Necessary?If one does netilat yadayim (=ny) before eating rinsed fruit (without a beracha), and then decides to eat bread, should he wash again, with a beracha?Your question is related to a famous yearly practice. The gemara (Pesachim 115b) says that at the Seder, the first ny (for karpas) does not preclude a second one because, in the interim, one takes his mind off of his hands (hesech hada’at). Tosafot (ad loc.) asks why we need that reason, considering that the minor ny anyway should not exempt from ny on the matza, which is a full-fledged and different Rabbinic obligation. Tosafot answers that we might have thought that even a non-required ny precludes the need for a repeat when required. The Beit Yosef (Orach Chayim 158) understands from Tosafot that even if one does a lower-level-obligation ny for non-breads dipped in liquids, he still has a full obligation for ny (with a beracha) if he now wants to eat bread, and the Shulchan Aruch (OC 158:7) rules this way. The Rama (in the Darchei Moshe and on the Shulchan Aruch, both ad loc.) says that this is so only when he had hesech hada’at (or a long time passed – Biur Halacha ad loc.). Otherwise, one would not make a beracha on the bread. (The Biur Halacha ibid. posits that if there is no water for a second ny, one can rely on the first ny.) There is a parallel discussion regarding one who leaves the bathroom right before a meal. If he does one ny for both needs, both the option of eating first and of reciting Asher Yatzar first raise problems (beyond our present scope). Therefore, the Shulchan Aruch (OC 165:1; the Rama does not object) rules to wash two times; the first is followed by Asher Yatzar, the second, by the beracha of Al Netilat Yadayim. The Magen Avraham (165:2) asks why according to the Rama, is there a beracha on the second ny if it is so soon after another ny. His first answer is that the beracha can actually relate back to the first ny, as he knew he would eat bread. The second answer, which he prefers, is that the first washing should be done in a manner that is invalid for bread (e.g., without a cup), so that he can say Asher Yatzar without causing a problem with the beracha on a full-fledged halachic ny. Rabbi Akiva Eiger (ad loc.) rejects the Magen Avraham’s first answer because if the second ny added nothing, the beracha on ny has to relate to the first, significant ny, and therefore Asher Yatzar would cause a problem. The Mishna Berura (165:2) and many others (see Sha’ar Hatziyun ad loc.) accept the assumption of the Magen Avraham’s second answer – if nothing happens to the hands between two acts of ny in relative close proximity, there is no beracha on the second one, even if the first was not a ny with a beracha. It might seem that before eating bread soon after washing for fruit, a Sephardi would make the beracha on the ny, following the Shulchan Aruch, and an Ashkenazi would not, based on the Rama. However, this is far from clear. The Yalkut Yosef (OC 158:19) rules that even a Sephardi does not make a beracha because Tosafot is based on an assumption (which we do not accept) that the netila before dipped foods is only for cleanliness. Ashkenazim also have to determine how long the effect of the first netila precludes a new ny with a beracha. The Biur Halacha (to 158:7) says that after a few hours, it is ineffective unless he originally intended it to last for a later eating and did not have hesech hada’at. We note that the Darchei Moshe (ibid.) assumed that the delay between karpas and motzi matza warrants a new ny with a beracha and that not everyone has an hours-long Maggid section. During a meal, we do not assume hesech hada’at, but when one finishes it, we normally treat the situation as one where we assume it (see Mishna Berura 164:7). It is unclear how long after ny for fruit we should assume hesech hada’at. A trick to use for such a case of doubt is to touch parts of the body that are usually covered, making ny with a beracha a definite subsequent need (see Yaskil Avdi, II, OC 6). Behavior during Kedusha of Street MinyanimMy neighborhood is filled with outdoor Covid 19 minyanim. I was walking down the street on Shabbat and a minyan across the street was in the middle of Kedusha. In such cases, do I need to stop, keep my feet together, and respond to Kedusha until they are done, or may I continue walking?The Rashba (Shut HaRashba 1:249) was asked by someone who assumed that if after reciting Kedusha, one enters a shul reciting it, he would be forbidden to repeat it. The Rashba rejects this, arguing that there is no reason not to repeat Kedusha in this manner. The Rama (Orach Chayim 125:2) in paskening like the Rashba, rules that in this case one should do so. Some posit that not repeating Kedusha with the congregation would appear as if he did not agree with the concepts expressed, which is a disgrace (see Yabia Omer VI, OC 20). All agree to this concept regarding the first pasuk of Kri’at Shema (Shulchan Aruch, OC 65:2). Others explain that the opportunity to sanctify HaShem’s Name obligates one to do so (Igrot Moshe, OC III:89). Both pieces of logic also apply to Kaddish and Barchu, where the congregation joins together to sanctify HaShem’s Name (see ibid. and Mishna Berura 65:9). Answering Kedusha is important enough to allow one to recite its crucial sections during P’sukei D’Zimra and Kri’at Shema (Shulchan Aruch, OC 66:3 and Mishna Berura 51:8). Yet, significant sources posit that there is just a preference rather than a full obligation to answer Kedusha outside one’s own minyan. Rav SZ Auerbach (as cited by Ishei Yisrael 24:(62)) notes that the language of the Shulchan Aruch (OC 55:20) is that one who is adjacent to a minyan reciting Kaddish or Kedusha may answer with them; he does not say they are required to. Rav Elyashiv is similarly cited regarding someone walking outside a shul (Tefilla K’hilchata 13:(119)). Others (see Ishei Yisrael ibid.) argue that while the Shulchan Aruch is focused on the ability to connect to a minyan one hears, if they are able, it is obvious that they must. There is much discussion about the challenges of davening in a place like the Kotel. Many (including Rav Chaim Palachi in Nishmat Kol Chai I:4) assume that there is an obligation to answer other minyanim and recognize this can be unconducive to focusing on one’s own davening/minyan. That conflict between competing mitzvot allows some to raise concepts such as osek b’mitzva patur min hamitzva (see Tzitz Eliezer XI:3). Also, as part of a different minyan, continuing to daven with one’s own minyan looks less like rejecting the words coming from an adjacent minyan. Street minyanim may raise other factors. Sometimes one is very close and/or in the same domain even when not part of the minyan. On the other hand, sometimes there can be “dirty matters” (e.g., garbage bins, dog droppings) in between oneself and the minyan, which may preclude answering (Shulchan Aruch ibid.) Adding a Shabbat Candle after ForgettingI am a man living alone. Last week, I forgot to light Shabbat candles. Must I light an extra one from now on?The Rama (Orach Chayim 263:1) accepts the minhag presented by the Maharil (Hilchot Shabbat 1) that if a woman forgets to light Shabbat candles one week, she must add one from that point on. Most see it as a penalty to reduce the likelihood of repeating such mistakes (Mishna Berura 263:7). Therefore, poskim assume that if she missed for reasons beyond her control, she does not need to add (Magen Avraham 263:3). The minhag has possible negative consequences for those who light exactly two lights, corresponding to zachor and shamor, as arguably this correspondence is lost when the number is changed (Darchei Moshe, OC 263:1). Nevertheless, it was widely accepted. The Eliya Rabba (263:7) understands the Maharil differently – there is no need for an extra candle, but it suffices to improve the lighting by adding more oil or having longer candles. In your case, there are two grounds for leniency. One is that some prominent poskim (including Yalkut Yosef, OC 263:26) reason that in our days, when without the ritual candles there is plenty of light for a pleasant Shabbat, there is no need to penalize people for not lighting the candles. There are a few reasons not to agree with this contention. For one, despite the fact that we always have electric lights, we still view the Shabbat candles as a relevant mitzva, which we take seriously and make a beracha on. As such, if one did not do it, why shouldn’t the regular penalty apply? The matter is clearer according to the Pri Megadim (Eshel Avraham 263:3) who says that even if a woman lit one less light than she normally does, she still is penalized. The Melamed L’hoil (I:46) says that there is a need for some penalty, but one can be partially lenient by following the above Eliya Rabba. The Be’ur Halacha (to 263:1), after citing the Pri Megadim (ibid.) that omitting any of the lights is grounds for the penalty, not only disagrees but also makes a general comment about the penalty: “All of this is only a minhag, and let us not add on to it.” We see this as a logical direction to take regarding this unusual minhag. (Consider that there seem to be many bigger shortcomings in our religious lives for which there are no penalties. Have you ever heard, for example, that whoever forgot to daven Mincha should add a mizmor of Tehillim to it from then on?!). Therefore, some have a rule that when there is doubt whether something is included in this minhag, we do not implement it, as Piskei Teshuvot 263:(37) cites in the name of Rav Vosner. On the other hand, not every idea for leniency counts as a doubt, as the same Rav Vosner (Shevet Halevi V:33), Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata (43:5), and others did not think having electric lights is strong enough to preclude the penalty. Chut Shani (IV:83) presents an interesting compromise – if one lit the electric lights with intention for it to supplement the Shabbat candles, it precludes the penalty (it is not easy to know where to draw the line on what counts for that intention). Your case includes another serious reason for leniency. Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata (43:(35)) raises and leaves as an unsolved question, whether the penalty applies to men, considering the special connection between women and the mitzva. Dirshu (263:(13)) also cites important contemporary poskim who say that men are not penalized despite the identical obligation on a fundamental level. This makes sense according to Chazal’s shocking statement that women could meet tragedy if they are not careful about Shabbat candle lighting (Shabbat 31b). I would not venture to comment on why this mitzva, as dear as it is, mysteriously has such a surprisingly great weight for women, but it can explain the minhag of the penalty as well as the logic of not extending it to men. In the final analysis, we do not think that is necessary for you to add a candle in the future. If you want to do something to enhance the mitzva, who are we to object? Erev Pesach that Falls on ShabbatWhat do you suggest we do on Erev Pesach this year, which is on Shabbat, regarding when and what to eat?Among the valid solutions to the challenges of Erev Pesach on Shabbat, people must determine the most practical solutions, according to the halachic possibilities their rabbis present. One practical assumption is that people will use only Pesachdik and/or disposable utensils, keeping any remaining chametz separate. “Bread” is needed for the first two meals and is preferred for seuda shlishit (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 291:5), which should be held in the afternoon (ibid. 2). Since the prohibition to eat chametz begins four halachic hours into the morning (consult a local calendar), our standard Shabbat practice needs to be changed. Let’s take a meal-by-meal look. Friday night meal - Those who do not want to keep chametz around can eat matza according to most poskim. If one has the minhag not to eat matza from the beginning of Nisan, matza ashira (known as “egg matza”) is an alternative.
Shabbat morning meal - If one finishes eating chametz (not necessarily the whole meal) by the end of the 4th hour, accomplished by davening very early, matters are halachically simple. (Getting rid of crumbs or leftovers by the end of the 5th hour is solvable and beyond our present scope.) Matza is desirable for situations when it is hard or nerve-racking to deal with chametz. However, Chazal forbade eating matza on Erev Pesach, according to most, from the beginning of the morning, so that when we eat it at the seder, it will be clear that it is for the mitzva (see Rambam, Chametz U’matza 6:12). However, one may eat matza that cannot be used for the mitzva (Shulchan Aruch 471:2), primarily, matza ashira, which is kneaded with liquids other than water (see Pesachim 35a). If it contains no water, most Rishonim rule that it cannot become chametz, and one would seemingly not need to rush.
Yet there are two issues. Firstly, as Ashkenazim are stringent to treat matza ashira as possible chametz, which is permitted to eat on Pesach only in cases of great need (Rama 462:4), the time issue reawakens. (Some poskim rely on the Noda B’yehuda (I, OC 21) that it is sufficient to be wary of matza ashira only after midday of Erev Pesach.) Secondly, matza ashira may have a status of pat haba’ah b’kisnin, similar to cake, making it a questionable substitute for challa. (Igrot Moshe OC I:155 explains that this is not a problem on Shabbat, but still seems to prefer challa when convenient. To see Rav O. Yosef’s preferred solution, see Yechaveh Da’at I, 91).
Seuda shlishit (=ss) - We mentioned the two preferred opinions about how normally to perform ss, which conflict this Shabbat. One is to eat bread at ss. The other is to have ss after midday, at which time chametz and matza are forbidden, and matza ashira is problematic for Ashkenazim. The Rama (444:1) says that we eat other foods, such as fruit or meat, at this ss. The Mishna Berura (444:8) cites a different solution, of breaking up the morning meal into two, so that one can fulfill ss on challa or matza ashira at that time. He points out that there should be some break between the two meals, to avoid a problem of an unnecessary beracha. However, he does not say how long that should be. Opinions range from a few minutes to half an hour, with some suggesting taking a short walk in between (see Piskei Teshuvot 444:6). One who is not usually careful to have challa at ss throughout the year need not consider this idea. He can eat a normal ss for him (no bread) in the afternoon, preferably earlier than usual to leave a good appetite for the seder. Even those who are stringent about ss may follow the Rama over the Mishna Berura’s suggestion, which is somewhat counter-intuitive and not without halachic problems. Sephardim, who can use matza ashira, must do so before three hours before sunset (Shulchan Aruch, OC 471:2). Throwing Out LeftoversIt pains me to throw out leftovers. Often, after a few days, it is clear that no one will eat any more (although they are still edible), and my family wants me to throw them out. We asked a rabbi, who told us to put them in a bagFirst we will discuss bal tashchit, the prohibition to destroy things that should be used. The classical formulation (Rambam, Melachim 6:10) is of a destructive action, but cases of wasting a usable resource, e.g., throwing out a salvageable cup of wine (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 170:22) are included. But the halacha, even regarding the most severe case of bal tashchit, cutting down fruit trees, is very balanced and practical – certain things are just not worthwhile to keep (see Bava Kama 91b; Living the Halachic Process VI, G-13). It is inappropriate and arguably forbidden to make ridiculous amounts of food and throw out the leftovers at meal’s end. However, making a little extra on purpose (appropriate for a mother or hostess) and sometimes having more leftovers than expected so that you do not succeed in finishing it, is not wasteful or forbidden. (Feeling compelled to finish to the point of eating unhealthily is certainly misguided.) Norms in society or segments therein and circumstances likely impact on what is considered illegitimately wasteful. Therefore while some view it is bal tashchit for a caterer to throw out large amounts of food at the end of an affair (Shevet Halevi IV:225), we agree with the approach that when there is no reasonably easy alternative (we encourage positive planning), it is not forbidden (Etz Hasadeh 35:(14) in the name of Rav Elyashiv). It is standard practice to protect “foods” with kedusha before placing them in a garbage. Examples include: teruma (see Derech Emunah, Terumot 2:(399)); hafrashat challa (see Minchat Yitzchak IV:13; kedushat shvi’it (see Yalkut Yosef, Shvi’it 15:13). Regular foods do not have “kedusha.” K’zayit-sized pieces of bread do not have kedusha per se, but their “higher status” makes it forbidden to “disgrace it” even if it does not cause “damage,” which does not apply to other foods (Berachot 50b). Some claim that throwing food in the garbage is doing something active to make it unfit to eat, and therefore one should not do so even if he will clearly anyway not be eating it or giving to another. In some ways, it is more stringent than teruma or challa, where we have an interest in prompt disposal to prevent someone from mistakenly eating it. Here it is possible to wait for it to deteriorate until it is inedible. (Indeed, Mishneh Halachot 15:64 says that putting food in a bag is not enough because the bag will not hold up in the garbage truck.) But this is not the minhag. Etz Hasadeh (35:(13)) cites a few contemporary poskim who require or recommend putting the food in a bag before throwing it into the garbage. But this too would be a new stringent practice, representing a big jump from arrangements to avoid marginal bizuy, which in the past were reserved for holy objects. It is best if we can provide logic and precedent to support the very broad minhag to throw leftovers directly into a garbage. The main idea is that normal practices of civilized people are not a disgrace. For example, while it is a disgrace to rub food on the skin instead of eating it, when it is normal (e.g., olive oil), it is permitted (Be’ur Halacha to 171:1). It is not that the need overcomes the problem, but that the fact that it is normal precludes its being disgraceful (ibid.). Also, we do put bags in our kitchen garbages, and the contents are mainly leftover food and used disposables, which are removed before decomposing occurs. Therefore, when there are not unseemly things inside, it is quite redundant (and a waste of non-biodegradable bags) to put each set of leftovers in a separate bag. You, however, received a p’sak with a basis (even though we view it as overly machmir), and you are bound by it (Rama, Yoreh Deah 242:31). The Logic Behind Marit AyinI don’t see consistency in how marit ayin is applied. There are cases that are forbidden where the likelihood of mistake seems remote, while cases I view as more problematic are permitted. Can you explain why that is?We will attempt a partial overview of the concept marit ayin, focusing on elements that help understand the phenomenon that troubles you. The laws of marit [ha]ayin forbid “Reuven” from doing otherwise permitted action A when people may think he did the similar B, when B is forbidden. Marit ayin is based on two concerns: 1. People who know B is forbidden may suspect that Reuven sinned. One must avoid chashad (people believing he sinned), as the Torah says: “You shall be “clean” [in the eyes] of Hashem and Israel” (Bamidbar 32:22, as understood by mishna, Shekalim 3:2). 2. People will think that if Reuven did B, it must be permitted. Rashi in some places (including Keritut 21b) cites #1 as the reason and in others (including Avoda Zara 12a) cites #2. Rashi’s dichotomy is among the indications that the two reasons complement each other. In some cases, Chazal may have felt that one of the reasons did not apply but the other did. For example, people do not often suspect a large group of people of openly sinning (see Rosh Hashana 24b). Regarding a marit ayin prohibition on something that looks like bowing down to an idol (Avoda Zara 12a), it is unlikely someone would think it is permitted to do so. So when should we say marit ayin? If one thinks it is very likely his actions will be misunderstood, creating violations or chashad, he should refrain from the action. However, what if there is only a modest chance? For such cases, we look to Chazal and poskim for guidance. Chazal forbade a few dozen cases due to marit ayin. Subsequently, it remains forbidden even when in a particular case the chance of mistake and/or chashad is small (e.g., one lives in a very religious, knowledgeable, and trusting community). If the whole basis for the prohibition disappears, we generally suspend the prohibition. For example, the gemara (Avoda Zara 20b) says that one must not rent out his bathhouse to a non-Jew to operate on Shabbat because usually a bathhouse’s workers were wage-earning employees (forbidden on Shabbat). However, in a society in which they are commonly profit-sharers, it is permitted (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 243:2). A minority of poskim equate marit ayin more closely to other Rabbinic prohibitions in regard to the prohibition continuing after the reason no longer applies (Pleiti 12:2). There is a fundamental machloket, crucial to your question, as to whether post-Talmudic poskim can create a marit ayin prohibition in the type of case in which Chazal likely would have. The Kneset Hagedola forbids using matza meal to coat food because it looks like it is made with flour (he knew of a case of incorrect “copying”). The Pri Chadash (OC 461:2) argues that we cannot make our own Rabbinical prohibitions (and that isolated mistakes cannot be avoided). We do find some post-Talmudic marit ayin prohibitions, but many of them follow a common construct. The gemara (Kritut 21b) forbids eating collected fish “blood” because it resembles forbidden (animal) blood. The Rashba (III:257) extends this concept (as opposed to creating a new marit ayin prohibition) to not combining mother’s milk with meat. Poskim extend the idea of confusing types of food to not putting “almond milk” into meat (see Rama YD 87:3 and Shach ad loc. 6 about whether it applies to poultry, which is only “Rabbinic meat”). Regarding these extensions of a Talmudic marit ayin prohibition, we care about what is and is not confusing in our times/places. Therefore, Rav Ovadia Yosef (Yabia Omer VI, YD 8) says that synthetic milk is common enough for it not to be suspicious to serve it with coffee after a meat meal; we do the same with pareve ice cream. In summary, the main reason marit ayin is not always applied according to our logic is because we usually do so by comparison to Talmudic precedents and not just contemporary society. When to Top the Bagel?At a brit, I said Hamotzi on a bagel, and after taking a bite, put on cream cheese and lox. A friend corrected me, claiming that Halacha requires that the first bite, which connects to the beracha, should be done when it is in its optimal form, so that after the beracha, one should cut open the bagel, put on the toppings, and then eat. Could that be?We attribute great religious significance to berachot (see Bava Kama 30a), and therefore try to do things the best way, even though almost no “mistake” here would be a real problem. The competing values involved here make it necessary to appraise net gains and losses. Your system (not putting toppings until after eating) maximizes two values: 1. Making Hamotzi on a complete “loaf” (Berachot 39b; Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 167:1). 2. Minimizing any break between the beracha and the eating (Shulchan Aruch ibid.). Your friend’s system prioritizes #1 and: 3. The bread should be in an optimal form when taking the first bite (ibid. 5). Let us look at each rule and the interaction between them. When one chooses on what bread to make a beracha, its being “whole” is one of the most important factors (Shulchan Aruch, OC 168:1). Prioritizing this versus minimizing the break between the beracha and eating may be a machloket of Amoraim. Rabbi Chiya (Berachot 39a) says that one should break off from the loaf the piece of bread he will eat as he finishes the beracha to minimize the time lapse (Tzelach ad loc.), even though the beracha does not finish with a whole loaf. We pasken like Rava (ibid.), who instructs keeping it whole until the beracha is complete even though this requires a small break to sever the piece after the beracha. It is a worthwhile delay to put some salt or spread on the bread before eating (Shulchan Aruch, OC 167:5). If the bread is of low quality or seasoning, one should put on salt; if it is of a high level, this is unnecessary, but it is permitted (Mishna Berura 167:29) despite the short, food-related break. This does not mean that we do not care about such breaks between the beracha and eating. Actually, the Shulchan Aruch (ibid. 1) instructs to cut the loaf partially before the beracha to save the extra time (I estimate 3-4 seconds) to cut the loaf to that point (Mishna Berura 167:4). In order to not lose the wholeness, semi-cut sections must be such that if one lifts the bread from the smaller part, the weight of the heavier part will not cause it to sever. This still somewhat compromises the completeness of the unit, as we see that on Shabbat, where the wholeness is a requirement of lechem mishneh, we do not cut to that extent (Rama, OC 167:1). Still this time-saving technique is deemed worthwhile. While these few seconds would not invalidate the beracha, it is best to avoid them. While we have seen that improving the taste of the bread can justify a break, your friend expanded the rule in two ways: 1. By not sufficing with a little salt or sauce but adding all the bagel’s toppings you are planning to eat during the meal. 2. By extending the 3-4 second break to add salt to 20-30 seconds for cutting and spreading cream cheese and lox all over the bagel. I have not found a source nor see compelling logic to make these extensions at the expense of waiting. The Mishna Berura (167:27, 29) also implies not to allow such a break, as he mentions allowing a longer break only between netilat yadayim and the beracha. We thus reject your friend’s approach and see yours as the straightforward one. One benefit that your friend’s approach offers relates to the preference to eat a reasonable amount of bread soon after the beracha (Mishna Berura 167:15). Some people initially have a tiny piece of bagel and then go to get lox and perhaps strike up a conversation before eating “for real.” But in this case, the solution with the benefits and no serious drawbacks is to top your bagel with it cut partially (see above) before the beracha. Then, the beracha is on a whole bagel, at its tastiest, and there is no break. But your way is fine too. The Transition From Shabbat Into Tisha B’AvCould you please explain how to handle the transition from Shabbat into Tisha B’Av (when it falls on Motzaei Shabbat) regarding se’uda shlishit, Havdala, and changing clothes?Se’uda shlishit: The baraita, quoted in Ta’anit 29a says that one may eat as extravagant a meal as he wants on Shabbat even if Tisha B’Av falls on that day or the next. The Tur (Orach Chayim 552) cites customs that one is allowed and would do best to curtail the Shabbat meal. This is especially so at se’uda shlishit, which is, in effect, the se’uda hamafseket. However, these considerations are countered by the need to avoid displaying mourning on Shabbat. Therefore, there are no real restrictions, even at se’uda shlishit (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 552:10). However, the mood should somewhat reflect the coming of Tisha B’Av, as long as it does not bring on clearly noticeable changes (Mishna Berura 552:23). One important halachic requirement is that one must finish eating before sunset (Rama ad loc.). Havdala: One says Havdala in Shemoneh Esrei. Havdala over a cup of wine is done after Tisha B’Av (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 556:1). Despite these facts, if one forgot to mention Havdala in Shemoneh Esrei, he does not repeat Shemoneh Esrei. Rather, the declaration of HaMavdil, which enables one to do actions that are forbidden on Shabbat, suffices (Mishna Berura 556:2). Unlike Havdala during the Nine Days, where we try to give the wine to a child rather than an adult (Rama, Orach Chayim 551:10), after Tisha B’Av, an adult can freely drink the Havdala wine (Mishna Berura 556:3). The beracha on besamim is not recited this week because it is always recited only on Motzaei Shabbat, and on Tisha B’Av it is not appropriate because it is supposed to serve as a pleasure that revives the soul. The beracha on the fire is specific to Motzaei Shabbat, is not a pleasure, and does not require a cup. Therefore, the minhag is to recite it in shul toward the end of davening, before the reading of Eicha (Mishna Berura 556:1). There are those who say that a woman should, in general, avoid making Havdala. This is because of the doubt whether a woman is obligated in the beracha on the fire, which is not directly related to Shabbat and thus is a regular time-related mitzva, from which women are exempt (Bi’ur Halacha 296:8). Therefore, if one’s wife will not be in shul at the time of the beracha, it is better for the husband not to fulfill the mitzva at that time, but to make the beracha on the fire at a time that his wife can hear it (Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 62:(98)). Taking off shoes: As we mentioned, one may not do a noticeable act of mourning before Shabbat is over. While finishing to eat before sunset or refraining from washing need not be noticeable, taking off shoes is. There are two minhagim as to when to take them off: 1) One waits until after Shabbat is out, says HaMavdil, and then changes clothes and goes to shul. One can do so a little earlier than the regular time listed for Shabbat being out, which is usually delayed a little bit beyond nightfall to allow for a significant adding on to Shabbat at its end. The exact time is not clear and depends on the latitude of one’s location. It is advisable to start Ma’ariv a little late in order to allow those who take this approach to make it to shul (Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 62:40; Torat HaMo’adim 9:1). (If the rabbi has ruled that everyone should take the following approach, all should conform, and there is no need for such a delay). 2) One takes off his shoes after Barchu of Ma’ariv. One who takes the second approach should bring non-leather footwear and Eicha/Kinot books to shul before Shabbat to avoid the problem of hachana (preparations for after Shabbat). However, if one uses these sefarim somewhat in shul before Shabbat is out, he can bring them with him on Shabbat (Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata ibid. 41). Homeopathic Remedies on ShabbatIs it permitted to ingest homeopathic remedies on Shabbat?We start with our approach to “alternative medicine,” which includes homeopathy (some use the terms interchangeably). Alternative medicine is subject to disagreement, from the grass roots to health agencies. As in most realms, extreme opinions are likely incorrect. Some treatments under the umbrella of alternative medicine are helpful; others are quackery and serve as a placebo at best (although sometimes placebos are useful). The efficacy or even safety of some medicines and treatments (homeopathic or conventional) is uncertain or varies from person to person. We are not in the position to take a stand on which treatments fall into which category. For the purpose of this general question, we will treat the remedy in question as one to which the user legitimately attributes medicinal efficacy and about which the objective observer is rightly skeptical. It is prohibited to perform medical procedures, including ingesting medicine, to cure or calm a non-severe malady (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 328:37). The rationale is concern that one who is involved in such activity might violate Shabbat in the process, i.e., by grinding herbs (Shabbat 53b). The cases in which the prohibition does not apply fall into two broad categories: 1. When the need justifies certain halachic compromises (see Shulchan Aruch ibid. 17). Nafal l’mishkav (needing to lie down) is a classic description of such need (Rama, OC 328:37). 2. When the procedure is not considered dealing with illness or is otherwise dissimilar from cases in which there is a concern of chillul Shabbat. In category #1, since normal Halacha is compromised, the steps taken must be truly warranted. Therefore, the Magen Avraham (328:1) allows chillul Shabbat to save a life only if the medicine is known (not theorized) to be effective (based on the Rama, Yoreh Deah 155:3 regarding eating non-kosher medicine). Therefore, even if someone is sick or suffering enough to allow medicine, he should not be allowed to use a homeopathic medicine if that is not scientifically accepted (as Halacha grants medical experts authority to determine the medical situation in a given case (Shulchan Aruch, OC 328:10)). However, our case is different from the Magen Avraham’s in a couple of ways. On the one hand, there the need is to save a life, which brought the Pri Megadim (ad loc.) to ask why one may not try even an otherwise forbidden treatment of unknown efficacy if it is the only chance at survival. On the other hand, the violations to be waived are of a Torah level, whereas here we only need to waive a Rabbinic violation, so might even an unproven remedy not suffice? Actually, the Pri Megadim says that is specifically by a Rabbinic prohibition and not life-threatening illness that we need a proven medicine. Might one argue that if the medicine is legitimate, it should be permitted based on need, and if it is not, it should be permitted because it is a non-medicine? Halachic logic dictates that it is not the status of medicine that causes the prohibition but that a sick person is searching for a cure that is close enough to cases of possible chillul Shabbat. In that way, homeopathic medicine is no better than conventional medicine. Therefore, we believe that most homeopathic (see Shevet Halevi V:55) and other unproven treatments are forbidden on Shabbat (we will not get into defining what activities might be outside the realm of medicine and therefore permitted – see Mishna Berura 306:36). If one wants to use them for nagging situations that are not nafal l’mishkav, standard medicines are also problematic. Usually little is lost if one takes doses right before and after Shabbat. Presumably, one can use the leniency of inserting the medicine into a food or drink so that it is indiscernible before Shabbat and then eating on Shabbat (see Shulchan Aruch, ibid. 21; Orchot Shabbat 20:131). In unique cases, one who perceives great need and no alternatives should contact his rabbi and/or doctor. Air Conditioner Drain Pipe during ShemittaIn preparation for the upcoming Shemitta year, should I reroute my air conditioner drain pipe so that it does not drip in an area around vegetation?While watering is not one of the four melachot that are forbidden by the Torah on Shemitta (planting/sewing, pruning, reaping, and harvesting), watering is forbidden Rabbinically (Mo’ed Katan 3a). Let us first see what the halacha would be if this watering were happening on Shabbat. While one is allowed to do action A to get the permitted result A even if it might unintentionally cause forbidden result B, it is forbidden from the Torah if action A will certainly cause result B (p’sik reishei – Shabbat 75a). On the other hand, there is an important machloket about whether p’sik reishei is forbidden even if one has no interest in the result (lo nicha lei) and the prohibition is only Rabbinic. The Terumat Hadeshen (64) is lenient and the Magen Avraham (314:5), it is forbidden. While some poskim rule leniently (Yabia Omer V, OC 28), the standard ruling is to be stringent (Mishna Berura 314:11). However, here there are additional reasons to be lenient. One is that the fact that the water comes out of the pipe at a distance from the place of the main activity. Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata (12:(51)) posits that this is considered the equivalent of gerama (indirect causation) and be permitted even in a p’sik reishei. There are various reasons to be more lenient regarding Shemitta. The simplest is that we can throw in an additional reason that there is no Torah prohibition involved, and that is because we usually assume that Shemitta in our days is only Rabbinic in any case (Rav Kook, introduction to Shabbat Ha’aretz; Chazon Ish, Shvi’it 3:8). This is not infrequently used as the rationale for relatively lenient rulings on matters of Shemitta. The more fundamental question is whether Shemitta should be forbidden at all when there is no intention for agricultural gain by one’s action. Let us start with the gemara in Sanhedrin (26a). Reish Lakish saw one cutting off a branch from a grapevine and criticized him for pruning. Others responded that perhaps he just needed a vine branch for tying something down. Tosafot (ad loc.) asks what difference did it make what his intentions were if he did an act of pruning and answers that it was talking about a case in which it was not beneficial. The simple reading of Tosafot implies that the intention for something else would not help when the action is agriculturally positive. The Aruch Hashulchan He’atid (Shemitta 19:22) assumes this approach. The Chazon Ish (Shvi’it 19:14) posits that regarding a case of no intention whatsoever for improvement, there is no fundamental violation of Shemitta, and if done in a manner in which this is clear, it is permitted. Therefore, in a case like putting on an air-conditioner, where it is absolutely clear that his action’s intent is unrelated to watering plants outside, it is permitted. The logic can be as Rav Yisraeli (Eretz Hemdah I, additional pieces to Shaar II:2) presents to explain the Rambam’s leniency about doing work in a field that is not his own. The nature of the prohibitions on Shemitta are not innate but require one to refrain from actions that show his dominion over his land. Therefore, even if a melacha was technically performed, if it was in a way that is unrelated to treating his agricultural land as his own, it is permitted. Rav Chaim Kanievsky (Derech Emunah, Shvi’it 1:2:(18) cites Rav Elyashiv as forbidding having the air-conditioner drip on an area with vegetation, which apparently rejects all of the leniencies above as well as the confluence of all of them. However, we agree with Minchat Asher (Shvi’it p. 25) who says that one need not be concerned about the air conditioner drip. (He adds that the way the water drips, often from well above on one spot could even be not good for whatever is growing below.) He also reports a discussion with Rav Kanievsky, in which he too agreed to be lenient when one’s intention is not to thereby water the garden. Buying Land for ShemittaA group provides the opportunity to buy agricultural land in Israel for the Shemitta year. Is that worthwhile?We start with an overview of the agricultural mitzvot of Shemitta along with a brief analysis of the significance of obtaining land ownership. The Rambam (Lo Ta’aseh 220-223) lists four such negative commandments, about: 1) working the land; 2) tending to the trees; 3) reaping the produce in the normal way; 4) harvesting fruit of the trees in the normal way. The prohibition of working the land applies even to one who does not own the land. There is a machloket whether there is a Torah prohibition on harvesting someone else’s field (Chazon Ish, Shvi’it 12:5 is lenient; Rav Auerbach, Ma’adanei Eretz 7:4 is stringent). In any case, the reward for refraining from aveirot is a function of the availability of and the temptation toward the aveira (see Kiddushin 39b with Rashi). One who owns a distant, small piece of land is not tempted to work it. Just as we would not suggest buying a donkey and bull to refrain from plowing with them together, the above is not a reason to obtain land before Shemitta. The positive mitzvot are more pertinent. There is a machloket Rishonim whether the positive state of cessation from working the land (Rambam, Aseh 135) is a function of an individual’s work irrespective of ownership (Rambam, Shemitta 1:1) or whether it is a landowner’s responsibility to ensure his field is not worked (Ritva, Avoda Zara 15b). A third approach holds Jews responsible to save the land from being worked, including by redeeming it from non-Jews who may work it (Netziv, Vayikra 25:4). According to the Rambam, obtaining land is not a factor in creating the positive fulfillment. According to the Ritva, buying creates an opportunity to fulfill the mitzva. According to the Netziv (whose opinion is not standard), the mitzva entails obtaining land that would otherwise be worked. There is also a mitzva to deal properly with the fruit of trees and other things planted before Shemitta, including treating them as ownerless (Aseh 134). While certain elements of the halachot of what to do with the fruit can also be fulfilled by non-landowners in Israel (beyond out present scope), buying a field certainly enhances the buyer’s ability to fulfill this mitzva. Another gain of buying land is helping farmers keep Shemitta properly. Rav Kook (see his introduction to Shabbat Ha’aretz) and all other poskim who supported the heter mechira, did so for those who were unwilling or unable (without extreme financial hardship) to keep the mitzva as designed. Thus buying land from them helps interested farmers survive without needing to rely on the reluctantly provided leniencies. This is similar to giving ma’ot chitim to one who cannot afford mehadrin Pesach provisions or donating to “halachically improve” a mikveh. (One who rejects the heter mechira would view it as saving people from actual sin.) If the farmer would anyway not work the land, but with financial difficulty, buying from him is supporting a deserving person. If one purchases the field at its value (including overhead), it is proper to not use ma’aser kesafim money, which is not for personal mitzvot one can afford (see Tzedaka U’mishpat 6:1). A donation (without buying land, or the part of the price that is beyond the land’s value) to an organization that helps farmers may be taken from ma’aser money (see ibid. 10). While there are wonderful organizations to help with all sorts of tzedaka and mitzva needs, sometimes there are people “in the field” who plan to earn a lot of money in the process of providing a “quick mitzva fix.” We therefore recommend that one check that he is either paying a modest fee for land ownership, if those elements speak to him, or better yet, joining up with known organizations that help farmers and enhance the observance of Shemitta, with or without technically buying a small plot of land. Tevila of Something that Turns into a “Meal Utensil”I received an ornamental honey dispenser and glass plate. I want to use the plate every Shabbat to hold challa rolls for lechem mishneh. Does it require tevilat keilim, assuming that it was made by a non-Jew(ish company)?You correctly imply that you could use the plate for its intended purpose without tevilat keilim, as we will illustrate. The gemara (Avoda Zara 75b) posits that only “klei seuda” (utensils for meals) require tevila, and the poskim understand that it must be used to come in direct contact with food, as opposed to serving/touching a utensil that holds food (Shulchan Aruch, Yoreh Deah 120:4), e.g., the plate for the dispenser. What happens when something is designed for a purpose to which tevila does not apply but is now being used for a purpose that requires it, e.g., a plate for bread. The Rama (YD 120:8, based on the Issur V’heter 58:85), says that if one bought and uses a knife for cutting parchment, he may not use it, even occasionally, for cutting food. Most of the classic commentaries of the Shulchan Aruch/Rama seem to accept this ruling. On the other hand, the Pri Chadash (ad loc. 19) argues, invoking a (not unanimous) rule (see Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 451:6) regarding the companion halachot of hechsher keilim (kashering) that determinations of status follow the majority of usage. Here, says the Pri Chadash, all should agree that if the majority of usage is such that does not require tevilat keilim, it is not required. The two opinions likely disagree as to the heart of tevilat keilim – is it the mitzva to do the tevila or the lack of permission to use the kli before tevila. Logically, the mitzva should depend on the overall status, but not using without tevila could apply to even sporadic usage. Our chakira likely gives us the opposite outcome in a case where a kli requires tevila but one wants to use it beforehand for a non-seuda use. If it the main point is the usage prohibition, this is likely only relevant to seuda uses. If the main thing is a tevila obligation, then it might be necessary to not use it for anything before discharging one’s obligation. See Chelkat Binyamin (p. 284) for opinions on this matter. As far as practical halacha is concerned, Chelkat Binyamin (120:68) finds it difficult to ignore the near consensus of the classical poskim who requiring tevila before any seuda usage. He also does not dismiss the Pri Chadash and therefore advocates not making a beracha on that tevila. Rav Zvi Cohen (Hagalat Keilim 1:2) rules like the Pri Chadash regarding keilim whose purpose is not as a kli seuda, as the Aruch Hashulchan (YD 120:40) agrees fundamentally and this is apparently the more prevalent practice. There is also more room for leniency regarding a glass utensil, where the maximum obligation is Rabbinic (see Hagalat Keilim 1:3; see Chochmat Adam 73:8 regarding a similar context)) or when there are other grounds for exemption. Women Doing Work on ChanukaIs the minhag of some women to curtail work on Chanuka binding? When exactly does it apply, and what type of work is included?Assuming either one’s community or family has the minhag of women refraining from work on Chanuka, which existed broadly from the time of the Rishonim (see Tur, Orach Chayim 670; Orchot Chayim, Chanuka 21), it should normally be kept. However, various reasons are given for it, and there are great differences of opinion as to when, to what, and even to whom it applies. The opinions in each of the questions also impact on other questions. Some early sources also describe it as a grass-roots minhag, which makes it less predictable and rigorously consistent. The reasons given for the minhag are: 1. Orchot Chayim ibid. – as a reminder that one may not benefit from the Chanuka candles (or out of concern the candles will go out and one will be using them). 2. Levush, OC 670:1 – it was made like a Yom Tov so people will not take their minds off the miracle. These reasons do not explain a distinction between men and women, and there are opinions that it also applies to men (Maharil, Chanuka 11, as understood by Eliya Rabba 670:11; the Mishna Berura 670:3 reports that in some places men also refrain). However, this is not the recommended (Shulchan Aruch, OC 670:1) or common practice. Some claim that women doing work are more likely to use the Chanuka candles (Mor U’ktzia, OC 670), but it is more accepted that it is because of women’s place of honor in the miracle of Chanuka, through Yehudit (Magen Avraham 670:1 based on Mateh Moshe, Chanuka 994). (One can explain that women’s feeling of connection caused them to accept it or that it is objectively proper, because of women’s virtue, to connect them to the celebration and even have a “vacation,” like some say regarding Rosh Chodesh (see Shibolei Leket 184; Tur, OC 417).) According to most opinions, the minhag applies only as long as the candles are required to be lit (Mishna Berura 670:4), i.e., a half hour, which is when there is a prohibition of benefit (see Shulchan Aruch, OC 672:2 and Mishna Berura ad loc. 7-8). Some say it is as long as they are still lit (implication of Shulchan Aruch, OC 670:1), or perhaps as long as the lights in shul are expected to be lit (Magen Avraham 670:2). The latter opinions work better with the idea of women’s connection or creating a Yom Tov to focus on Chanuka’s significance. There was a minhag for women to refrain from work for all of Chanuka, which is maligned as unhealthy (Orchot Chaim ibid.), but some say it is reasonable to do so on the first and last day, as we find on Yom Tov (ibid.). This again does not work with the idea of benefit from the candles, but certainly this is not a common minhag. Regarding what is prohibited, logically if it is related to benefit from the candles, it could apply to any work, and if women treat this time like a Yom Tov, it would be no broader than the restrictions of Yom Tov or probably even Chol Hamo’ed (Shraga Hameir VI:87). According to the latter approach, it would be permitted to cook, which is the prevalent minhag (Mikraei Kodesh 1:5). The consensus is to allow melacha that is trivial from a work perspective (e.g., turning on lights), unless perhaps if they are in the context of “major work,” such as turning on the washing machine (see Rivevot Ephrayim VI:409.2). Certainly those who practice a long time of restriction do so only in regard to major jobs, but the claim of some that the minhag in Yerushalayim is to refrain from virtually everything to keep focused on the candles is practical because they refer only to a period of around a half hour (see P’ninei Chanuka (Q&A with Rav Elyashiv), p. 131-3; Rivevot Ephrayim I:436). We would recommend to everyone to follow her minhag, but many are confused about its details and, on such a matter, can choose. One should not be machmir if it will create tension or take away from her (family’s) Chanuka joy. She should also spell out at least mentally that she does not want it to be a neder. Giving Away Orla FruitI have a tree in its second year, so that its fruit is orla. Can I suggest to my non-Jewish worker to take it?It is not only forbidden to eat orla fruit but even to benefit from them. The main non-eating benefits discussed regarding issurei hana’ah are physical (e.g., using orla for paint or fuel – Pesachim 22b), feeding animals (ibid. 22a) and selling. The Rambam (Ma’achalot Assurot 8:16) forbids giving issurei hana’ah to non-Jews as a present. The Kolbo (92) points out that this prohibition is implicit, according to some, in the Torah’s formulation of the prohibition of neveila (meat of an animal that was not shechted properly) – one must not eat it but give it to a non-Jew who enjoys special standing (ger toshav) or sell it to another non-Jew (Devarim 14:21). Rav Avahu (Pesachim 21b) learns, according to R. Meir, that had it been forbidden to benefit from neveila, it would have been forbidden to give it to a non-Jew. The logic is that giving presents causes reciprocity in some way/time, making the present a cause of benefit to the giver, and this is expanded to less direct cases. The Rama (Yoreh Deah 294:8) forbids helping a non-Jew pick his orla fruit, even for free, because the owner will be grateful. There is more room for leniency when the benefit is indirect. For one, the Avnei Nezer (Orach Chayim 489) posits that if one did not intend to enjoy the recipient’s gratefulness, it is permitted to provide him the orla. However, it is difficult for one who gives a present to determine he has no intention for beneficial good will, and such a situation can also create other halachic problems (ibid.), which it is unclear how easy it is to overcome (see Beit She’arim, OC 61; Chatam Sofer, Avoda Zara 64b). The way to do things is not to present the orla as a gift, but to make your worker aware of the situation. Explain that you must not benefit from the fruit, that if no one takes them you will throw them out, and therefore you have nothing to lose (and even a little toil to gain) if someone, including him, takes them. The following is the main source that allowing people to take issurei hana’ah, as opposed to giving a gift, is permitted. The mishna (Bava Kama 108b-109a) rules on one whose father used a neder to preclude his son from benefit from his property, and then the father died, and the son inherited the property. The son may indeed not benefit from the property, but he can direct it to his relative who may benefit from it. The Ran (Nedarim 47a) asks why this transfer of the property to the person of the son’s choice is not forbidden benefit. The Ran answers that the son is not allowed to give it to them regularly. Rather, he is to explain to them that he cannot use it himself, and therefore, from his perspective, they may as well take it. The Shach (YD 223:4) accepts this Ran, including that the son must mention that he has no use for the property. If you do so regarding the orla, it should work for you as well. There are times that one may not give to a non-Jew, an object that is forbidden for Jews out of a concern that it will end up in the hands of Jews who will not realize the object’s status (see Avoda Zara 65b). However, this is not a broad concern, at least regarding things that people know need a kashrut check. Regarding orla, the gemara (Avoda Zara 21a)) and Shulchan Aruch (YD 294:14) allow people, in preparation of their trees producing orla, to sell or have a partnership with a non-Jew so that the non-Jew gets the fruit during the years of orla and the Jew gets them afterward. Rav Kook (Mishpat Kohen 6) says that such actions are permitted because they were done before the prohibited fruit existed, which would imply that at the stage you refer to, it would be a problem to make such fruit available. However, he discussed transferring an orchard of orla, which is meant for commercial use, which may go to Jews, as opposed to your small amount of fruit meant for personal consumption. The fact that you will mention that Jews may not eat it is also helpful. Using Hot Water on ShabbatMay I use my hot water on Shabbat since I have the boiler on a timer to go on every morning before I wake up? (My hands are arthritic; in the winter it is hard to wash with cold water.) If this arrangement is unacceptable, please suggest a permitted one.There are two problems with extracting hot water from the faucet when the water is heated by an electric boiler. One is that it will cause the thermostat to heat water sooner than it would have had you not used it. This is a problem in terms of connecting an electric circuit, and, more importantly, that a glowing filament or a gas flame will go on, as well as cold water being heated in the process. All of the latter involve Torah-level Shabbat melachot. It is a complicated question whether there is a Torah-level violation for the person who takes out the water, as the normally delayed reaction makes it likely that it is a form of gerama (indirect causation). We will not go further into this interesting question because you describe your system as off when you want to use it, until the end of Shabbat. The other problem that occurs when you extract hot water from the tank is that cold water rushes into the tank to take its place and mixes in with the remaining hot water. The systems are designed in such a manner that the cold water enters on the bottom, whereas the hot water (due to the physical properties of heat rising and hot water being less dense than cold water) for the most part stays on top and does not fully heat the cold water below. However, it can be assumed that if the hot water is hot enough, at least a small amount of the cold water will reach the forbidden level of yad soledet bo (113°F, 45°C). Even in this case, there is some amount of leniency in that you do not place the cold water in the hot water tank but it goes in based on properties of physics after you open up your tap (see Yabia Omer IV, Orach Chayim 35). However, at least under normal circumstances, it is forbidden to remove water from a hot-water tank (Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 1:39). If you were referring to a tank that had only solar-heated hot water in it, then this would very likely be permitted (see the famous leniency and its partial withdrawal in Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata (ed. I, 1:31, and ed. II 1:45), as water heated by the sun is not fundamentally deemed to cook other things (Shabbat 39a). But, here too, we will be brief because this is not your case. There are several practical ways to obtain lukewarm water. One is to not have the heating system go on on Shabbat and prepare things before Shabbat so that the water left in the tank does not heat the incoming cold water to yad soledet bo. Based on the physics discussed above, if you remove a nice amount of hot water before Shabbat after shutting off the heating system, the incoming water will not come in contact with hot water (Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata ed. I, ibid.). Another way to have warm water is to use a different source of hot water. If you remove hot water from a Shabbat urn, you can use it to create warm water in a container in two different ways. Many are used to using an extra cup in order to have a kli shlishi in which they put their tea, as many poskim (see Igrot Moshe, OC IV:74.15; Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 1:57 is slightly more stringent) posit that kli shilishi does not cook even kalei habishul (easily cooked food). However, regarding water, all agree that it is permitted to put it into a kli sheini (Shabbat 40b; Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 318:13), so that the extra cup is unnecessary. (Just as when making tea, one should make sure that there is not a small amount of (never heated) water in the cup before pouring into the kli sheini (Igrot Moshe ibid. 19). If there is a nice amount of cold water in a cup one can pour in a small amount of hot water if the resulting mixture will clearly be less hot than yad soledet bo (Rama, OC 318:12; Mishna Berura ad loc. 84). This is a good idea only if one is confident he will remember to be careful about the amount. Sheva Berachot Every Day of Sheva Berachot?Is it necessary, proper, or at least recommended to have a sheva berachot celebration every day of the week of Sheva Berachot?We have to present as full a picture as possible to appreciate the nuances here. What we call the week of “Sheva Berachot” (=SB) the gemara (Ketubot 4a) calls “the seven days of mishteh (feasting).” This period focuses on a state of simcha and of giving thanks to Hashem (see Ketubot 7a). The most basic part of the simcha is the chatan and kalla spending quality time together (Shulchan Aruch, Even Haezer 64:1). However, the involvement of others in festive meals is also important. For one, a minyan and panim chadashot are required to recite the sheva berachot (=sb) at Birkat Hamazon (Ketubot 7b). More fundamentally, we see from the halacha that a chatan and his entourage are exempt from eating in a sukka throughout SB that having a nice amount of appropriate co-celebrants is a significant consideration, especially at the time of eating (Sukka 25b and Meiri ad loc.). Poskim broadly assume that there is no full obligation to have sb every day of SB. Many quote Rav Pe’alim (IV, EH 6), and his main source is Ketubot 7b. The baraita states that the sb are recited with a minyan “all seven days,” but Rav Yehuda makes this conditional on the presence of panim chadashot. The Rav Pe’alim infers from the gemara that one is not responsible to bring panim chadashot to have a complete sb. It is possible to argue that the existence of a nicely attended party (which provides the simcha) is a given, and the variable is whether the party needs the possibility of reciting the berachot. However, Acharonim generally understand that although when sb is held, it is a seudat mitzva, there is no halachic requirement to have sb every day of SB (Aruch Hashulchan, OC 640:14; Nitei Gavriel, Nisuin 83;3; Bemareh Habazak VII:96). The Aruch Hashulchan (late 19th century, Eastern Europe) reports that it was standard to have only a few sb. He admits that this was not as Chazal’s envisioned SB but explains that the difficult national climate in a difficult exile has worn us out to the point that it is hard to celebrate too much. The Yam Shel Shlomo (Ketubot 1:12) provides similar comments hundreds of years earlier. He justifies halachically that since these meals are in the kalla’s honor, she may waive her right to them. The Nitei Gavriel (contemporary) says that in our times there is a minhag to try to have sheva berachot every day, except when this proves too difficult. Hanisuim K’hilchatam (15:7) relates to the matter similarly but slightly less forcefully. In Bemareh Habazak, we wrote similarly that there is no obligation but that we encourage doing a nice amount of sb. We will demonstrate a nuanced difference with the help of Sukkot. The mitzva of sukka applies continually during the 168 hours of Sukkot. The more time in the sukka the better, and this applies more or less equally throughout the chag. Regarding lulav, it must be taken each day but Shabbat, but each day, once one finishes doing what needs to be done, there is thereafter little value in taking it more. Nitei Gavriel understands the present-day minhag/preference in terms of one each day, like lulav. In Bemareh Habazak, we talk of a nice amount of celebrating, without stressing if it covers each day. The minhag seems to be to try to align the sb by halachic day, but this is just a preference. Logically, having the most meaningful experience is more important, and one should not get carried away trying to conform to the each-day minhag. There is an additional element besides our general belief in following minhag. While older sources discuss the chatan’s obligation to arrange his SB, now family and friends do it. Once an act to honor others becomes standard, one who receives sub-standard is likely to be insulted or disappointed. Therefore, while on the one hand, many couples appear to benefit from extra rest and privacy, it is still generally an expected chesed for their loved ones to make the standard amount of sb. Beracha on Vegetable Soup with Soup NutsWhat beracha/ot do I make on vegetable soup into which I put soup nuts?There are too many permutations to cover, but we will concentrate on the principles and the main cases and give you a few references to sources dealing with related complexities. One of the major rules of berachot on food is that regarding foods with different berachot eaten “together” (which is hard to define in a phrase) we make the beracha of the “main” food (ikar) and are exempt from making the beracha on that which is subservient (tafel) to it (Berachot 41a). This is certainly true when the two foods are ingredients of one combined food, e.g., soups (ibid. 36a). It is far from trivial to determine what the main ingredient is in vegetable soups that have a majority of water, cooked vegetables (in a variety of forms), and sometimes, some chicken or meat (see Living the Halachic Process, vol. VI, B-2,3). We will assume for the purpose of this question that the beracha on the soup without the soup nuts is Borei Pri Ha’adama (=Ha’adama). We will also assume that the soup nuts are made from one the five main grains and that the way it is prepared, its individual beracha is Borei Minei Mezonot (=Mezonot) (V’zot Haberacha p. 397). One of the major determining factors of what the ikar is that we follow the majority of the mixture (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 208:7). However, a sub-rule of the laws of ikar and tafel is that if one of the ingredients is from the five grains in the form that its beracha is Mezonot, then even if it is significantly less than a majority of the mixture, the berachot are Mezonot with an after-beracha of Al Hamichya (Berachot 36b; Shulchan Aruch, ibid. 2). An exception to this sub-rule is when the purpose of the grain food is of an unimportant, technical nature, such as to make the other food stick together (ibid.; Mishna Berura 212:13) or to “stretch” the more expensive ingredients (e.g., bread crumbs in hamburgers). Therefore, the simple answer is that no matter what the nature of the soup is, if there are Mezonot soup nuts, then it apparently has some taste significance to the person who put them in, and the beracha on the soup is only Mezonot. This is true even if there may be spoonfuls of soup that happen not to have soup nuts in them, although one should be careful that the first spoonful, after making the beracha of the ikar, contain some of the ikar (Rama, OC 212:1 and Mishna Berura ad loc. 10). The situation is different when the soup nuts play a very minor role in the eating, which would most commonly occur when there are only a small number of them, so that one would make Ha’adama on the soup, as it is not subservient to the soup nuts. This is all the more so regarding soup nuts (as opposed to kneidlach that are cooked in the soup, which is a more complicated question), which are put into the soup in the bowl, after the soup was cooked independently (see Dirshu 205:18). On the other hand, because the soup nuts are from the main grains, they cannot be ignored, and therefore Mezonot is also called for (Mishna Berura 205:11). In such a case, it is better to make the beracha first on the soup without eating any soup nuts right away (even though usually Mezonot has precedence) because if we were to make Mezonot first, we would have a doubt whether the Ha’adama is required for the soup (Mishna Berura 208:23). One can also get out of doubt and/or keep the regular order of berachot if he takes out each element from the bowl and eats them separately (ibid. 205:11). This is easier and more logical to do with kneidlach than with soup nuts or noodles. Regarding the beracha acharona, in a case in which neither is batel to the other, we would also make each beracha separately, if one ate a k’zayit of each within the requisite time (Mishna Berura ibid.). It is agreed that if one had no interest in the soup nuts and some just happened to have fallen in, then they would be totally ignored (V’zot Haberacha, p. 117) and one would make just Ha’adama and Borei Nefashot on the soup. Weak Prohibition Vs. Beracha L’vatalaIf someone makes a beracha on a milchig food and then realizes that he is fleishig, should he eat a little of it to avoid a beracha l’vatala?The dilemma of choosing the lesser of two evils arises in many cases. The gemara (Shabbat 4a) rules that one who sticks dough to a hot oven’s wall on Shabbat should scrape it off (usually a Rabbinic prohibition) to save himself from the bigger aveira of chillul Shabbat, whether he placed it there purposely or by mistake (Mishna Berura 254:39). Thus, if beracha l’vatala is a bigger aveira than not waiting six hours between meat and milk, perhaps one should eat a little of the milchig food. (In Shabbat 4a, the baking is continuing during inaction.) The Rama (Orach Chayim 271:5) indeed rules that if one made a beracha on food before Havdala, he should eat. On the other hand, if a kohen puts teruma into his mouth and finds out it is forbidden food, he must spit it out (Rambam, Terumot 10:13, based on mishna, Terumot 8:2). Some say it is referring even to cases in which the teruma is only Rabbinically forbidden and even when he made a beracha and did not eat yet (see Michtav L’chizkiyahu I:5, regarding one who accepted upon himself not to eat before learning and made a beracha). After all, it is difficult to mandate positively doing a forbidden action to fix a problematic action already done accidentally (Michtav L’chizkiyahu ibid.). We could then learn that one may not eat even a little of Rabbinically forbidden food to avoid a beracha l’vatala (ibid.). How serious is a beracha l’vatala? The Rambam (Berachot 1:15, cited by the Shulchan Aruch, OC 215:4) describes it as a Torah prohibition of saying Hashem’s Name in vain. Tosafot (Rosh Hashana 33a) posits that it is Rabbinic (praising Hashem any time, any way, is not in vain), and many concur. It is not, then, clear that beracha l’vatala is worse than the forbidden eating. Also, the Rama relates to a case where the food is permitted, just one must wait until after Kiddush or Havdala, which may make it more lenient (see Tosafot, Pesachim 106b). Milk after meat is tricky to define. On the one hand, the milchig food is permitted. On the other hand, the prohibition is based on treating it like eating milk and meat mixed together i.e., a forbidden food, (Yechaveh Da’at IV:41). For another reason, eating some of the food might not help. One may not make a beracha on forbidden food (Shulchan Aruch, OC 196:1), so even if one ate the food, it may still be a beracha l’vatala. While the Rama felt it helped regarding eating before Havdala, the above distinction is relevant. Perhaps the beracha is not l’vatala on a permitted food before Havdala, but is l’vatala for Rabbinic meat-milk (Yechaveh Da’at ibid.). Even regarding a time-based minhag like fleishig food in the Nine Days, some opinions forbid eating even after the beracha was made (Yechaveh Da’at ibid.). However, our case has mitigating factors. It is far from a Torah-level prohibition since the foods are not cooked together and especially if the fleishig is poultry. Even Rabbinically, eating milchig after fleishig is forbidden explicitly only at the same meal (Chulin 105a). The strongest reason to be lenient (see Yechaveh Da’at ibid.) is that after an hour has passed, we are not even sure eating milchig is forbidden at all (see Rama, Yoreh Deah 89:1). Note that while one may not feed forbidden food to small children, the consensus is that waiting an hour after meat is enough. We found no one recommending using the beracha for a permitted food. Many rule that if one made a beracha on a food and it got lost before eating, he can use the beracha for another food, but only if it is the same type of food and it was before them during the beracha (Rama, OC 206:6; Mishna Berura 206:26). It is interesting that leniency on broadening the efficacy of the beracha is not the best alternative. In conclusion, we recommend that if an hour passed from eating meat, one should eat a little of the milchig food; within an hour, one should just recite “Baruch shem …” Interrupting Shabbat Meal for Shema/SefiraWhen we make early Shabbat, is it better, when nighttime falls, to recite Kri’at Shema and sefirat ha’omer during the meal or to wait until after the meal?We will be assuming you were correct in starting the meal. To make that clear cut, you should have started the meal at least a half-hour before the optimal time for these recitations, which is tzeit hakochavim (Mishna Berura 267:6 regarding Kri’at Shema; ibid. 489:23 regarding sefirat ha’omer). Grounds for leniency to start eating after this point are beyond our present scope (see discussion in Piskei Teshuvot 489:16). The mishna (Shabbat 9b) says that we interrupt certain activities, including eating, in order to recite Kri’at Shema, but do not interrupt for tefilla, as only Kri’at Shema is a Torah-level obligation (Rashi ad loc.). The above refers to a case where he started when he should not have, but if he started early enough before the time for Kri’at Shema, he is not required to interrupt the meal (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 235:2, see Mishna Berura ad loc. 21). According to the Rama (OC 489:4), sefirat ha’omer is like Kri’at Shema – if he started eating when he should not have, he should interrupt the eating for sefirat ha’omer, but if he started when he was allowed to, sefirat ha’omer can wait until after he finishes eating. Sefirat ha’omer is treated as strictly in this regard as Kri’at Shema because of the opinion that sefirat ha’omer is a Torah-level mitzva even when there are no korbanot (Rambam, Temidin 7:24, as opposed to Tosafot, Menachot 66a), and/or because it is a minor disruption of the meal (Mishna Berura 489:25). When it is not required to interrupt, is it positive to do so anyway? The Yerushalmi (Shabbat 1:2) says regarding one who is not required to interrupt eating for Mincha, that if he voluntarily interrupts, we call him a hedyot (simpleton), like others who do things from which they are exempt. Many explanations are given as to why it might be objectionable to “go the extra mile” – it may be haughtiness, it can reflect poorly on those who follow the halacha as given, it can distort the true halacha (see opinions in Encyclopedia Talmudit, entry “Kol hapatur min hadavar v’oseihu”). This rule appears at odds with the common halachic rule that one who is more machmir than he needs to be is lauded as worthy of blessing, and many attempts are made to distinguish between various cases. Regarding the case of Mincha, which the Yerushalmi addressed, while some say that one who is unnecessarily stringent is called a hedyot (Magen Avraham 232:9), others question whether this is accepted (Be’ur Halacha to 232:2; see Divrei Yissachar 18). Regarding voluntarily stopping the meal for the generally more stringent Kri’at Shema and sefirat ha’omer, none of the major commentators raises the prospect of calling him a hedyot. There may be reasons to prefer a voluntary interruption of the meal specifically for sefirat ha’omer. We have seen already the idea that sefirat ha’omer is fulfilled with relative ease, as it does not require much of a break. Additionally, there is special importance to the concern that if he forgets to recite sefirat ha’omer that day, it might disqualify the entire mitzva (see Noda B’yehuda I, OC 27). On the other hand, the Sha’agat Aryeh (22) says that on Shabbat, when one is in the midst of a mandatory full meal, the obligation of Birkat Hamazon (50 + times a year) is more frequent (tadir) than sefirat ha’omer (49 times a year), which gives the former precedence regarding order. (It is unclear if this applies if one does not plan to bentch until much later). In this regard, Kri’at Shema is more common, and therefore has preference over both (ibid.). A Shul Kiddush as the “Third” MealCan I count the cake and other foods I eat at a “shul Kiddush,” followed by a regular Shabbat meal at home, as the second and third meals of Shabbat?The question arises only if one is lenient on what constitutes seuda shlishit. The gemara (Shabbat 117b) derives from the pasuk about the manna to be eaten on Shabbat (Shemot 16:25), which uses the word “hayom” (today) three times, that one should have three meals on Shabbat. The straightforward reading of the gemara is that the three meals are primarily equivalent. Since the first two Shabbat meals must include (two loaves of) bread (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 274:1; ibid. 289:1), we should expect the same for seuda shlishit. Indeed, this is the principle opinion of the Shulchan Aruch (OC 291:4-5), except when it is quite difficult (ibid.). On the other hand, the Shulchan Aruch (ibid.) cites as a minority opinion the possibility to fulfill seuda shlishit with foods other than bread. The Talmudic source for possible leniency is a gemara (Sukka 27a) about a rejected opinion about Sukkot. R. Eliezer says that one must eat fourteen meals on Sukkot and that if he missed one, he should eat an extra meal on the night of Shemini Atzeret. The gemara asks that the bread meal he has on Shemini Atzeret is for that day and answers that the hashlama (make-up meal) is by eating minei targima (there is a machloket exactly what that is – see Tosafot ad loc.) in addition to the regular meal. Tosafot (Berachot 49b) cites Rabbeinu Tam as learning from here that one does not need bread to be considered a modest halachic meal, for example, for seuda shlishit. Most Rishonim (see Beit Yosef, OC 291) say that at least seuda shlishit requires specifically bread because of the derivation from the manna. There are, though, those who do not have seuda shlishit with bread, and they have whom to rely upon. As mentioned, all agree that bread is required for the second Shabbat meal, even though cake is enough of a meal to give Kiddush its halachic status (Shulchan Aruch, OC 273:5). So, your regular meal is needed to count for the second meal. According to some, that meal must start before chatzot (Aruch Hashulchan, OC 288:2). If this meal started before the earliest time for Mincha (half an hour after chatzot), it is too early for seuda shlishit (Shulchan Aruch, OC 291:2), and even if it extends from morning to afternoon it cannot serve as both the second and third meals (see Levushei Srad ad loc.). Stopping the meal with Birkat Hamazon and then starting a new meal again, could be a potential possibility (see Shulchan Aruch, OC 291:3 and Mishna Berura ad loc. 14). However, this is presumably not a more attractive practical option than making a small seuda shlishit some time later. It is plausible to make the following halachic claim. Perhaps after having a proper daytime bread meal, we can say that the shul Kiddush constituted retroactively a third meal. While there is an expectation that there will be three meals at three different times of Shabbat (Rambam, Shabbat 30:9), perhaps the important thing is that at the end, fulfilling all of the requirements (two full meals, having eaten after the time of Mincha) in whatever order is enough. Rav Shimon Sofer (Hitorerut Teshuva I:74) left this as an open question and a possible limud z’chut for those who have a pre-meal Kiddush and do not eat seuda shlishit. The Shevet Halevi (I:57) does not view this a viable approach. He cites the Bach (OC 291) who says that the logic of Rabbeinu Tam to treat a non-bread meal as a meal applies only when it follows a full daytime meal, as another full meal might not be expected. However, a small meal before the big meal is not considered a halachic meal toward the three required meals. In summary, while it is plausible that the setup you describe could remove the need for seuda shlishit, it relies on unlikely assumptions. Therefore, it is significantly better to either have bread at the small meal (i.e., Kiddush) or to have at least a small seuda shlishit sometime in the afternoon. Tasting Meat LiquidsWhen I cook for Shabbat, I like to taste the chicken soup and gravies to make sure they are properly spiced. Does that “make me fleishig”?In many areas of Halacha, such a question would be easier to decide conclusively, but for whatever reason, Klal Yisrael shies away from leniency regarding meat and milk. We start by telegraphically mentioning multiple ways that such a case is or may be distanced from the Torah-level prohibition. 1) If the meat is poultry, not beef; 2) Perhaps, if you are tasting only gravies and not the meat itself; 3) The meat and milk were not cooked together; 4) You are eating one after the other, not together. Different Rishonim give different reasons to wait six hours (or a different minhag’s time) between fleishig followed by milchig foods. Rashi (Chulin 105a) says that “meat exudes fat, and it sticks to the mouth and gives taste for a long time.” The Rambam (Ma’achalot Asurot 9:28) says that we are concerned that meat got stuck between the teeth in a manner that it is difficult to remove. The Tur (Yoreh Deah 89) brings nafka minot between the opinions: 1. If meat is found between the teeth after 6 hours, is the meat still fleishig? (Rambam- no; Rashi- yes); 2. If it was chewed but not swallowed (Rambam- must wait, as meat could be between teeth; Rashi – no wait, as swallowing is what makes the taste linger). The Tur and Shulchan Aruch (YD 89:1) rule like the stringencies of both positions, therefore even if one does not eat the fleishig food but chews and then spits out (e.g., to feed to one’s baby), he still has to wait before eating milchigs. The Pri Megadim (MZ 89:1) reasons that our being machmir for both opinions is logical either due to our carefulness about safek in all the relevant cases, or because the two reasons could both be true. The Pri Megadim continues that if one chewed pareve food that absorbed fleishig taste, but does not contain pieces of meat (e.g., chicken soup broth), neither reason indicates having to wait. However, he says that holy Jews do not distinguish (lo plug) between similar cases and always wait, and the Pitchei Teshuva (YD 89:1) accepts his opinion. How broad is this lo plug? While some rabbanim view it as applying to everything that is put in the mouth, the more accepted opinion is that tasting with the tongue (without chewing) and then spitting out the fleishig food does not make waiting necessary (Pri Chadash, YD 89:18; Aruch Hashulchan, YD 89:14; Darchei Teshuva 89:22). (There are discussions in other kashrut areas on the extent to which tasting with the tongue alone is an especially lenient case – see Pitchei Teshuva, YD 98:1). Among Sephardi poskim as well, the mainstream approach is to be lenient (Kaf Hachayim, YD 89:4; Yalkut Yosef, YD 89:13). (See also a similar discussion in Living the Halachic Process, III, E-1). There are some provisos, though. First, just as between milk followed by meat, we require washing the mouth by first eating liquid and solid pareve food (Shulchan Aruch ibid. 2), so too this is needed to remove the tasted meat residue (see the aforementioned lenient opinions). Since there is no minimum amount for how much one needs to eat to become fleishig (Badei Hashulchan 89:2), one would have to determine that the tasting included no swallowing. These rules can be burdensome to follow. Consider also that on a day of substantial fleishig cooking, some people tend to eat samples of their food without giving it much thought and forget thereafter that they are fleishig. Therefore, it might be prudent for many home Shabbat chefs who want to eat milchig food around the time of their major cooking, to eat the real milchig food prior to tasting fleishig food and spending a long time around them. However, this suggestion is no more than practical advice where it applies. As far as a halachic ruling is concerned, if one just tasted fleishig food with his tongue, spat it out, and washed his mouth, he does not need to wait six hours before eating milchig food. Taking Tablets to Aid FastingIs it permitted/proper to take pills before Yom Kippur that improve one’s fasting on Yom Kippur?Clearly, while the Torah commands “v’initem et nafshoteichem” (afflict yourselves) on Yom Kippur (Vayikra 23:27), the command’s operative meaning is to refrain from eating and drinking (Yoma 74b). One fully violates this prohibition only by ingesting food through the mouth/throat (see Achiezer III:61), and therefore intravenous feeding is not halachic eating (see Living the Halachic Process, IV, D-3). Still, there might still be a Rabbinic prohibition or perhaps even a lower-level Torah prohibition to ingest even through intravenous on Yom Kippur (see Teshuvot V’hanhagot II, 290; Chelkat Yaakov, Orach Chayim 216). Teshuvot V’hanagot raises the possibility that the positive element of the mitzva of inuy precludes any way the body ingests food-like nourishment. Even so, there is a huge qualitative difference between nourishment ingested on Yom Kippur and taking a pill before Yom Kippur, as the timing is everything here. One cannot violate affliction on Yom Kippur by an act done before it (except for the short time of tosefet). (One may not put shoes on or put his feet in water before Yom Kippur and keep them there, but that is because keeping them there is equivalent to an action.) There cannot be a halachic requirement to feel the fasting on Yom Kippur. After all the period of inuy is more than 24 hours (see Vayikra 23:32), and one who eats until soon before Yom Kippur will not feel any hunger for many hours (see Mishneh Halachot VII:82). Even the opinion objecting to this type of special preparation, treated seriously by poskim (cited in S’dei Chemed, vol. IX, p. 133) does not object on halachic grounds. The only question is, whether, hashkafically, it is proper to try to avoid being affected by the fast. There are two main approaches as to why the Torah commands us to eat on erev Yom Kippur (Yoma 81b). 1) We would like to eat on the Day of Atonement, but the prohibition makes it necessary to instead eat (festively) the day before (see Sha’arei Teshuva 4:9). 2) Eating before Yom Kippur leads to successful fasting on Yom Kippur. Arguably, Rashi (Yoma 81b) means that the goal is to complete the fast without a medical need to break it, in which case one could still argue that the Torah wants people to suffer from the ongoing fast. The Tur (OC 604) adds that Hashem wants us to not be “damaged,” which apparently refers to suffering on the day (see Bava Kama 91b), not to uncommon, long-term damage. The Rosh (Yoma 8:22) also sounds like Hashem wants us to feel as well as we can on the fast that is intended for our benefit for atonement. One could still claim that some suffering is needed to make the atonement (fully) effective. However, many explain (see Sefer Hachinuch 313) that the atonement element of fasting does not relate to suffering (on Tisha B’av, it probably does) but that avoiding physical indulgence places one on a higher spiritual plane. The persistent could still argue that only natural things like the right foods are appropriate, but not special things that take away the discomfort of fasting. Such distinctions need to be proved, and indeed Acharonim by and large reject the aforementioned opinion in the S’dei Chemed (see survey in Yabia Omer IX, OC 54). Furthermore, the question is largely moot on a practical level. There is apparently no magic potion that makes one feel as if he is not fasting. Those who benefit feel like they are fasting, just fasting very well. In short, there is no halachic or hashkafic problem with taking one of the remedies offered before Yom Kippur, and it is very appropriate for those who suffer significantly on fasts (Yabia Omer ibid.) or feel it will enhance their tefillot to seek something safe that helps them. Should those who fast well also do so? If one is not an interventionist, clings to the traditional, or avoids unnecessarily ingesting things whose full effect is unknown, it is fine to suffice with a wise pre-fast eating regimen. Paying a Babysitter for Work on ShabbatWe need a babysitter for a few hours on Shabbat. Is there a problem paying her for Shabbat work?S’char Shabbat (pay for permitted services one provided on Shabbat) is forbidden Rabbinically like other commercial activity, lest one come to write (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 306:4; Mishna Berura ad loc. 16). The direct prohibition is on the worker receiving pay (therefore, a Jew may pay a non-Jew but may not be paid by a non-Jew), but it is forbidden to give money to one who may not receive it (Mishna Berura 306:21). The most common way to allow receiving money for work done on Shabbat is through havla’ah. That means having the Shabbat-related money “swallowed up” by combining it with weekday pay, as pay for a period of work that includes Shabbat (Shulchan Aruch ibid.; Nedarim 37a-b). Poskim point out that “havla’ah units” are determined not by payment installments but by the period of employment. The period of employment is the time during which there is a commitment to continue the employer-employee relationship. We have dealt In the past (see Living the Halachic Process, vol. V, C-19) with a youth leader, whose employment unit is a year, in which case it is not difficult to give the leader some responsibilities during the week, within the course of the year. This does not naturally work for the average babysitter, who is hired for an individual time period, which in this case, is entirely on Shabbat (Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 28:58; Orchot Shabbat 22:94). However, poskim (ibid.; ibid. (146)) allow one to create a permitted merging of employment units in the following manner. When agreeing upon her working on Shabbat, commit to each other that she will also work in the future during the week. The Orchot Shabbat describes the commitment as being absolute, so that even if you would not want to use her again, you would still have to pay for the second time. The Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata suffices with an expectation of continuing employment so that if one backs out, the other would have a grievance on the other. It is possible that the difference is that the former refers to artificially creating another, single babysitting session, which then must be binding. In contrast, the Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata is referring to a naturally ongoing relationship over a period of time, which also may explain why he permits even calculating the pay based on the exact hours worked on Shabbat. If you do not have a commitment to an ongoing employment relationship with the babysitter, the above approach can be somewhat complex. Therefore, we present a different form of havla’ah, which can be accomplished at one time. There is a famous heter to pay waiters for their work on Shabbat by requiring them to also work before and/or after Shabbat (see Mishna Berura 306:21). Some also use this system to pay a chazan for Yamim Noraim, by having him be chazan for Selichot as well (see Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 28:(144)). In this case, you can arrange it by having her prepare something, in a way that could only be done before Shabbat (e.g., a game, a picture), to be used along with the babysitting. It does not suffice for the preparation to be theoretical or possible, but obligatory work that is time-consuming enough to warrant pay (Orchot Shabbat 22:90). Another form is for her to bring food for the kids, so that payment due for its price creates havla’ah that covers the babysitting. This is learned from the Noda B’yehuda (II, OC 26) who justified a mikveh operator taking money for the service they provide on Shabbat, as the compensation they deserve for the wood fuel they provide creates a havla’ah. There is a machloket whether one can take money for providing a mitzva service on Shabbat (Shulchan Aruch, OC 306:5). While babysitting in and of itself is not considered a mitzva (see Nedarim 37a), if she is hired to enable parents to do a mitzva, it would count as mitzva work (see Bemareh Habazak III:36). However, the havla’ah system, if done properly, is a broader and more clearly accepted leniency. Making Sure your Check Is CashedI owed someone (=Reuven) 2,000 NIS, and he asked to give him an “open check” (i.e., payee left open), which he would give to someone else (=Shimon). I do not know whom or why. A couple of months have gone by, and the check has not been cashed. I believe that if Reuven, with whom I have a great relationship, had lost it, he would have told me. Assuming he already got his value from it, must I find out why Shimon has not cashed it, remind him, and/or replace the check, or, after paying my debt to Reuven’s satisfaction, Shimon is not my concern?There are three approaches to how to view to the halachic significance of giving a check. 1) Since it is generally forbidden to cancel a check, a check is like money (Igrot Moshe, Choshen Mishpat II:15). 2) A check is a self-obligation of the check writer (drawer), to the payee or to anyone if it is an open check (Minchat Yitzchak V:119); 3) The check is no more than an order that the drawer gives to a financial institution to give money to the payee (Shevet Halevi VII:222). The starkest difference between #2 and #3 is whether, if the drawer cancels the check, the obligation to pay still exists. (From a technical perspective, banks usually allow one to cancel the check, but the legal system needs to be convinced he was justified to do so.) #3 is definitely the direct meaning of the check. As they are used in today’s society, the more accepted approach is #2, that it is not considered money, but that the drawer obligates himself to pay whoever uses it legally (see Pitchei Choshen, Halva’ah 10:(21); Shirat Devora II, CM 23). (Almost) all agree that if one gave a check to one whom he owed and it got destroyed, he has to replace it. Even if one conceptually views a check like money, it is significantly different from real money in this context. If Levi pays Yehuda with cash, the payment is immediately usable, whereas a check needs to be cashed or transferred first. More significantly, if Levi feels bad and wants to pay money again, it will be an outright loss for him. But if Levi writes Yehuda a personal check and it was destroyed, the money was never drawn from Levi’s bank account as planned, and Levi is no worse off than he planned (except the price of a check) if he writes another one. So, if Reuven did not transfer the check to Shimon, you should enable him to do so. If Reuven already gave the check to Shimon, you could argue that since you do not owe Shimon, it is not your responsibility to make sure he receives the money. However, this is apparently wrong. The mitzva to return a lost object is not limited to physical objects but applies broadly to help someone out regarding his property (Shulchan Aruch, CM 259:9), and therefore enabling Shimon to use the check he received should be included. While it is true that one does not have to lose money returning a lost object (see Shulchan Aruch Harav, Aveida 33), and here you will be “out” 2,000 NIS, having money you were obligated to give taken from your account is not a loss (see Tosafot, Bava Kama 58a). Even if we did not view a check as creating an obligation, if Reuven owed Shimon, then through a rule called shibudda d’Rabbi Natan, you, who owed Reuven, would be considered as owing Shimon (Shulchan Aruch, CM 86:1). Although the application here is complicated (see ibid. 2), it is wrong for you to divorce yourself from this obligation. There is a machloket (K’tzot Hachoshen 104:2 and Netivot Hamishpat 104:1) whether the mitzva to pay a debt starts when the debt is due, or only when the creditor requests payment. However, this refers to the timing of payment and does not allow one to try to benefit from the creditor’s oversight. Therefore, while you need not act quickly (especially because someone will probably cash the check), at some point you would have to inquire with Reuven if you need to do anything to ensure everyone gets what they deserve. (We are not addressing how to defend your right to make sure you do not end up paying twice or the rules of when it is legal to give open checks.) How Much Should the Mezamen Recite Aloud?I learned that the mezamen (= mzm – leader of zimun) should recite, if not all of Birkat Hamazon (=BHM) aloud, at least the first beracha and the ends of berachot. Most people do neither. What should I do and/or tell others to do?There are two reasons for mzm to recite aloud parts of BHM. The original institution of zimun was for only mzm to say BHM, with the others being yotzei by listening. The practice has developed that rarely is one person motzi others with reciting a text when not necessary. The reason is that being motzi is not easy, because it requires intention on both sides (Mishna Berura 8:13), concentration of the one listening (Beit Yosef, Orach Chayim 183), and likely also the latter’s understanding of the Hebrew text (Mishna Berura 183:28). The Shulchan Aruch (OC 183:7) says that although everyone should recite BHM, it is proper for the others to do so silently at the same pace that the mzm does it aloud, thus uniting them in a way that resembles full zimun (Mishna Berura 183:27). The above is not a requirement, and the broad minhag is not to do so. Some explain the advantages. If they listen to mzm as they recite it, they may not concentrate well and might not have in mind to do be yotzei with their own recitation (see Avnei Yaakov 31). We do not recommend, in places it is unusual, for mzm to read the whole BHM aloud. Beyond the plusses and minuses, it is also likely to give the impression of “holier than thou.” It is somewhat common to tone down the above by reciting only the ends of the berachot. While listening/responding to this is insufficient to be yotzei, there may be value in joining for BHM’s most important parts, and it gives people the z’chut of answering amen (see Shabbat 119b). It is positive to do this. If the responders do not keep pace with mzm, it is unclear if they should answer amen to mzm in the midst of a beracha (see Mishna Berura 183:30; Dirshu 183:24; Yeshuot Moshe III:19). The other element of reading aloud applies only to the first beracha (“… hazan et hakol”). Rav Nachman (Berachot 46a) says that zimun ends before BHM’s first beracha; Rav Sheshet says that the first beracha is part of zimun. (It is not a full part of zimun, as we recite it even without one, but Rav Sheshet requires zimun to be connected to the beginning of BHM (Tosafot ad loc.).) One difference between the opinions is until what point one who stops eating to answer zimun has to wait before resuming eating (ibid.). The Shulchan Aruch (OC 200:2, based on the Rif and Rambam) rules like Rav Nachman. The Rama (ad loc.) paskens like Rav Sheshet, that one waits until hazan et hakol to resume eating. Likely, another difference between them is whether mzm recites the first beracha aloud (see Beit Yosef, OC 183). We rule that we do not trust ourselves to be yotzei with mzm even for the first beracha (see ibid.). Still, the Mishna Berura (183:28) says that mzm should do at least that beracha aloud, so people can read along with him (they go ahead at the end of the beracha so they can answer amen) and get an element of zimun. So why doesn’t everyone do this? Explanations begin with the fact that Rav Nachman is not a “rejected” opinion so that Ashkenazim can rely upon him in this regard (see Tzitz Eliezer ibid.). They may assume that their concentration on their own recitations is better that way (see Piskei Teshuvot 183:15) or for kabbalistic advantage (see Kaf Hachayim, OC 183:38). Still, we recommend for mzm to recite the first beracha aloud, when this is not a rare practice. There is less reason to recite the first beracha aloud with a zimun of ten. The Tur (OC 200, accepted by Mishna Berura 200:9 and Chazon Ish, OC 31:2) says that in such a case, Rav Sheshet agrees that one who stopped can resume eating before the first beracha of BHM because by adding the Name of Hashem, the zimun is a self-standing beracha. If so, having mzm say the first beracha aloud is similar to his reciting all of BHM aloud. Considering all the possibilities’ viability, you should not “correct” people. Dessert after Birkat HamazonA friend of mine always eats dessert after Birkat Hamazon in order to avoid questions about whether he should make a beracha on dessert. Is that appropriate?The practice of having dessert after Birkat Hamazon has various consequences. It can create a beracha rishona in cases that do not warrant them during the meal. After most desserts, there is a beracha acharona after Birkat Hamazon and not before it (see Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 177:2). First we will look at whether this system could be halachically justified. A beracha l’vatala is when a beracha is either recited at a time/circumstance when it was not called for or was done in a critically flawed manner. There is a machloket whether this is a Torah-level (Rambam, Berachot 1:15) or Rabbinic prohibition (Tosafot, Rosh Hashana 33a). A lower level problem is what we call beracha she’eina tzricha (=bshtz) – a beracha that, at the time it was made, was called for, but one should not have put himself in that position. The main Talmudic source for it is an opinion (Yoma 70a) that explains that in the kri’at haTorah in the Beit Hamikdash on Yom Kippur, they did not use a second sefer Torah because the switch of sefarim would have required another Birkat HaTorah, when this was not justified. The Orchot Chayim (Berachot 15) is one of the sources that apply it to berachot on food, in an almost identical case to ours – Birkat Hamazon before finishing eating, in order to make a beracha thereafter. However, as the term she’eina tzricha (unnecessary) implies and the Orchot Chayim (ibid.) states, the problem is only when the additional beracha is created for no good reason. When, in contrast, there is a need for his actions, the beracha is not considered unnecessary. What qualifies as a reason? There is a machloket if one may make more berachot than should have been necessary in order to help get to the quota of 100 berachot each day (see Rambam, Tefilla 7:14-16 with Lechem Mishneh; Orchot Chayim ibid.). The Shulchan Aruch (OC 174:4) comments that it is a safek whether one who wants to drink wine at a meal right after drinking Havdala wine needs to make another beracha. He rules that he does not make the beracha, out of doubt, but recommends having in mind when making the beracha during Havdala not to exempt the later wine, thereby justifying the second beracha. The Pri Chadash (Yoreh Deah 19:8) says that while one should not break a string of shechitot, which might stop the efficacy of the beracha toward subsequent shechitot, since there would be a safek if a new beracha is required, one should intend that his initial beracha not extend to shechitot occurring after speaking. In other words, while needlessly setting up the need for a beracha is wrong, the desire to not be in a situation of lack of a beracha due to safek justifies it. In fact, the Ohr L’tzion (II, 12:(10)), in the case of a certain dessert in where it is unclear whether it requires a beracha rishona, recommends eating it only after Birkat Hamazon. So there is room to entertain your friend’s system However, we do not recommend your friend’s system, at least not broadly. If the halacha is clear, whether to make or not make a beracha, the suggested system, obviating the need to learn the halacha, is unfortunate. It is much better to learn halachot than to avoid the situations to which they apply. One of the major reasons to learn Torah is to get things exactly correct! This is especially so by berachot, where preciseness is valued (see Berachot 38a). That is why poskim discuss all sorts of dessert foods and scenarios and rarely if ever give his solution. For example, regarding a dessert of cake, we do not make a beracha only due to the possibility that cake counts as bread (Bi’ur Halacha to 168:8), and the poskim by and large do not recommend bentching first to remove doubt. Furthermore, in cases which do not include doubt, an extra beracha is a bshtz. Only in unusual cases (e.g., one with memory problems), to be discussed with a rav, might using this system broadly be justified. Melacha Done on Yom Tov Sheni in Chutz La’aretzWe (Israelis) will be spending Pesach at my parents’ home in chutz la’aretz. They keep the basics of the chag, especially when we are there, but do not observe Yom Tov Sheini (=YTS). May we benefit from forbidden melacha (ed. note – e.g., turning on a flame or electricity for cooking; turning on lights) they will do on YTS? (They are respectful of our shemirat mitzvot, but we do not want to make unnecessary issues.)Do not encourage your parents to do melacha; if you know they will do so on your behalf, ask them not to, due to lifnei iver (not facilitating aveirot). It is best to discuss this in advance, after which you need not “police them.” The main gemarot (see Ketubot 34a) forbidding the result of a Jew’s melacha refer to Shabbat (ma’aseh Shabbat). A gemara (Beitza 17a) examines whether one who cooked on Yom Tov for Shabbat without an eiruv tavshilim (=et) may eat the food. The gemara (ibid. 17b) deflects a proof from the halacha that one who cooked on Shabbat may not eat the food by saying Shabbat is different. Rashi contrasts – chillul Shabbat is a Torah-level, capital offense; cooking on Yom Tov for Shabbat without an et is a Rabbinic prohibition. Since Yom Tov has elements of each – a Torah violation but no capital offense, it makes sense that we find a machloket if there is a prohibition on ma’aseh Yom Tov (Taz, Orach Chayim 502:1) or not (simple reading of Shut Harashba V:8). According to some (see Rav SZ Auerbach in Yom Tov Sheini K’hilchato, p. 369), for Torah-level violations of Yom Tov, ma’aseh Yom Tov is forbidden; for Rabbinic violations, the result is permitted. That aligns well with the Magen Avraham (538:2), who says regarding the result of forbidden work on Chol Hamoed, that its status depends if melacha on Chol Hamoed is forbidden from the Torah or Rabbinically. If something is forbidden on the first day of Yom Tov, it widely has the same status on the Rabbinic-level second day. We can, then, claim that your parents’ Torah-level violations will be forbidden and the Rabbinic ones will not. The cooking process, including burning to fuel it (including glowing filaments) should be included in ochel nefesh and permitted on Yom Tov and thus the prohibition of creating a new fire, forbidden because of molid (Beitza 33b), is likely a Rabbinic prohibition (see Shevet Halevi VI:68). The Taz (ibid.) views it as a Torah prohibition and forbids not only using the resulting flame but also eating the food it cooked. However, this is not the accepted ruling (Mishna Berura 502:4). Some say a new flame has special leniency because it has no substance and/or it keeps on replacing itself (see Aruch Hashulchan, OC 502:4; Dirshu 502:3). Most of the violations you would use are likely Rabbinic on Yom Tov. Does it help on YTS that you are Israeli? While you may not do melacha in a Jewish community abroad even privately (Mishna Berura 496:9), this is due to concern over discord; it is not an intrinsic violation. Therefore, for example, an Israeli may cook without an et, as a bystander for the cooking will not know he does not have an et (ibid. 13). Arguably, then, ma’aseh Yom Tov should only be forbidden for one for whom melacha is innately forbidden, especially considering it is unclear to a ben chutz la’aretz seeing the benefit what the history of the object is. This claim may depend on the reason to prohibit ma’aseh Shabbat for people other than the violator (see Shulchan Aruch, OC 318:1). If it is considered enjoyment of a Shabbat violation, it should not apply on YTS to one for whom it is not intrinsically Yom Tov. If it is part of the penalty on the violator, it likely follows the status of the violator, for whom YTS applies intrinsically. Further analysis is beyond our scope. However, since many poskim treat the violator’s household as “him” and not “others” (Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata, 5770 ed. 1:34), this leniency will not help here. Cooking for Shabbat at the End of Yom TovAre there any things to be careful about when cooking for Shabbat on Yom Tov that falls out on Friday, with the help of an eiruv tavshilin (=et)?The laws of cooking on Yom Tov are the same when done for Shabbat (with an et) as when done for Yom Tov eating, concerning what one is permitted to do. The likely difference is in regards to when to cook, as we will explain. Et, like eiruvei chatzeirot and techumin, is only capable of solving Rabbinic problems (Pesachim 46b). Rabba and Rav Chisda argue (ibid.) why cooking on Yom Tov for the following day of Shabbat is not a Torah-level prohibition. Rav Chisda says that according to Torah law, the needs of Shabbat (on the next day) are a legitimate reason to do melacha just as the needs of Yom Tov are (Rashi ad loc. explains that the kedusha of the two are one). Rabba says that even when one cooks on Yom Tov for a weekday, he is not guilty of a full-fledged violation because of “ho’il …,” which works as follows. We cannot conclude that the cooking on Yom Tov will not be eaten on Yom Tov, despite his plans to use it for Shabbat, because he could always be surprised by guests on Yom Tov to whom he would give the food. According to both Amoraim, the remaining Rabbinic prohibition is permitted based on the institution of et. Tosafot (ad loc.) points out that ho’il does not apply to cooking one starts at the end of Yom Tov because the food will not be ready for the guests to eat until after Yom Tov. Therefore, says the Magen Avraham (intro. to Orach Chayim 527), we should not do the cooking at the end of Yom Tov, as at that time, i.e., without ho’il, there is a Torah-level prohibition, which et cannot remove. This stringency is predicated on the presumption that we accept Rabba’s opinion (above) over Rav Chisda’s, as the latter posits that even without ho’il, there is no Torah prohibition on cooking done on Yom Tov that falls on Friday for Shabbat. However, the Mishna Berura (527:3) says that if one finds himself too close to Shabbat to cook food that will be usable on Yom Tov, there is room for leniency. In the Be’ur Halacha (to 527:1), he justifies this due to the existence of Rishonim who accept Rav Chisda’s approach that the Torah does not forbid cooking on Yom Tov for Shabbat even when the food will not be ready on Yom Tov. It is possible that the Rambam (Yom Tov 1:13; ibid 6:1) takes this approach (see Beit Yosef, OC 527; Chemed Moshe 527:1). The Mishna Berura (ibid.) is significantly more accepting of such a leniency when Friday is the second (Rabbinic) day of Yom Tov (as opposed to how Shavuot falls out this year). The Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 2:12 is likewise equivocal about leniency, even in the case of need, on the first day of Yom Tov. There is another point that makes it somewhat easier to be lenient – the possibility of violating a Torah law by cooking at the end of Yom Tov on Friday may be rare or even non-existent (see Avnei Nezer, OC 397). If the food reaches ma’achal ben d’rusai (minimally cooked) before Yom Tov finishes, then ho’il should apply (the Pri Megadim, intro. to Hilchot Shabbat 34 is skeptical whether ma’achal ben d’rusai suffices in this regard). If it will not reach this point until Shabbat, then one did not violate Yom Tov by Torah law because the melacha was not complete on Yom Tov and he did not violate Shabbat because the action was done before Shabbat. The Pri Megadim (ibid.) disagrees, stating that cooking that began on Yom Tov is a Torah-level violation even if it finished after Yom Tov. Even according to the Pri Megadim, there should only be a problem if one started relatively close to the end of Yom Tov, which is rare to happen considering that women light Shabbat candles (and cease melacha due to Shabbat) and men usually go to shul well before the end of Yom Tov. In summary, it is important not to leave the cooking for the end of Friday. However, there is room for leniency b’dieved. If one put up the food reasonably before Shabbat, it is not necessary for the food to be fully cooked on Yom Tov. Kiddush in the Middle of DaveningWe are making a private bar mitzva minyan/seuda. Due to family dynamics, we want to have a milchig Kiddush with a long break before the Shabbat lunch. May we make the Kiddush before Kri’at Hatorah?The gemara (Berachot 28b) reports that Rav Huna forbade any amount of eating before Musaf, but it concludes that the halacha is not like this opinion. However, Rishonim infer from the gemara (Ta’anit 26b) about not doing Birkat Kohanim at a time when people could be drunk that we assume that people do not have a meal before Musaf. In fact, the former gemara only rejects Rav Huna, who forbade te’ima (lit., tasting). The limit on eating is out of concern it will cause one to forget to daven (see Taz, OC 286:2; Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 52:(54)). Therefore, the simple answer is that it is permitted if one is careful about what/how much people will eat. As the distinction between eating and tasting appears elsewhere (see Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 639:2, regarding eating outside the sukka) the Shulchan Aruch (OC 286:3) allows up to a k’beitza (size of an egg) of bread and any amount of “fruit.” Poskim posit that a k’beitza is the limit for pat haba’ah b’kisnin (baked grain-based foods, e.g., cake). There is less certainty regarding limits on grain-based cooked foods (e.g., cholent) (see Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 52:(52); Ishei Yisrael 36:76). There is no limit on non-alcoholic beverages (ibid.). The mitzva to make Kiddush before eating starts after davening, (Shulchan Aruch, OC 289:1), which prevalent practice takes to mean Shacharit (a less accepted position is that it is after Musaf – see Tzitz Eliezer VI:7). This complicates matters somewhat. One needs to eat at least a k’zayit of bread or the like (see more in Living the Halachic Process II, C-3) to fulfill the halachot of Kiddush (Shulchan Aruch, OC 273:5; Mishna Berura ad loc. 21). Since an egg is only twice or three times larger than an olive (see Shulchan Aruch, OC 486:1), and considering the many opinions on these measurements, it is a feat to eat a food with confidence that it is between a k’zayit and a k’beitza. So without significant care, and cooperation of the participants, the Kiddush may violate either the halachot of Kiddush or of eating before Musaf. There are indeed times when the minhag of many is to make Kiddush before Musaf, specifically on Simchat Torah and Rosh Hashana (on the latter, some justify the minhag in favor (Tzitz Eliezer ibid.) while others oppose it (Mateh Ephrayim 588:2). To compare to our case, Rosh Hashana has a special mitzva we prefer not to precede by eating – shofar blowing. On the other hand, on Rosh Hashana and Simchat Torah, there is a special need, as people will otherwise fast into the afternoon, which is difficult physically and is perhaps (beyond our scope) a halachic problem as well (see Teshuvot V’hanhagot V:175). Some explain that since the problem is forgetting to do the mitzva, if people eat as part of a congregation, there is no realistic concern that everyone will forget (see Minchat Yitzchak V:111). In your case, the matter of objective need appears missing, but since you refer to a minyan of people, the decreased concern does. Thus, there is room for leniency even if some may eat more than the poskim otherwise allow (especially women and children, whose obligation in Musaf is less clear/weaker – see Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 52:(54)). Another thing in your favor is that this is a unique situation; we would not want to create a new minhag regarding regular Shabbatot. (We do not consider the practice of “Kiddush clubs,” opposed by the rabbinic community, a minhag, or a model to follow.) Our practical guidance is that early Kiddush is proper only for significant need, which we, from afar, leave to you to ascertain. You mention Kiddush before Kri’at Hatorah, which can be considered if that is part of the practical need. However, due to indications of Kri’at Hatorah being somewhat connected to Shacharit, it is preferable to do the Kiddush only after it (see Piskei Teshuvot 286:8). Learning Right after ShacharitI thought that one should learn a little in shul right after davening, yet I do not see many people doing so. How do you explain this?The concept you refer to can be connected to different sources and framed differently. After doing groundwork, we can relate to what is troubling you. The gemara in Berachot (64a) says: “One who leaves a shul and enters a beit midrash and is involved in Torah study, merits receiving the Divine Countenance, as the pasuk says: ‘They shall go from chayil to chayil, they will be seen by Hashem in Zion.’” The move from one place/activity to another seems significant, although it is not obvious why (see Yalkut Biurim ad loc., p. 387). The Maharsha (ad loc.) says that chayil refers here to a sizable group of people, which is the best setting for both tefilla and Torah study (Berachot 63b). The Tur (and Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 155) instructs going to a beit midrash to learn, after Shacharit, before work, citing Torah study’s centrality among the questions asked at a person’s “post-life trial” (see Shabbat 31a; Sanhedrin 7a). The Tur brings this idea, not at the end of the Laws of Tefilla but as part of what he calls “Hilchot De’ot” (practical philosophy), right before the laws of going to work. He instructs to make the learning set, i.e., he keeps to it even if it means losing out on big profits. Proximity to tefilla is not crucial, as the Tur and Shulchan Aruch (OC 155:2) allow those who are used to eating early to push off going to the beit midrash until after breakfast. According to them, it is not a halacha of finishing tefilla but of ensuring Torah learning is prominent enough in his day (see Avot 1:15; Rambam, Talmud Torah 3:7). The Rambam cites neither the gemara in Berachot (the Rif and Rosh do) nor the Tur/Shulchan Aruch’s instructions. Perhaps he views the former as not phrased as a halachic statement and regarding proper Torah learning, he speaks at length about principles that need not be tied to a specific juncture of the day. In contrast, the Levush (OC 155:1) and Mishna Berura (155:1-2) bring both sources; the Levush says that the combination helps the tefillot to be accepted. We turn now to your expectations. You refer to a little learning after davening. The Be’ur Halacha (to 155:1) refers to a broad minhag of set group study after Shacharit. It is possible he is talking about what some shuls still do – one teaches a halacha, mishna, etc. for everyone to hear while removing tallit and tefillin. It sounds more like he refers to a more serious session, but that not everyone took part in it. These two possibilities can depend on whether the point is to finish the tefilla on the right note (a little Torah might be enough) or to get a good start on the day’s learning (likely calls for a significant amount, as yeshivot do). While the Shulchan Aruch refers to serious learning, the Magen Avraham (155:1) says that if a pressing matter prevents it, one should learn one pasuk or halacha. Another difference between approaches can be regarding one who does not have time to learn after his minyan but learns before davening. That seems fine regarding Torah learning, but it lacks any special element of going from tefilla to limud. Another difference would be for a full-time learner. If the point is Torah study and he puts in the same amount of time whether he starts learning right away or he eats and takes care of personal matters before learning, the instructions likely do not apply. According to the segula-of-connecting approach, having some learning right after davening might be valuable. A final question is where it should be done. The earlier sources discuss going to a beit midrash. On the one hand, this was the place of intense Torah study (see Megilla 26b). The walking and setting himself there may itself have value (see Rama ad loc, about one who does not know how to learn going and getting reward for walking). Alternatively, perhaps that was just the norm and is not required; note that the Be’ur Halacha talks of the learning groups in shul. May Panim Chadashot Leave Sheva Berachot Early?Do panim chadashot have to stay until Birkat Hamazon?One of the basic chakirot (analytical dilemmas) about panim chadshot (=pch) is at the heart of your question – what does pch provide that enables the recitation of all of the sheva berachot (=sb), not just Asher Bara (Ketubot 8a)? Tosafot (Ketubot 7b) and the Rosh (Ketubot 1:13) posit that the reason pch enables sb is that his presence increases the festivity (regarding food and/or mood). The Rambam (Berachot 2:10) posits that we say sb after the wedding only if someone is present who did not hear the berachot made before. Apparently, we want more people blessing the couple (Aruch Hashulchan, Even Haezer 62:24), and Hashem for creating and maintaining good in the world, including through marriage. Your question likely depends on these approaches. If pch needs to provide enough festivity to justify sb, then once he took part in the meal, why must he remain for the berachot (when a minyan remains)? If the point of the pch is for him to be involved in the berachot, obviously he must be there then (Birkat Hamazon will also not suffice). How do we pasken? Other apparent applications of the chakira give some indication. Tosafot and the Rosh (ibid.) rule that on Shabbat, the impact of Shabbat is a replacement for pch, We accept this at least regarding the two main meals (Shulchan Aruch and Rama, EH 62:8). This makes a lot of sense according to the festivity approach; Shabbat raises the sb party’s specialness as much as pch do. According to the Rambam’s reason, Shabbat has nothing to do with reciting the berachot for one who as not yet been involved (Otzar Haposkim 62:41). Thus, we seem to pasken like Tosafot. Another related question is whether the pch needs to eat with the others. The Rambam should not require it. According to Tosafot, it makes sense that pch’s influence on the festivity requires significant participation (ibid.). The Rama (ibid. 7), who does not require them to eat, can thus be seen as accepting the Rambam’s approach (Maharitatz I:71), whereas many are machmir that they should eat (see China V’chisda to Ketubot 7b; Hanisuin K’hilchatam 14:66) It is possible to take Tosafot’s approach but say that even without eating, pch enhances the atmosphere (see Ran, Ketubot 2b, Beit Shmuel 62:10). The question of how prominent/connected the pch needs to be also seems to hinge on the point of increasing festivity (see Otzar Haposkim 62:40). Here there are significant opinions in either direction. The Shulchan Aruch (ibid. 8) requires people for whom we would add food; the minhag to not distinguish who the people are and why they were invited (see Nitei Gavriel ibid. 87:1) likely depends to a great degree on the concept of lo plug and our reluctance and difficulty in judging people’s stature. In any case, the more accepted approach is that of Tosafot, and therefore we would expect that it would not be necessary for the pch to be present at bentching/sb. Nevertheless, Rav Shlomo Kluger (Ha’elef Lecha Shlomo, EH 107) and the contemporary sefarim on the topic (Sova Semachot 1:12; Hanisuim K’hilchatam 14:67, Nitei Gavriel 86:2) do not allow making sb after the pch has left. Some base it on the language of the Ran, who seems to indicate it (Sova Semachot ibid.). It could be because we do not want to make a beracha when someone as great as the Rambam would oppose it (see Nitei Gavriel ibid.(5)). Possibly the festivity approach also requires the pch who create the required festivity to be connected to the berachot (this may relate to poskim’s requirement that pch are capable to make the berachot – beyond our scope). Therefore, we urge having the pch at the sb and cannot recommend making them without him. However, the considerable halachic logic to allow it can justify not making a scene by stopping others who are making sb after the pch left. The best solution is to bring in a replacement pch; even if he is there just for the berachot, the situation still fulfills the basic requirements of both the Tosafot and Rambam approaches. Can One Fix an Unwarranted Beracha on Netilat Yadayim?I came out of the bathroom and did netilat yadayim for that purpose, but accidentally I recited the beracha of netilat yadayim. I tried to salvage the situation by indeed eating bread as fast as I could. Did that help?We wash our hands after using the bathroom without a beracha because it is not the fulfillment of a formal mitzva but is necessary to have clean hands for reciting matters of sanctity and for removing ruach ra’ah. (There is a beracha if it is right before Shacharit – Mishna Berura 4:30.) While it is unclear whether one should use a cup for this washing (see Living the Halachic Process, II, H-10), you apparently did. This made your washing fit for netilat yadayim for a meal (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 159:1), except that you lacked intent for that purpose. We understand that your mistake was not that you thought you were washing to eat or that washing after the restroom is a formal obligation that includes a beracha. Rather, you washed without intention for the formal mitzva, and the beracha slipped out due to rote (i.e., you often make a beracha after washing with a cup). Thus, you acted without kavana for what is considered a mitzva. What you did, eating bread based on a properly performed netilat yadayim without the intention for a meal (and, thus, without a beracha) is the subject of a machloket without a clear ruling (see Shulchan Aruch and Rama, OC 158:7). This includes where one washed for eating food that was dipped in liquid, where Halacha mandates washing without a beracha due to doubt (see ibid. 4&7). The Rama therefore instructs to repeat netilat yadayim, again without a beracha because of the possibility that the first washing got the job done (Mishna Berura ad loc. 32). The opinion that the netila without kavana to eat now is valid means that there is no need for another netila before the meal; he did not fulfill a mitzva with it (see Chazon Ish, OC 25:8). Does inserting kavana to eat based on the netila, at least within a moment (toch k’dei dibbur) of the recitation give significance to the recitation? The broad idea of fixing things toch k’dei dibbur has limitations (see Sdei Chemed vol. VI, p. 327), and I did not find precedent of it giving a quality to an action done before it (see Yabia Omer II, OC 16). Even if the intention could reach back to fix the beracha, the following source indicates that a beracha cannot fix the nature of the preceding netila. The Magen Avraham (158:13, accepted by the Mishna Berura ibid.) says that one cannot make a beracha after a netila without kavana because a beracha is incongruous to such a lacking netila. One can still argue that the fact that the netila was used for the meal (according to the opinion that it works) does give it and its beracha some significance after the fact, considering the two are connected. While not negating the plausibility of that contention, the following Ritva illustrates that the washing and eating are not fully connected. The Ritva (Chulin 106b) says that one who did netilat yadayim with a beracha because he was planning to eat may change his mind and not eat, because the netilat yadayim at its time, based on the plans at that time was required; after the mitzva was completed, it is irrelevant if the meal materializes or not. He spells out that the eating is only the trigger for the obligation of netilat yadayim; it is not the end of the mitzva process (admittedly, not everyone understands it this way – see S’dei Chemed ibid., p. 328). In our flipside case, your eating is unlikely to change things retroactively, as the netilla was done without obligation. The following would have been the best way to salvage as much as possible, besides reciting baruch shem k’vod … on the beracha (Shulchan Aruch, OC 206:6). We saw that to eat bread, you needed a second netilat yadayim, without a beracha. Since the beracha on netilat yadayim can work before the washing (Shulchan Aruch, OC 158:11), intending that your beracha go on that second washing might have helped (analysis beyond our scope). Whose Responsibility Is Raising the Wall?I built my house years before the next-door property was developed, with an approximately meter-high wall between properties. My property is 2 meters higher than the next one; now they are excavating to build the other house, there will be a 5-meter drop, which I feel makes it dangerous for my children. [He seems to be building according to the permit he received.] My neighbor had agreed to pay for raising the wall, but now is unwilling to pay the significant cost. We cordially disagree whether it is his obligation. Have I misjudged the matter?We praise you for asking sincerely. Generally, we do not comment on active monetary disagreements (see Rama, Choshen Mishpat 17:5). However, after hearing your situation, we felt this would be a case where it was proper to make an exception (see Pitchei Teshuva ad loc. 11; our column from Ki Teitzei 5776), which may be clearer at the end. We are neither interested nor able (due to a lack of information) to present clear conclusions but rather halachic ideas about this type of case. One important question is whether the present wall meets safety codes for the emerging situation, as these are generally legally and halachically binding to obligate and exempt from further steps (see Emunat Itecha #139, p. 87-96). This is not unlikely considering you received a Tofes Arba (occupancy permit) despite a significant drop and municipal plans for a future further drop. If so, if your very understandable concern for your children makes you want more, your decision will obligate you. Most questions about paying for a wall between properties of different elevations concern its serving as a kir temech (retaining wall). In most cases, the wall serves both homeowners, preventing collapse of parts of the ground that support the higher property from falling into the lower property. In such cases, the two owners are to pay for it jointly (see ibid.). The need for /benefit from a kir temech is not always identical, which can impact on the division of payment. You have not told us how the two of you have dealt with the construction of a kir temech and how it is connected to the wall you mention. Regarding concern for falling, your wall was needed as a ma’akeh. While the formalistic mitzva requires a 10-tefach high fence for a roof (Shulchan Aruch, 427: 1,5), there is a broader and more fluid requirement to avoid danger (ibid. 7-8). While you seemed confident that it had been doing its job (according to most opinions, a meter is more than 10 tefachim), you view your neighbor’s excavating as creating a dangerous situation that requires more than the existing level of caution. Questions of damaging situations created by what neighbors do on their own property are governed by the often difficult-to-apply halachot of nizkei shcheinim. A broad question with many applications is whether the need to remove the danger/damage falls on the potential victim (nizak) or damager (mazik). Important determining factors are whether the damage comes immediately and directly (Shulchan Aruch, CM 158:32), the damage’s significance (Shut HaRosh 108:10), and whether the nizak is capable of avoiding the damage (ibid.). We will not analyze your case’s details in these regards because danger of falling has its own prototype – bor (a pit or cistern). One whose bor’s opening is on the border of another’s property must pay for damage to those who fall in (Shulchan Aruch, CM 410:6). For you, a pertinent question is the drop’s proximity to your property (see S’ma 410:7). It is also possible that the fact that the drop is a result of natural topography and permitted building removes responsibility (see Shulchan Aruch ibid. 9 and commentaries). Also, a 10-tefach wall remedies a bor (Bava Kama 50a). Finally, cheaper methods might be feasible to remove the danger. Therefore, it is unlikely that your neighbor needs to pay significantly to extend your wall. We trust that these ideas will impact your conversations with your neighbor and are optimistic you will enjoy a good relationship. How/When to Start Breaking Yom Kippur FastI (a religious doctor) am often consulted about those who cannot fast all of Yom Kippur. Is there a halachic preference for such people to start eating/drinking earlier “with shiurim” (small installments) or to wait longer but then necessarily have the amount of full “violation.”The Shulchan Aruch (Orach Chayim 618:7, based on Kritot 13a and Yoma 83a) rules that those who need to eat on Yom Kippur should eat less than the amount (within the given time) that fully violates the fast. However, some Acharonim questioned whether slower is always better, i.e., when in order to eat slowly, one must start eating earlier than one would need to if he could eat normally. This question relates to other cases of a choice between allowing forbidden things before they are critical in order to avoid the need for a “bigger” allowance later. The S’dei Chemed (vol. IX, p. 121) brings a machloket Acharonim if one should fast on Tzom Gedalia if it will prevent him from fasting Yom Kippur. He connects this to the machloket (see Ba’er Heitev 90:11) whether a prisoner who received permission to be visited by a minyan should take the first opportunity or wait for the most significant one. A closer parallel case is whether one who will be allowed to do melacha on Shabbat because of pikuach nefesh but can preempt the need by doing so on Friday that is Yom Tov. The Netziv (Harchev Davar, Bamidbar 17:12) opts to violate the less severe Yom Tov, before it was necessary. However, some disagree with this approach (see Torat Hayoledet 50:(14)). A few halachic questions influence applying these rules to our case. 1) When we say that one who eats less than a prohibition’s shiur still violates a Torah prohibition (Yoma 73b), is it a similar-level prohibition other than regarding punishment (see Encyclopedia Talmudit, “Chatzi Shiur,” ftnt. 18-20) or is the prohibition of a vastly lower level (see Tosafot, Shavuot 23b)? 2) Does one who eats small amounts remove himself from the status of fasting (v’initem) (Pri Megadim, MZ 612:4), or is he still considered fundamentally fasting (see Binyan Tzion 34; Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata, 5760 ed., 39:(92))? While there are respected poskim who rule to delay the eating until needed at the price of eating more than a shiur later (see Torat Hayoledet ibid.), the standard approach is to eat with shiurim (Igrot Moshe, OC IV:121; Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata ibid.). This is the clear minhag (this is what Matnat Chaim’s posek recommends for recent kidney donors). It is also the clear implication of classical poskim’s acceptance without stipulations of the Shulchan Aruch’s rule (above) of eating with shiurim. After all, it is rare to be able to eat with shiurim, but not be able to wait, say, a half hour longer if he can then eat regularly! What we can briefly explore is whether there are rare cases when it makes sense to delay breaking the fast. First, realize that it is difficult to give an exact time in the morning to wait until, but the night is a good breakoff point; the average person (not everyone) who cannot fast, can wait until the morning. Also, healthy people who must not fast as a precaution based on worst-case scenarios might be exceptions. If the danger can come unnoticed until it is too late (like for those with kidney problems or diabetes), standard rules apply. But, for example, the Shevet Halevi (VII, 81) ruled that soldiers who will be active outside for too long to fast should wait until they need to drink, for two reasons: if plans change, the need to drink never came to fruition; they should not drink when they lack a status of a potential endangered choleh (see Kiryat Sefer, Maachalot Assurot 14). Also, when there is a clear trigger/sign (e.g., weakness, nausea), and there is sufficient time afterward to remedy the situation without danger, those who prefer waiting have a solid argument. However, doctors and rabbis will agree that it is usually easier and safer to give clear guidelines to start earlier rather than later; that is the proper strategy for any borderline case. Naming for One, Thinking of AnotherSometimes a man dies and his widow offers family members a monetary gift if they name a baby after him. If someone wants to do so, to be nice and also for the money, but they do not want to connect their son spiritually to the deceased (let’s call him Uncle David), may they tell everyone they are naming for U. David but intend for David Hamelech?We must warn about two limitations: 1. There are differences between similar cases; 2. We are not experts in the kabbalistically-oriented elements of giving a name. But we can generally discuss the value of naming after a deceased person, questions of honesty, and practicalities. Names have significance in different ways. Chazal (including in Berachot 7b) focus on the meaning of the name’s impact on a person’s life for good or bad. More recent sources mention the idea of tapping into the good qualities of the one named after and bringing benefit to the deceased (see sources in Otzar Habrit 6:4). Poskim discuss how naming after a parent and, likely, a grandparent (not an uncle) falls under the mitzva of kibbud av va’em (see B’tzel Hachochma I;35). It is clear from sources and logic that intention connects the baby to the person he is named for (the benefit to the deceased is not shared by every departed David). We will not advise parents whether to name their babies based on ideas, sound, a relative, or a tzaddik. Hopefully, monetary gain is not a major factor but “a factor” in choosing between names under consideration. It is common and not controversial to have in mind for both a relative and a tzaddik(a) who originally inspired that name’s use. It is very possible that this brings credit to the former and blessing to the child due to the latter. (We make no promises or predictions.) For what is the aunt paying? Three main things deserve appreciation: 1) The parents’ sacrifice by not giving a name they prefer (assuming David is not their preferred name). 2) Honoring and creating a living remembrance of U. David, which has innate value and can bring psychological solace to the living. This exists as long as the parents are consistent in telling the family the baby is named in U. David’s honor. These two are unaffected by the parents’ intentions, and if this is what the aunt has in mind, there is no problem. 3) The prospect that the naming will benefit U. David’s neshama. If this segula element is the (or a significant part of the) aunt’s intention, then it would be geneivat da’at to not intend for the baby to be named after U. David in a significant (not necessarily exclusive) way and take the money. One violates that prohibition when he gives the impression of a bigger favor than is true when it might bring reciprocity (Shulchan Aruch, Choshen Mishpat 228:6; see this column, Lech Lecha 5778), all the more so when a gift is promised. While one does not violate geneivat da’at over the recipient’s needless assumptions, a certain level of spiritual intention for the deceased is a valid assumption. Two principles regarding doing things that make others feel good may compete. On the one hand, there is the halacha of geneivat da’at. On the other hand, one wants to make the recipient feel good and certainly not be insulted (see Yevamot 65b). Out of concern for honesty, should someone say: “Don’t think my Shabbat invitation is because we are friends but because the rabbi told me no one else is willing to invite you”! If they are unwilling to have basic intention for U. David and the aunt cares about #3, the parents should give their preferred name and explain that it was important for them. If multiple relatives have turned down the offer, insult should be weighed versus deceit. A good solution is to give a double name, with intention that the David part is for U. David. This shows willingness to be connected to him, dispels a misconception of his exclusivity, and “protects the child” from unwanted connection (see Igrot Moshe, Orach Chayim IV:66; Otzar Habrit 6:8) In real cases, parents can seek family and/or rabbinic guidance to reach a balanced solution. Forgetting R’tzei at Seuda ShlishitI was not sure if during Birkat Hamazon (=BHMZ) after seuda shlishit, I said R’tzei V’hachalitzenu or not. Should I have repeated BHMZ?The rule is that one who forgets R’tzei in BHMZ on Shabbat must repeat BHMZ (Berachot 49b). Is that also true for one who is unsure (safek) if he recited it? On one hand, the requirement to mention Shabbat in Birkat Hamazon is only Rabbinic, making it logical to apply safek berachot l’hakel when there is a safek whether one said R’tzei. Indeed, regarding one who is unsure whether he recited Ya’aleh V’Yavo (=YVY) on Rosh Chodesh, the Rama (Orach Chayim 422:1) invokes safek berachot l’hakel. However, the Mishna Berura (288:16) points out that the consensus of Acharonim rejects his opinion because we can presume he left out YVY, as there is a chazaka that one who was not concentrating (a fair assumption about one who soon thereafter (see below) does not remember what he said) did not recite infrequent additions. This follows the precedent of a safek on what one said regarding rain-related recitations at the beginning of a “recitation season” (see Shulchan Aruch, OC 114:8). Even if one does not accept the Rama, there are a few reasons to not repeat BHMZ in a case of safek if he said R’tzei (see Yabia Omer VII, OC 28): 1. A weekly addition is not as easily forgotten as a monthly one. 2. The different atmosphere of Shabbat makes it easier to remember R’tzei than YVY. 3. An extra tefilla done due to safek is not problematic (Berachot 21a), whereas for BHMZ, it is problematic. Indeed Rav Ovadia Yosef (Yabia Omer ibid.) rules not to repeat BHMZ in a safek if he recited R’tzei. On the other hand, Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata (57:7) accepts the Mishna Berura that we should repeat BHMZ for a safek of missing R’tzei (if the doubt arises soon after he should have said it – see Mishna Berura 422:10). However, there is an accepted reason not to repeat BHMZ in your case. The gemara (Berachot 49b) says that one who forgets YVY in BHMZ of Rosh Chodesh, as opposed to Shabbat and Yom Tov, does not repeat BHMZ. The difference is that on Shabbat, one must eat [enough bread to make BHMZ a necessity – Tosafot ad loc.], whereas on Rosh Chodesh, he need not. The Mishna Berura (188:26) explains that Chazal instituted that only for the special days when BHMZ is necessary are the additions to BHMZ for those days essential. Although some consider it a full obligation to have bread at seuda shlishit, other serious positions do not view it as a full requirement (see Shulchan Aruch, OC 291:5). Therefore, repeating BHMZ due to a forgotten R’tzei at seuda shlishit might be unwarranted, and one must not take that chance (Shulchan Aruch, OC 188:8; Mishna Berura ibid. 31; Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata ibid.). According to most, this is true even for one who is always careful to eat bread at seuda shlishit because the fact that he always bentches is a personal decision, not an objective Shabbat obligation (see Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 57:(20)). It is possible to do a type of repetition. The gemara (ibid. a) says that for one who realized he left out the addition after finishing the third beracha but before starting the fourth, there is an independent beracha for each of the respective days to thank Hashem for giving us the day. The gemara mentions this even regarding Rosh Chodesh, but leaves it as an unsolved question whether the beracha on Rosh Chodesh finishes with the Baruch ata Hashem … form. This beracha applies also to seuda shlishit, and since seuda shlishit is likely supposed to be a real meal, the Mishna Berura (Be’ur Halacha to 188:8) advocates finishing it with a beracha form. However, one would not do so if he bentches after nightfall, as it is a doubt whether the additions are called for then, and a separate beracha is therefore not warranted (Be’ur Halacha to 188:10). Regarding a case that he missed this cut-off point, some allow reciting R’tzei during the section of “Harachaman” recitations, but the stronger opinion is to not do so (see Rama, OC 188:7). Halachic Principles of Pikuach NefeshIntroduction: Over the past few weeks, we have on our minds the precious need to save lives, including by “pushing off” Shabbat to enable this. We will now present some of the halachic and practical underpinnings of the laws that pikuach nefesh (saving a life) takes precedence over almost all of the Torah’s mitzvot and prohibitions.Principles: While the gemara (Yoma 85a-b) cites several possible derivations that pikuach nefesh supersedes Shabbat and by extension other prohibitions, the most accepted one is general: the statutes of the Torah are “to live with them” (Vayikra 18:5) and not to die due to them. The nature of the derivation makes the halacha broad, conceptually and practically, including when the need or chance of saving is not definite (ibid.; see Be’ur Halacha to OC 329:4). The most important thing needed to make a determination of when pikuach nefesh allowances apply is expertise in evaluating the danger. Special weight is given to people whose expertise is professionally recognized, e.g., doctors (see Shulchan Aruch, OC 328:10). However, many times a rabbi, parent, or bystander will have to make a determination; knowledge and wisdom are helpful, but it is better that he err on the side of concern for the life. There are not clear statistical guidelines as to what counts as danger. Rabbi Akiva Eiger (Shut I:60) mentions in passing that a one thousandth chance of death is not halachic danger. Rav Neuwirth (Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 32:2) presents an appealing approach in the name of Rav Auerbach. Danger is not measured actuarially. Rather, just as regarding when one is permitted to enter danger, what society considers dangerous is impactful (see Yevamot 72a), so too pikuach nefesh applies to situations that normal people consider life-threatening. This approach explains a limitation important Acharonim (see Pitchei Teshuva, Yoreh Deah 363:5; Chazon Ish, Ohalot 22:32) put on life-saving needs – danger must be one that is felt in the short-term (there are likely exceptions). The logic is that it is not normal to look well into the future, and therefore it is not justifiable to violate prohibitions over things that people usually ignore. A major question involves steps one should take to lessen prohibitions, which we find regarding eating on Yom Kippur (Shulchan Aruch, OC 618:7), eating non-kosher foods (ibid. 9) and melacha on Shabbat (ibid. 32:15-16). The Kiryat Sefer (Ma’achalot Assurot 14) posits that the requirement to minimize violations is only Rabbinic. Many, not all, agree (see Yechaveh Da’at IV:30; Minchat Shlomo I:7). In any case, the gemara (Yoma 84b) limits efforts to minimize violations, saying that saving lives on Shabbat should be carried out by adult Jews, as opposed to having a non-Jew do it. (The latter option is often used when there is great but not life-saving need (see Shulchan Aruch, OC 328:17).) Rishonim present two reasons for this exceptional halacha (see Beit Yosef, OC 328): 1. Perhaps the non-Jew will not be diligent enough, thus increasing danger. 2. If people get used to looking for a non-Jew, if one is not readily available, they may miss the opportunity to save in time. Despite the gemara, the Rama (OC 328:12) cites an opinion that we prefer a non-Jew who will do the job well. The Taz (ad loc. 5) disagrees due to the gemara, and the Mishna Berura (328:37) is inconclusive. Practice (in places such as Sha’arei Tzedek Hospital) is that a Jewish doctor will take overall responsibility for orchestrating and doing the saving, but when there is time for a non-Jew to do simple actions, e.g., turning on lights, that is preferred. The Rama (ibid.) likewise adds that one should try to do what he can b’shinuy (in an unusual way), to lessen Shabbat violation. On this point, there is less opposition, which makes sense according to our distinction between the macro and the micro of the efforts to save. The ability to violate Shabbat with a shinuy is valuable for encouraging a G-d-fearer who is reticent to violate Shabbat when he is not convinced of its pressing nature. Reciting Holy Things Near Garbage ContainersI recite Birchot Hashachar on the way to shul, and recently Tehillim as I walk the streets. May I continue doing so while passing trash cans or dumpsters?The Torah (Devarim 23:13-15) commands soldiers to keep their encampment holy by covering excrement (tzo’a). Uttering holy matters (of all sorts - Rambam, Kriat Shema 3:4) near unseemly things is forbidden and disqualifies matters such as tefilla (Berachot 22b). Trash containers can create an “unholy” area on three potential bases: 1. Human feces (as described by the above pasuk and found in diapers); 2. Materials, such as meats and other foods with a very foul odor after decomposing count as tzo’a (Berachot 25a; Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 79:8); 3. A receptacle that is affected enough by tzo’a to be considered unseemly itself (graf shel re’i) (Berachot 25b; Shulchan Aruch, OC 87:1). In regard to all of these, one may not speak holy things within four amot of the end of the smell, and may not face it within his eyesight (Berachot 25a, 26a; Shulchan Aruch OC 79:1; ibid. 87:1). Walking down a street, trash cans and their contents are always within eyesight. Could this preclude all holy matters on our streets, e.g., berachot, Tehillim, sharing Divrei Torah with family, singing at a hachnasat sefer Torah?! This is neither practiced nor reasonable. (In Talmudic times, garbage dumps (ashpa) stored tzo’a long-term (and truly stunk), and were at a fair distance from living quarters – refraining from sanctity in their vicinity was logical.) Our streets enjoy two main points of leniency. 1. Due to prompt garbage collection, offensive odor is rare except for small amounts of residue. Thus, the distance of separation due to smell is at most slightly more than four amot from the trash receptacles. 2. Tzo’a is almost always covered, often multiple times (plastic bags for diapers and decomposing matter; being surrounding by non-smelly garbage; a closed garbage bag that takes it outside; the dumpster’s covering). We thus fulfill the Torah’s command to cover tzo’a, which solves the problem (Shulchan Aruch, OC 76:1). Is it a problem if there is an uncovered trash container or one with an overflow of bags? The gemara (Berachot 25a) says that tzo’a does not affect people in a nearby but different domain. Receptacles in areas with apartment buildings almost always have the dimensions for a different domain. The Shulchan Aruch (OC 79:2) cites, without a clear preference, a machloket Rishonim whether this leniency applies when the excrement is visible to the person. The stringent opinion is a potential problem. On the other hand, the other coverings usually solve the problem, at least if one cannot smell the garbage (see ibid.). The prospect of treating a trash receptacle as a graf shel re’i is our biggest potential problem; nothing will help, as it is not covered and therefore it should not be in sight. However, the consensus of poskim is lenient on the matter (see Ishei Yisrael 53:36) for several reasons. First, graf shel re’i applies only to somewhat absorbent materials, e.g., pottery and wood, not metal (Shulchan Aruch, OC 87:1; see Mishna Berura ad loc. 6) and hard plastic (B’tzel Hachochma VI:26). Second, much of what is put into them are non-tzo’a materials and any tzo’a rarely touches the receptacle (ibid.). I would add that graf shel re’i is something that stands out as “disgusting” and people naturally keep a distance from it. Common things on respectable streets cannot turn entire streets into a garbage dump. The practice, even of great talmidei chachamim, is that one may engage in kedusha on them (see Halichot Shlomo, Tefilla 20:1). In summary, one walking down the street may assume the presence of covering and the absence of offensive smell when involved in holy things (see Shulchan Aruch, OC 76:8). Midat chasidut might be that if he notices open or overflowing receptacles with open or ripped garbage bags, he will look away (Ishei Yisrael ibid.), and when alone, one might pause holy speech within four amot of receptacles (see Mishna Berura 87:6). Reattaching Ripped TzitzitOne of my tzitzit strings ripped so that it was very short. May I tie the ripped part to the stub to restore it to legal length?According to your description, the tzitzit are kosher without reattachment, as we will explain. If the other tzitzit are of kosher length (details are not our focus) and only one string ripped, the tzitzit remain kosher for the following reason. The Shulchan Aruch (Orach Chayim 12:1) cites two opinions on leeway regarding ripped tzitzit strings. The Ri posits that each of the four strings can be “too short” on one of its ends if the other end is the proper length. (Background – each corner of the tzitzit has four strings, which look like eight because both ends of the strings face in one direction. One can know the pairings of the string ends if he, as recommended, was consistent about keeping the same four string ends together on opposite sides of the knots.) Rabbeinu Tam holds that two of the four strings must be complete on both ends. If only one of the eight strings became too short, the tzitzit are kosher according to all. Now to your question about whether it is possible to fix tzitzit by tying on a string to a stub. Retzuot of tefillin that are tied together are not kosher (Menahot 35b; Shulchan Aruch, OC 33:5) because we derive from the word “u’kshartam” that there must be a kshira tama (i.e., attaching the tefillin with unblemished retzuot). The Taz (OC 12:3) and Magen Avraham (15:1) posit that the disqualification of tying is unique to tefillin, as generally, things that are connected by a permanent knot form one halachic unit. The Magen Avraham points out, for example, that when threads are tied together, their new size counts regarding size requirements of the laws of nega’im. Although there are some halachic comparisons made between tefillin and tzitzit, here it makes sense to follow the precedent found in the gemara (Menachot 35b) that the remnants (gardumei) of tzitzit strings are kosher, whereas the remnants of tefillin retzuot are not because tefillin have a level of sanctity that tzitzit do not. The Taz, though, points out that the connection needs to be made at the right time, because of the concept of ta’aseh v’lo min he’asuy (=tvlmh). This means that regarding mitzvot that require acting to create the object of the mitzva (including sukka or tzitzit), the creating must be significant at the time it was done, as opposed to receiving its significance retroactively. For example, if one tied three sets of tzitzit strings on a three cornered garment (for which there is no mitzva of tzitzit) and later forms a fourth corner, the existing sets of strings are invalid until he redoes them (Shulchan Aruch. OC 10:5). So, says the Taz, if one tied strings together before attaching the tzitzit to the garment, all is fine. However, if one originally attached tzitzit strings that were too short and tied on extensions afterwards, it is pasul because of tvlmh. What is more complicated is when the tzitzit were fine when they were attached, later strings ripped, and one wants to return them by tying. This seems to depend on a difference of opinion regarding a case of a mitzva that was done properly, lost relevance, and was restored (see Pitchei Teshuva, Yoreh Deah 286:13, regarding mezuzot on a doorway which went in, out, and back into obligation in mezuza). The Ba’er Heitev (OC 12:3) cites our Taz as saying that our case would be fine, but the Sha’arei Teshuva (ad loc.), Eliya Rabba (12:1), and Mishna Berura (12:7) point out that the correct reading of the Taz is that it is pasul. However, the Mishna Berura (ibid.) points out that if one fixed a string when the tzitzit had enough kosher strings, it is not a problem of tvlmh, and the string apparently counts in your case. The value of fixing can show itself if other strings rip even later. Also, an individual short string is not optimal (see Taz ibid.), and reattaching the string apparently fixes that drawback. Baruch Shem … at the Wrong TimePutting on tefillin, I (an Ashkenazi), after reciting “… l’haniach tefillin” and fastening the shel yad, recited “Baruch shem k’vod malchuto l’olam va’ed” (=bskmlv) instead of after putting on the shel rosh. What should I have done at that point?The gemara (Menachot 36a) states that one makes one beracha on tefillin but makes two if he talks between putting on the shel yad and shel rosh. One approach in Rishonim, accepted by Sephardim (see Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 25:6) is that these numbers are total berachot for the two tefillin. One normally recites only l’haniach before fastening the shel yad. If he talks, al mitzvat tefillin is added for the shel rosh. The opinion that Ashkenazim accept (see Rama ad loc.) is that one always recites al mitzvat on the shel rosh. One who spoke also repeats l’haniach before the shel rosh. Therefore, if saying bskmlv when you did is a full hefsek, you should have recited both berachot on the shel rosh (Shulchan Aruch ibid. 9). The Mishna Berura (ad loc. 32) adds that one should move the shel yad from its place and back and tighten the strap right before reciting l’haniach. The Mishna Berura (25:21) cautions not to recite bskmlv before securing the shel rosh in its proper position and says that reciting it early creates a beracha l’vatala, requiring repeating the beracha. As he treats bskmlv at the wrong time as a hefsek even b’di’eved, it follows that you, as an Ashkenazi, should have made the two berachot before putting on the shel rosh. A few things trouble me about this Mishna Berura’s contention (Rav Y.S. Klein (not famous) also raised these issues.) 1. If the early bskmlv is like talking, both berachot should be repeated, yet his language implies that only al mitzvat tefillin is repeated! If he means only one beracha, why, and what would it mean for our case? 2. The Mishna Berura’s source (Pri Megadim, EA 25:10) says that early bskmlv is a hefsek, but he does not say whether one must repeat the beracha. The Shulchan Aruch (OC 167:6) says that although one should not say anything between Hamotzi and eating the bread, if it was related to improving the meal, the beracha need not be repeated. One would think that bskmlv said a little early is related enough to not disqualify! There are other reasons why a mistimed bskmlv might not disqualify. The reason for bskmlv after al mitzvat tefillin is the possibility that it is l’vatala (see Magen Avraham 25:10). This is based on the Yerushalmi (Berachot 6:1, accepted by Shulchan Aruch, OC 206:6) that the affront of desecrating Hashem’s Name with a beracha l’vatala is mitigated by using the beracha as a prompt for bskmlv. This makes it similar to saying baruch hu u’varuch shmo (= bhuvsh; see Shulchan Aruch, OC 124:5) after hearing His Name in a beracha. There is a machloket (see Mishna Berura 124:21) whether the beracha of one who says bhuvsh when he should not have is disqualified. Ma’aseh Rokeiach (Berachot 1:11) assumes that even if the one making the beracha inserts bhuvsh into his beracha, it is not l’vatala. It makes sense that a misplaced bskmlv would be subject to the same machloket. There is logic that reciting something one thought was appropriate for the beracha but was mistaken (like here) is not a hefsek b’di’eved. It even seems to have a clear source – if one recites on whiskey, “… melech ha’olam borei pri hagafen shehakol n’hiya b’dvaro,” the mistaken words are not a hefsek b’di’eved (Shulchan Aruch, OC 209:2). Rav Preil (Rav of Elizabeth; Hamaor, vol. I, 12) says it is because the mistaken part was said with the intention of it being right (see Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 47:(218)). Rav Kook (Orach Mishpat 127) argued, saying it is because he “erased” the mistaken words. In summary, I am torn between “pulls” – 1. Follow the Mishna Berura’s apparent opinion to make two berachot on the shel rosh. 2. Consider the Shulchan Aruch’s ruling (to which the Rama is sensitive) that after talking, one makes one beracha plus our suggestion that bskmlv is better than talking and apply safek berachot l’hakel. Hamotzi and Birkat Hamazon on MezonotI understand that if one eats a sufficient amount of food whose beracha is Mezonot (=mezonot), he recites Hamotzi and Birkat Hamazon (=BHM) on it. Do bread and mezonot combine to comprise the required amount when each separately lacks a shiur? How about different types of mezonot, e.g., cake and oatmeal?The gemara (Berachot 42a) says that for pat haba’ah b’kisnin (=phbbk), food that shares qualities with bread but is not normal bread, whether one recites Hamotzi or Mezonot on it depends on whether one is koveia seuda (sets a meal) on it. When phbbk gets Hamotzi, one also recites BHM on it (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 168:6) and washes on it (ibid. 158:1). To be a candidate for bread status, food must be made from “the five grains” and be baked or look like bread. (Spaghetti is not phbbk or treated like bread no matter how much of it one eats – see ibid. 168:10). Various characteristics determine whether foods that pass these tests are bread or phbbk (ibid. 7). A k’zayit of bread suffices to require BHM, (ibid. 9), but if one eats less, phbbk cannot take it over that threshold, because objects with different shiurim do not join together to reach the shiur (see Shabbat 76a). However, if one was slightly short of the shiur needed for phbbk, the bread, with its smaller shiur, can complete the bigger shiur needed for phbbk (ibid.). Different types of bread combine for a k’zayit and types of phbbk combine for kevi’at seuda. (Arguably, elevating phbbk to bread status must focus on one food, but I have not found sufficient basis for this in the sources.) The Magen Avraham (=MA) went much further in combining things, claiming that it is enough that the meal with phbbk is a real meal. He writes: “If he set his meal on [phbbk], even though he ate with it meat and other things and if he had eaten [that amount he had of] it by itself he would not have been satiated from it, he still recites Hamotzi and BHM.” His approach emanates from the gemara (ibid.) and Rishonim who describe eating of these semi-breads as that which is done at a normal meal. After all, a normal meal includes foods other than bread. So while no amount of cooked or fried grain-based food could get Hamotzi, oatmeal that you mentioned and many other things one has as part of a meal with, say, a boreka, can, according to the MA, change the boreka’s beracha to Hamotzi. I must warn you, though, that it is very difficult to apply the matter of being koveia seuda on phbbk. First, there is a machloket whether the amount of kevi’at seuda to eat depends on the individual’s satiation or how much most people eat (see opinions in Rosh, Berachot 6:30). Another regarded approach sets the amount at the size (weight/volume?) of three or four eggs. This is a cutoff point regarding certain halachot of serious eating, even though it does not satiate most people (see Mishna Berura 168:24). There is also a machloket whether we accept the MA to include other foods eaten at the meal to reach kevi’at seuda – the Mishna Berura (ibid.) accepts him; the Birkei Yosef (OC 168:6) and Aruch Hashulchan (OC 168:17) disagree. There are also several permutations and opinions about how broadly to apply the MA. Is it only for foods that are eaten with the mezonot, e.g., crackers and cheese, a sandwich on a “mezonot roll” (see discussions in V’zot Haberacha 4:3; Netivot Haberacha 57)? Is it only when the mezonot and other foods are eaten at the same time (Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 54:(132) in the name of Rav Auerbach)? Rav Moshe Feinstein (Igrot Moshe, OC II, 32) has an expansive approach. While the MA assumes the phbbk must play a major part of the meal, Rav Moshe reasons that today’s trend to eat less bread at meals than was once standard lowers the amount of phbbk needed as well. Many poskim assume there is a difference between l’chatchila and b’di’eved, i.e., avoid meals with significant phbbk and no bread due to the huge gray area. Nevertheless, common practice is to eat non-bread meals without Hamotzi/BHM (see Avnei Yashfeh II, OC 20; Teshuvot V’hanhagot I:182). Purim on Motzaei ShabbatWhat should we know about the transition from Shabbat to Purim this year (outside Yerushalayim)?There are no major issues, but there are a few that are worthwhile to raise. Normally, it is forbidden to eat a half hour before the time for Megilla reading (Mishna Berura 692:15; see Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 235:2), which is tzeit hakochavim. However, since seuda shlishit is a mitzva and it freezes, in some ways, the coming of the next day, one may continue to eat until tzeit hakochavim (Mikraei Kodesh (Harari), Purim 4:5 in the name of Rav Mordechai Eliyahu). Using one’s standard assumption of when tzeit hakochavim is (not including the extra time for ending Shabbat), he might have to finish slightly before usual. There may be also be a slight advantage to finishing eating bread by sunset or at least tzeit hakochavim to avoid the question about whether he should be saying Al Hanissim in Birkat Hamazon (see Mishna Berua 188:33). In any case, one should not recite Al Hanissim even if he bentches after tzeit hakochavim (ibid.). It is generally forbidden to prepare (hachana) on Shabbat for Motzaei Shabbat, even for a purpose of an after-Shabbat mitzva (see Mishna Berura 667:5). However, one may prepare the laining on Shabbat even from a Megilla scroll (it is therefore not muktzeh – Mishna Berura 688:18). It is forbidden to bring the Megilla to shul on Shabbat, even if there is an eiruv, due to hachana (Chayei Adam II:155:10), unless he will read/learn from it before Shabbat ends (Sha’arei Teshuva 693:2; see Machazei Eliyahu 58). Rishonim debate whether to read Megillat Esther in shul before or after Havdala (see Darchei Moshe, OC 693:2). The opinion accepted both by Ashkenazim (Rama, OC 693:1) and Sephardim (see Chazon Ovadia, Purim p. 68) is to read the Megilla before Havdala. The Levush and Gra (to OC 693:1) say the reason is to delay the exit of Shabbat (based on Pesachim 105b) despite the preference that we usually do the more common mitzva first. This is one of the factors in the machloket whether to light Chanuka candles before or after Havdala (see Mishna Berura 681:3 and Be’ur Halacha ad loc.). Some say that the matters are fully equivalent, and in both areas, in shul one does Havdala after the present mitzva, whereas at home there is more reason to do Havdala first (Da’at Torah to 693:1). Some say that Megilla reading has a special status of pirsumei nisa that exceeds even that of Chanuka candles (Imrei Esh, OC 53). Another machloket is, given that Havdala is done after the Megilla, whether one should at least make the beracha on fire before that. The Kolbo’s (41) first opinion is that we should thank Hashem for light before benefitting from it during the reading, and this is the minhag of most Sephardim (Chazon Ovadia ibid. p. 67). Ashkenazim follow the Kolbo’s second opinion, that there is no problem with using light before the beracha, as that requirement is fulfilled every morning, and here it is a general praise for Hashem’s introducing fire to Adam (Pri Megadim, MZ 693:1, based on Maharsh Halevi, OC 28). There is an apparently relatively recent practice, with significant upside in many communities – to hold Ma’ariv on Motzaei Shabbat/Purim well after its regular time. This gives families the time to prepare for Megilla reading (including driving, getting kids’ costumes on, etc.). It is possible to make Havdala before Ma’ariv, including the Havdala candle, after making a declaration of ending Shabbat, at the proper time (see Mishna Berura 294:1). Under these circumstances that many people will be doing significant melacha before Ma’ariv, it is likely also worthwhile to do full Havdala (see Shulchan Aruch, OC 299:10). There is no problem here doing Havdala before Megilla reading, considering that the communal reading is not ready to be done yet (one should not eat other than drinking the “Havdala wine”). In shuls that never do Havdala on Motzaei Shabbat, there should be no need on Purim. For those shuls that recite Havdala, it is best that one who has not yet recited Havdala do so. Eating Matza for Health Reasons in NisanI now eat matza throughout the year as a replacement for bread as a big part of reducing salt intake, on doctor’s orders. My family minhag I have always kept is to suspend eating matza from Rosh Chodesh Nisan. May I continue to eat matza until erev Pesach?The Yerushalmi (Pesachim 10:1) forbids eating matza on Erev Pesach, comparing it to having relations with one’s fiancée before their wedding. One explanation is that when eating matza is about to be a mitzva, one should wait to eat it as a mitzva as opposed to personal desire (see Levush, OC 471:2; Igrot Moshe, Orach Chayim I:155). The Rambam (Chametz U’matza 6:12) says that it is to make the mitzva of matza recognizable. There is a machloket among Rishonim whether this restriction is only at the time of day when it is already forbidden to eat chametz (Rosh, Pesachim 3:7) or is all day (Ramban, Pesachim 15b of Rif’s pages, accepted by the Rama, Orach Chayim 471:2). Poskim disagree regarding the night before (see opinions in Dirshu 471:7). (This is important when Erev Pesach is on Shabbat – see Living the Halachic Process IV, D-15). Before this time, no one forbids eating matza on standard halachic grounds. The expansion to well before Pesach comes at the time of early Acharonim. The Sheyarei Knesset Hagedola (471, HBY 3, quoted as an option by several Acharonim) cites a minhag in Constantinople to refrain from eating matza from Rosh Chodesh Nisan. Rav Moshe Feinstein (Igrot Moshe ibid.) explains the logic as follows. Once one is already supposed to be thinking about Pesach, there is logic to avoid eating matza before it is a mitzva. The earliest time is 30 days before Pesach (see Pesachim 6a), which is too early to expect of most people, but it is positive if righteous people accept it upon themselves from Rosh Chodesh or even 30 days. The Sheyarei Knesset Hagedola seems to understand the rationale differently. He connects the minhag to a minhag the Rama (ibid.) brings to eat a minimum amount of matza on the first day of Pesach in chutz la’aretz to help go into the second Seder with an appetite for more matza. This stresses the “experiential” rather than the matza’s halachic status. Even on Erev Pesach, a few leniencies might apply to your case. It is agreed that it is only for the type of matza one can use for the Seder, which excludes at least matza ashira (egg matzas) (Shulchan Aruch, OC 471:2). It is a good question whether it applies to matzot whose physical qualities are like matzot for Pesach but were not prepared with the halachot of matzot for Pesach. The Rivash (Shut 402), stressing the halachic side, forbids to eat such matza on Erev Pesach because of the opinions that permit them for the Seder if proper matzot are not available. The experiential approach helps us understand the lenient opinion regarding the “extension time” that those who always eat hand-matzot at the Seder may eat machine matzot before, because they taste different (Piskei Teshuvot 471:4 based on unnamed poskim). Based on regular halachic rules, there is no need to be machmir on an optional extension of a Rabbinic halacha in the face of important health considerations. (Even if you can find dietary alternatives, few people are good at effectively changing a system that is working.) The problem is that you have been refraining even from matza that is not for Pesach. While a family minhag is weaker than the minhag of a place (Pitchei Teshuva, Yoreh Deah 214:5), since you have been following it as an adult (ibid.) and especially if it has been in your family for generations (see Kol Nidrei 75:8), it should be binding on you. You might draw on the Divrei Yatziv’s (OC 188) logic – it should be permitted to eat matza due to sickness, because it is not giving in to desires. Even if we will not rely on that logic, we usually assume an originally optional family minhag does not apply when a special strong need exists to not follow it (see Chayei Adam II:127:6). However, it is best to also do hatarat nedarim on the minhag (see Kol Nidrei 76:3). How Many K’zeitim and Why?I have heard that the mitzva of eating matza was supposed to be to eat one k’zayit but that it became a mitzva to eat five k’zeitim. Is that true, and if so, how and why is that?There is no individual mitzva to eat five k’zeitim of matza. Rather, the fact that matza “wears different hats” makes it necessary to eat multiple k’zeitim – between three and five to be “less exact.” The first two “hats” come at what we call “motzi, matza.” The Seder is a Yom Tov meal, which, Rabbinically, requires bread, which must be matza rather than chametz. At this time (according to most Rishonim – see below), we also want to fulfill the mitzva from the Torah to eat matza (Pesachim 120a). The interaction between the two requirements causes complication. We usually have two full loaves (lechem mishneh) for Shabbat/Yom Tov meals (Berachot 39b). On Pesach, we use a broken “loaf” of matza, based on the idea of lechem oni (ibid.). One machloket Rishonim is whether we need lechem mishneh plus a broken matza or that one of the two loaves should be broken (see Rosh, Pesachim 10:30). We pasken the former approach (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 475:1). Another machloket Rishonim (see Tosafot, Berachot 39b) is whether the same matza can be used for the two elements. One approach is that if one uses one matza despite the two berachot (and elements), it violates the rule to not do “mitzvot in bunches.” A second approach is that it is enough to eat from one matza because there is one classic mitzva (eating matza). The beracha of Hamotzi is just a regular beracha on food, not a separate act of mitzva or a sign of one. The Shulchan Aruch (OC 475:1) rules that we must eat from separate matzot and adds that one requires a k’zayit from each. This is the “second k’zayit.” Some question why we would need a full k’zayit from the “matza of Hamotzi,” considering that we make Hamotzi on any amount of bread. The Pri Chadash (ad loc., cited by the Mishna Berura 475:9) says it is because of a machloket whether the whole matza is for Hamotzi and the broken one is for the mitzva of matza, or vice versa. This causes us to treat each matza as if it is the one for the mitzva of matza, so that we need a k’zayit of each. Some say that this chumra is anachronistic. Since nowadays participants only receive a small amount from the “whole” and “broken” matzot held by the leader of the Seder, there is little purpose for more than a second full k’zayit (see Dirshu 474:8; Halichot Shlomo, Moadim I:9:40). Others try to uphold the minhag of two k’zeitim on various grounds (see Piskei Teshuvot 475:5). In any case, all major requirements are fulfilled by eating one k’zayit from any matza (Mishna Berura 575:11). The next k’zayit is for korech, which is a remembrance of the way Hillel instructed people to eat matza and maror together when having a Seder with a Korban Pesach. For this, all agree that one k’zayit suffices. The final eating is the afikoman. The Shulchan Aruch (OC 477:1) suffices with one k’zayit, but Acharonim bring a minhag to have two k’zeitim. Some Rishonim (see Rashi, Pesachim 119b) say afikoman is intended to be the main fulfillment of eating matza, but that does not explain two k’zeitim since there is no new beracha of Hamotzi on it. The Magen Avraham (477:1) says that since the afikoman is a remembrance of the Korban Pesach, (Rosh, Pesachim 10:34), we have one k’zayit to represent the korban and one representing the matza eaten with it. The Taz (477:1) says that we eat an especially big amount because the mitzva is dear to us. Either way, this minhag is a chumra, which is no more than preferable (Mishna Berura 477:1; Yalkut Yosef, Tzafun 1). The stakes between the different opinions are small. Poskim agree that for the “second k’zayit” each time, one can follow a lenient opinion on the size of a k’zayit, and most of us will eat a much bigger shiur if we assume only k’zayit (see Ohr L’tziyon III:15:12). So our big k’zayit will come at least close to covering a basic two k’zeitim. Shalom Zachar without the Baby and ParentsMy son had a baby boy today (Thursday). He will be staying with his wife in the hospital over Shabbat and does not expect to make a Shalom Zachar there. Is there a point for a grandfather to make the Shalom Zachar without the baby and his parents?The minhag of a Shalom Zachar is mentioned by a couple of Rishonim and may have a source in the gemara. The gemara (Bava Kama 80a) mentions an Amora going to a shavua haben or yeshua haben. While Rashi relates this to a pidyon haben, Tosafot cites an opinion that it was to celebrate the birth of the baby, who was safely extricated from his mother’s womb. The Terumat Hadeshen (I:269) connects it to the minhag that existed in his time and ours, to have a celebration with food on the night of the baby’s first full Shabbat. (The Orchot Chayim (Mila) says something similar.) The Rama (Yoreh Deah 265:12) cites this minhag as standard, and it is so for Ashkenazim to this day. (Sephardim have a similar observance the night before the brit called a Brit Yitzchak, and some Ashkenazim also do a practice called “vach nacht” that night). The question of whether it is better for the nuclear family to do it alone or for grandparents to have one with greater participation is a good one. Several explanations are given for Shalom Zachar, and, at first glance, they influence the answer to your question. The Terumat Hadeshen (ibid.) relates it to celebration of the birth, which should include thanks to Hashem, which makes it a seudat mitzva. Anyone who feels connected can thank Hashem for that, but parents most so. A midrash (Vayikra Rabba 27:10) tells that the timing of a brit mila significantly ensures that babies “experience” Shabbat before undergoing a brit mila. This makes the day significant in the baby’s life, but his presence should not be necessary. Teshuvot V’hanhagot (II:202) similarly says that we find in a few contexts that the Shabbat before a major event captures some of its glory, which makes it fit for looking forward and, in this case, thanking Hashem. The parents are most connected to the baby and the father alone is obligated in the brit (Kiddushin 29a), but, again, anyone who cares about the baby can be connected. Certainly, grandparents, who are expected to have a special connection to the child’s spiritual future (see Shemot 10:2; Devarim 4:9; Rambam, Talmud Torah 1:2) are also significant. The Derisha (YD 264:2) says that at the Shalom Zachar, we console the baby for the loss of the Torah he studied in his mother’s womb (based on Nida 30b). This could lead to the conclusion that the baby must be at the Shalom Zachar to be consoled (Teshuvot V’hanhagot II:202). The fact that it is often done even without the baby can be attributed to the other reasons (ibid.). Furthermore, even the consoling does not have practical impact (not meaning to insult the baby’s intellect), but is spiritual or perhaps symbolic. So it is possible that “consolation” can be gained when people gather in the baby’s honor and bless him in abstentia. Is the participation of people outside the nuclear family important? Many sources (including the early ones) refer to people coming. Considering there is no ceremony and the food served is minor (see Aruch Hashulchan, OC 265:37), the visitation is apparently central to the event (see explanations in Osin B’simcha, Ma’amar 4). Considering the above, it is fully appropriate for you to make a Shalom Zachar. This does not exclude the parents doing something low-key at the hospital, and they can “turn it into” a Shalom Zachar by eating traditional Shalom Zachar foods (e.g., chickpeas, almonds), thanking Hashem for the birth, and discussing the upcoming brit’s significance. Eating Meat at a Table with Incidentally Placed Milk FoodI know that it is forbidden to eat fleishig food when others are eating milchig food. If the milk food is not there in the context of eating but, for example, someone put it there while reorganizing the refrigerator, may I eat meat at that time?We have not found discussion of your interesting case, but an answer apparently emerges by analyzing the underlying principles and “listening to the silence.” The topic begins with mishnayot (Chulin 103b & 104b) that rule that one must not eat meat at a table that has cheese on it, but may have these foods side-by-side on a table at which food is being prepared. The Shulchan Aruch (Yoreh Deah 88:1, based on Rambam, Ma’achalot Assurot 9:20) explains that the concern is that one might end up eating the two foods together. (Rashi ad loc. speaks about eating one after it is soiled by the other.) Another mishna (ibid. 107b, according to the gemara ibid.) says that two people who do not know each other may eat milchig and fleishig at the same table (implying that if they know each other, it is forbidden – Shulchan Aruch ibid. 2). The logic is that we do not suspect that one will eat the other’s food. Your case falls between those of the mishnayot, as follows. 1. On the one hand, you are eating and not merely working with food, but on the other hand, the second food is not being eaten. 2. While in your case, there is no one else eating who may interest you in the other type of food, there is also no one eating the other food who may stop you from eating it. According to the Shulchan Aruch’s reasoning (he may eat the other food), if he is eating and there is available food, the fact that the second food is not being eaten now (#1) does not seem to take away the temptation of eating it. Regarding the absence of a second person (#2), we find in poskim, including the Chochmat Adam (40:11), that the problem is at least as bad when one is eating alone. Does intention take away the concern that he might eat anyway? Lack of explicit sources for such a distinction is a strong indicator that we cannot create one. Furthermore, in the regular forbidden case, a kashrut-observant person who is eating meat is not planning to eat milchig food for hours, and still Halacha forbids it to be on his table. The argument to reject this leniency is also strengthened by the gemara (ibid. 107b), which explicitly applies to this prohibition the concept of lo plug (we apply the Halacha broadly even to specific cases where the logic does not fully apply). There are, though, acceptable leniencies found in the gemara and poskim regarding this halacha. The gemara (Chulin 107b) says that the prohibition is only when the two people are eating in one “tefisa.” Most Rishonim (see Tosafot ad loc.; Beit Yosef, Orach Chayim 173) say that this means that if there is a noticeable separator (heker) between the two foods, it is permitted (we assume it applies even when a person is eating alone (see Chochmat Adam ibid.). This includes having one eating on a different surface (e.g., via a tablecloth or place mat) than the other (Rama, YD 88:2). Placing objects with some height that are not usually on the table also helps (see ibid., Taz ad loc. 4). Also, the Pitchei Teshuva (ad loc. 3) rules that it is permitted when the other food is far enough away that one cannot reach it without getting up. There may be further leniency in a case where the other food is still packaged, as Rashi’s reason about food getting soiled would not apply. While Badei Hashulchan (88:6) is stringent, there is an opinion (Rashash, Chulin 103b) that it is permitted to eat one type of food when the other one is in a utensil (i.e., it is unlikely the foods will touch). If the food is on the table in a way that it is clear to all that it is not to be eaten now (e.g., it is in a supermarket bag along with other foods), then arguably the situation serves as a heker. However, since these are conjectures and the accepted solutions are easily accomplished, one should avail himself of the standard solutions. Possible Orla in SoapI bought an Israeli-produced soap that claims to use fruit extracts for fragrance, without further detail. Does that require a hechsher to ensure it does not contain orla (fruit in a tree’s first three years)?Your question shows halachic acuity. We will start with a case where the fruit is orla. Orla is forbidden in benefit (Orla 3:1; Pesachim 24b), and this is likely a full-fledged Torah-level prohibition in Eretz Yisrael even in our times, when many land-based prohibitions are Rabbinic (implication of Shulchan Aruch, Yoreh Deah 294:9; Mishneh Lamelech, Maachalot Assurot 10:11 argues). On the other hand, if a usage is abnormal for this species (likely true for fragrance for many fruit), some say it is only Rabbinically forbidden or even permitted (see discussion in Yalkut Yosef, Orla 2:10). Although orla applies only to edible fruit (Vayikra 19:23), the soap’s being unfit for a dog’s consumption (which is important regarding chametz) does not help regarding non-eating benefit, if the fruit became forbidden as orla when it grew (Yalkut Yosef ibid. 19). The soap’s percentage of orla fruit can be important. While bitul of orla requires 200 to 1 of permitted substance (Orla 1:6), that is only for mixtures within the same species, but if fruit is mixed in with something else (e.g., soap), the normal rate of bitul of 60 applies (Pri Megadim, intro. to Hilchot Ta’arovot). If the fruit’s fragrance is clearly discernable (possibly, the main fragrance is chemical, and they put in a tiny amount of fruit as a marketing ploy), we have an interesting question. There is a machloket (see Acharonim on Rama, YD 102:1) whether there is bitul when the mixture’s forbidden part is small enough for bitul, but it is noticeable due to its color. Arguably, the same bitul impediment could apply to the fruit’s noticeable fragrance (likely, only Rabbinically – see Badei Hashulchan 102:16). The doubt about whether the fruit used in the soap are orla at all provides significant, possible grounds for leniency. Orla fruit are almost always a small percentage of the fruit market. The rule is that when there is an actual or virtual “market” of food, where the majority of the sources are kosher, if one encounters food of unknown origin away from the “market” (parish), we may assume is from the permitted majority. If one took the food from the market without noticing whether it was from a permitted or forbidden source (kavu’a), we treat the food’s status as a safek (Ketubot 15a). Since the consumer encounters the fruit in the soap away from its “market” ((sections of) orchards throughout the country), the majority chance is that the fruit was not orla. (We are describing a case in which the fruit in the package of soap comes from a limited number of trees. If the fruit element in each comes from a huge mixture coming from a wide amount and variety of locations, we must use different tools of analysis, relating to bitul. That is beyond our present scope, but likely brings a leniency-leaning outcome.) However, there is a problem. According to the simple reading of the Shulchan Aruch (YD 110:3), if a Jew took or had the food taken, without taking note of its halachic status, from the origin to the place of the person asking the question, we treat the food as kavu’a and thereby as a safek whether it is kosher. Just as it was forbidden for the one who took it, so is it for the ones (e.g., stores, consumers) who got it from him. See Yabia Omer VI, YD 24 who brings many opinions on whether this stringency is correct regarding fruit at the grocer. His conclusion is that there are enough reasons for doubt (including those we have not mentioned) why a given fruit is not orla that we can permit fruit without an orla hashgacha. He praises the many who do seek certification, although it is accepted that for the majority of fruit species with a tiny percentage of orla, we can assume each fruit is kosher. Considering all the above, we posit that you may freely use the soap in question without concern about orla. The Sick Fasting on Tisha B’avHow sick does one need to be to be exempt from fasting on Tisha B’av? What food limitations, if any, does he have?The closest gemara on the subject says that pregnant and nursing women are required to fast on Tisha B’av (Pesachim 54b). Rishonim posit that this is because they are considered healthy, but that a woman within thirty days after childbirth and a person who is sick with a not-expected-to-be dangerous illness need not fast (see Ran, Ta’anit 10a of Rif’s pages; Beit Yosef, Orach Chayim 554). Although such people must fast on Yom Kippur (see details in Shulchan Aruch, OC 617:4), Tisha B’av is different because it is not a Torah-level prohibition. Even though the non-dangerously sick may not eat a Rabbinically forbidden food (Shulchan Aruch, Yoreh Deah 123:2), the Rabbis built into the institution of the fast of Tisha B’av that it does not apply to clearly sick/weak people (Ran, ibid.; Shulchan Aruch, OC 554:6). How do we define sick in this regard? The leading definition regarding Shabbat leniencies is nafal l’mishkav – needing to spend serious time in bed (Shulchan Aruch, OC 328:17). That phrase is not found in the poskim here (see Aruch Hashulchan, OC 554:7). Significant fever certainly qualifies, as well as conditions that fasting complicates (see Ohr L’tzion III, 29:(5)). Generally, a situation that prevents the average person from going to work is included. Remember, our sick person is equivalent to a woman in the first month after birth (the differences are that she can feel perfectly wonderful, but her body is known to have gone through a major trauma). Rav M. Feinstein (Igrot Moshe, OC IV:114) says that one who is fasting particularly poorly counts as sick. It is very difficult to know where to draw the line on that (consider that fasting is usually difficult for pregnant and nursing mothers). Regarding a woman after childbirth, the Rama (OC 554:6) says that despite the halachic exemption, the minhag is to fast (see Chayei Adam II, 135:2; Mishna Berura 554:13). Regarding a sick person, stringency is less encouraged (ibid. and ibid:16). To what extent do we say the fast does not exist, as opposed to the situation of a dangerously sick person on Yom Kippur, to whom the fast exists but is compromised as needed (Shulchan Aruch, OC 618:7)? The Shulchan Aruch (OC 554:6) says it was not instituted for them – apparently, at all. Therefore, several poskim said that there is no need to limit eating (Kaf Hachayim, OC 554:31; Avnei Nezer, OC 540; Shevet Halevi IV:56). It is also possible to say that a sick person should try to limit the amount of eating on Tisha B’av, but the specific size/time formula (shiurim) we find regarding Yom Kippur (see Shulchan Aruch, OC 618:8) is irrelevant. The Aruch Hashulchan (OC 554:7) implies that shiurim are significant only concerning Torah-law prohibitions. There, they are important for the Torah punishment, which does not apply to Rabbinic prohibitions like eating on Tisha B’av. This is not obvious because the gemara (Yoma 79a) bases the amounts for Yom Kippur on their effect on the experience of fasting, which can apply to Tisha B’av as well. The difference between the approaches to why not to require shiurim is regarding other means of limiting the eating. The Chayei Adam (ibid.) says that one should try to fast part of the day (see Yoma 82a in regard to the partial fasting of children under bar/bat mitzva). Some explain that the delaying or minimizing of the eating does not indicate a partial existence of the fast per se, but is based on the idea of wanting to share with the general pain that everyone is experiencing (see Chut Shani III:93). There may be a distinction between someone who starts the day fully sick and someone who we do not want to fast because it likely will make him sick, in which case he should wait until it is necessary (see Dirshu 554:26). [Most people reading this are more likely to be more stringent on this matter than required, or even more than preferable, than to be too lenient; it is hard to blame them.] Hanging and Using Hammocks on ShabbatI want to buy a hammock and am considering two types. One is attached to two trees, and one is fastened to a frame that sits on the ground. Are there problems, for either type, with hanging them (ohel (canopy/tent-like structure)?) or using them on Shabbat?The gemara (Shabbat 155a) says that one may not “use,” including by leaning on, a tree, as well as something that is connected or supported by a tree (e.g., a nail, rope, ladder) on Shabbat. Therefore, it is forbidden to lie on a hammock if it is tied to the tree directly; it is permitted if the hammock is attached to something connected to the tree (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 336:13). (Many hammocks come with parts in a manner that it is not obvious if it is considered one apparatus connected to the tree, or that one piece is connected to the tree and the main part of the hammock is twice removed and permitted.) Also, the lying on the hammock must not make the tree(s) move (Mishna Berura 336:63). Hanging a tree-attached hammock, even to something already attached to the tree, will be a violation. Lying in one hung before Shabbat will depend whether the hammock is tied to the tree, or to something attached to the tree, and on the strength of the tree and weight of the person. These issues are not a problem for a hammock that is attached to a frame. Is hanging the hammock considered making an ohel? Since a hammock is mainly horizontal, it is a candidate for ohel, which can be forbidden to erect even if it does not connect to a vertical wall (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 315:1). However, it is permitted to erect a temporary horizontal structure if it is not done to protect that which is below it unless it connects to vertical walls/boards (ibid. 3; Rama ibid. 7). A hammock connected to mere trees/poles would not have that problem. A net-style hammock may have another reason to not have a problem of ohel. It is permitted to hang a material that has more "air" than fabric (Tosafot, Eruvin 102a; see R. Akiva Eiger, OC 315:2). This may be the case with a net fabric for a hammock, while on the other hand, the fabric of some hammocks gathers together when no one is in the hammock. In the latter case, it might be more fabric than air. Is putting a body or a cloth on a net-style hammock, creating an ohel? Surprisingly, the gemara (Eruvin 102a) says that if the strands are within three tefachim of each other, it is considered, for the sake of leniency, a case where the ohel pre-exists and one can add on to it (see also Shulchan Aruch, OC 315:2). (It also does not appear that the body of a person lying down can be a forbidden ohel.) Swinging in the hammock will not be forbidden as creating an ohel in a new place, as it is permitted to move an existing ohel to a new place (Piskei Teshuvot 315:2). (Why, then, it is forbidden to use an open umbrella is a good question beyond our scope.) In any case, we saw that due to the lack of vertical walls or need to protect that which is below, a hammock is not a forbidden ohel. Still, we cannot give broad permission to hang hammocks on Shabbat because the potential of other problems exists. In some models, there is a need or a likelihood of tying forbidden knots. Attaching the hammock to different types of frames can potentially be forbidden due to boneh or tikkun kli (different forms of forbidden building). Various parameters determine when an attachment is forbidden, and some of the major factors are: the connection’s strength, the expected or standard duration of the connection, and whether it is attached to something that is attached to the ground (see our Ask the Rabbi column for Va’ethchanan 5784). These can depend on the model and on how an individual makes and uses it. We would therefore expect someone (unless he is capable of working out the halachic calculations of his specific case) to put up the hammock before Shabbat if he will want to use it. It will then be permitted to use it in most cases (as we explained above). Things that End the Meal and RamificationsWhen do we say that thinking or doing things that indicate the end of a bread meal make it necessary to make a beracha before eating more?There are many permutations to this question. We will deal with the basic understanding and some of the more practical and instructive cases. The gemara (Berachot 42a) cites varied opinions as to whether after reaching the end of a meal one is allowed to eat and concludes that only if one washes mayim acharonim must one proceed directly to Birkat Hamazon. The logic it provides for this conclusion is that we say: “Immediately after netilat yadayim (Rashi – i.e., mayim acharonim) must come a beracha (ibid. – Birkat Hamazon).” A different gemara (Pesachim 103a) says that if one says “Hav lan v’nivrich,” it becomes forbidden to drink because “they have taken their mind off” of eating. “Hav lan v’nivrich” means to bring wine to use for Birkat Hamazon but includes equivalent statements of imminent bentching (see Mishna Berura 179:3), but not preliminary statements like “It’s getting late; it’s time to bentch” (see Piskei Teshuvot 179:(4)). It must be said by someone who is “authorized” to end the meal, so that if there is a host, it must have been said by him (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 179:2). Rashi (ad loc.) says that after “Hav lan v’nivrich” he mustn’t eat until after Birkat Hamazon, while others (see Beit Yosef, OC 179) say that taking the mind off eating only makes it necessary to make a beracha rishona before continuing eating, but that this can be done before Birkat Hamazon. The Shulchan Aruch (OC 179:1) accepts the opinion that distinguishes between mayim acharonim and prompting Birkat Hamazon verbally. If one does mayim acharonim, he must bentch before eating any more. If he verbally announces Birkat Hamazon, he can eat before it, but he has to make a new beracha rishona beforehand. This might be true of a clear decision to not eat anymore before Birkat Hamazon (Mishna Berura 179:3; see Be’ur Halacha ad loc.). The problem in implementing these halachot (other than that of mayim acharonim) is that there are both machlokot and gray areas. First, the Shulchan Aruch (ibid.) cites a machloket whether the requirement of a new beracha is only for drinking or even for eating. It is not fully clear how the Acharonim decide the matter, and the matter is complicated by the rule of safek berachot l’hakel (Bi’ur Halacha ad loc.). In other words, there are enough opinions that an additional beracha is not needed for us to want to avoid the berachot. On the other hand, it is not a simple matter to eat without a beracha that is likely called for. Therefore, the most recommended thing to do is to refrain from eating additional foods from the time that is apparently considered hesech hada’at from the meal until after Birkat Hamazon. One might claim that this waiting until after Birkat Hamazon, when a beracha is definitely needed, creates a beracha she’eina tzricha (an appropriate beracha under the circumstances, but the situation was created artificially). However, it is a legitimate step to set up the situation to avoid a doubt on berachot, so that the beracha is fine (Pri Megadim, Pticha L’hilchot Berachot 10). A decision to stop without action/verbalization is not only questionable halachically, but it is also difficult to determine when a decision is resolute (see Dirshu 179:6 in the name of Rav Elyashiv). Therefore, if one likes eating with discipline, he should avoid changing his mind, but it is wiser to train himself that his thought process is not binding until he bentches. Arguably, reciting Shir Hama’alot is a clear sign of an imminent Birkat Hamazon. However, several poskim do not think Shir Hama’alot precludes eating without a new beracha (see B’tzel Hachochma VI:68; Dirshu 179:4). The fact that its recitation is a relatively recent minhag (see Mishna Berura 1:11) as opposed to a Talmudic pre-Birkat-Hamazon halacha of mayim acharonim, may strengthen the view that it is not a binding commitment to an immediate Birkat Hamazon. Mitzvot of Meals for Those Who Must Eat on Yom KippurI unfortunately must eat basically regularly on Yom Kippur. Which of the mitzva elements of a Yom Tov meal (Kiddush, Hamotzi, Birkat Hamazon additions) should I do?One can look at the religious perspective of a meal on Yom Kippur in two ways: 1. Yom Kippur is a Yom Tov, in which a proper meal could have been a mitzva if not for the greater importance of fasting, so that when one must eat, the mitzvot of a meal apply. 2. Since the broad rule is that we are forbidden to eat, the mitzvot associated with eating were not instituted at all. Now we will see sources. The Tur (Orach Chayim 618; see Shut Maharam Rutenberg 71) says that one who cannot fast on Yom Kippur recites Ya’aleh V’yavo in Birkat Hamazon. The Taz (OC 618:10) disagrees with the Tur, inferring from a gemara (Shabbat 24b) that we do not mention a special day in berachot/tefillot if the day’s connection to what we are saying is coincidental. As you raised, there are other issues that depend on the correct approach (although each has unique factors also). The Magen Avraham (618:10) rules that there is no Kiddush at a meal (regarding Kiddush in davening, see Har Tzvi, OC I:155) on Yom Kippur and cites a Shibolei Haleket saying that the prohibition to eat makes the day like a weekday, thus precluding Kiddush and Ya’aleh V’yavo. Another issue in the poskim is whether to have lechem mishneh. The Magen Avraham (ibid.) cites a Knesset Hagedola who says that since the manna did not fall on Yom Kippur, one who needs a meal should use lechem mishneh. The Magen Avraham disagrees, arguing that lechem mishneh was not instituted for Yom Kippur and that we do not want to make a sick person trouble himself with lechem mishneh. The Machatzit Hashekel raises another issue – did a double portion of manna fall on Erev Yom Kippur? There is not significant discussion in the poskim on whether, if lechem mishneh is not needed, one should eat bread in order to have a proper meal. Discussions (see Shulchan Aruch, OC 618:10) of what to say in bentching do imply that people are eating bread. However, this does not prove one is required to have bread, because classically bread was a natural staple of meals. In any case, we would add the following. While those who are unable to limit themselves to minimal, slow eating, are not instructed to be particularly careful to not eat more than absolutely necessary, it is halachically counter-productive to eat bread if it is less dietarily productive than other foods one could be eating. Regarding halacha l’ma’aseh conclusions, most poskim treat this matter as some level of safek as to which general approach is correct (see Mateh Ephraim 618:17; Mishna Berura 618:29). Therefore, on the matter of Ya’aleh V’yavo, the approach is that the pros of doing them outweigh any cons. (Ya’aleh V’yavo, even if not called for, does not create a problematic enough break to endanger Birkat Hamazon’s validity – see Shulchan Aruch, OC 108:12; Machatzit Hashekel ibid.) In contrast, one should not do a full Kiddush, which is said in the day if it was not done at night (Rama, OC 271:8), because of the risk of a beracha l’vatala. Lechem mishneh is not required, and it is unclear whether to prefer it (see Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 39:31; Dirshu 618:54). This year there is wrinkle in the matter. Since Yom Kippur falls on Shabbat, even if these mitzvot do not apply at all on Yom Kippur, they would seem to apply because it is Shabbat. Therefore, Rabbi Akiva Eiger (to Magen Avraham ibid.) believes it is likely that all should agree to make Kiddush this year. However, the Ohr Sameach (Avodat Yom Hakippurim 4:1) posits that Yom Kippur takes over the nature of Shabbat, so there is no mitzva to eat or make Kiddush even from the perspective of such a Shabbat. The silence of earlier poskim and the statements of recent Acharonim (see Har Tzvi, ibid; Igrot Moshe, Choshen Mishpat I, 39; Yaskil Avdi VIII, OC 20.34) indicate that R. Akiva Eiger’s thesis is not widely accepted. Kiddush and Havdala in ShulIn America, I remember that the shuls made Kiddush on Friday night and Havdala. In Israel, this is not standard. What is behind the different minhagim? Are Kiddush and Havdala dependent on each other in this matter?Kiddush and Havdala have similarities in this regard, but also differences. Kiddush in shul is presented as a given in the gemara (Pesachim 101a), the purpose being to facilitate the mitzva of Kiddush for visitors who eat in shul. Havdala in shul is not mentioned in the gemara, but the Tur (Orach Chayim 295) and Shulchan Aruch (ibid. 1) mandate it to be motzi those who do not have wine at home. Havdala in shul has precedent centuries earlier, as we see in the Mi Sheberach after Yekum Purkan, where we bless those who “give [the congregation] wine for Kiddush and Havdala.” Kiddush and Havdala in shul share the general question of whether to suspend ritual practices whose original justification are barely relevant in our days. After all, it is rare to have a visitor eat in shul, and it is rare for people to not have wine at home. The main attack on the old minhag on those grounds is found only regarding Kiddush (see Tur and Shulchan Aruch, OC 269:1). The Tur attacks, on fundamental grounds, the continued practice of Kiddush when there are no guests, but seems resigned to it in practice. He mentions (and rejects) Rav Natrunai’s explanation that we continue the practice because the wine of this Kiddush is therapeutic for an eye malady and not everyone has wine at home. The Shulchan Aruch brings two opinions as to whether to continue the minhag without good reason. He prefers discontinuing it and says that the minhag in Eretz Yisrael is not to do it. (Nusach) Ashkenazi minhag has been to do Kiddush in shul (Mishna Berura 269:4), perhaps powered by the Magen Avraham’s (69:3) approval. Regarding minhag Eretz Yisrael, Rav Frank (Har Tzvi, OC I, 153) said that in Yerushalayim, Kiddush should not be made in shul, but elsewhere in Israel both minhagim are acceptable (see also Dirshu 269:11) In contrast, regarding Havdala, the Tur and Shulchan Aruch (OC 295:1) take it as a given. While one can argue that it is more common for people to lack wine than for shuls to have eating guests, the main difference is something else. Friday night Kiddush contains berachot which if no one is having a meal at the place will be l’vatala (see Tur, OC 269). In contrast, because Havdala can be made anywhere, there is no fundamental reason for there to be a beracha l’vatala. The one thing that can go wrong with Havdala in shul is that sometimes no one wants to be yotzei with it. Whoever needs to make Havdala at home should not be yotzei at that time because it is very questionable whether he would then be permitted to make it for his wife and daughters (Mishna Berura 296:36; for explanation, see Living the Halachic Process, II, C-8). Even sons of the family who are in shul usually do not have in mind to be yotzei with the shul Havdala, although they could if they wanted to (see Mishna Berura 596:33). If no one including the one making Havdala is yotzei with it, it too can be a beracha l’vatala. A proper thing, which many shuls do, is to have a single man, e.g., including an over bar mitzva son of one of the families, make Havdala and have in mind to be motzi himself and anyone else who wants to be yotzei. However, the K’tzot Hashulchan (96:(9), accepted by the Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 60:13) says that if no one specifically wants to be yotzei in shul, we should not do it, because it was not formally instituted the way Kiddush was. Those shuls who regularly do Havdala even when there is no need either do not want to figure out each time if someone needs/desires it and therefore assume there is such a person, or they hold that the minhag for Havdala, even if not mentioned in Chazal, is a real takana. An informal survey I did among American community rabbis finds that all the permutations of practice to do or not do Kiddush and/or Havdala exist, and we have explained how they all can be readily justified. An Avel Attending a Seudat HodayaI was saved from a dangerous situation and was advised to make a seudat hodaya. One of the people I would most want to take part is my daughter-in-law (=dil), but she is in aveilut for a parent. Is it permitted for her to come, and if not, may I invite her anyway and leave it up to her, or perhaps delay the seuda until after her aveilut?We will take a brief look at the Halacha and also the personal side. The prohibition on simcha for an avel is most severe during shiva, but the gemara (Moed Katan 22b) says that an avel for a parent may not go to a wedding for twelve months. The gemara struggles with a category of happy social interaction called simchat merei’ut (of friendship), and the halacha is that it is forbidden for twelve months (Shulchan Aruch, Yoreh Deah 391:2). Two main parameters are crucial on ruling in various cases. 1. How festive is the event? 2. How important is it for the avel to be there? Weddings are the pinnacle of festivity, yet an avel can go to his child’s wedding because a proper wedding is unfeasible without him (see Rama ibid.). The Rama (ibid.) cites a machloket about taking part in the seuda of a brit and pidyon haben (considered low-intensity celebrations) in which the avel is not a principal. The Rama concludes: “The custom is to not eat at any meal in the world for the whole twelve months, if it is outside the house.” There is a machloket about taking part in a seudat siyum. The Shach (YD 246:27) says that an avel during the twelve months may take part in it (see also Gesher Hachayim I, 22:2:6). The Beit Lechem Yehuda (to YD 391:2) says he may only do so if he is making the siyum, and the Chochmat Adam (166:2) is skeptical about permissibility in light of the Rama’s minhag. I did not find discussion of a seudat hodaya, but it is parallel to a siyum in that they are optional seudot mitzva (see Living the Halachic Process VI,H-3) that are not particularly time sensitive (see Shach ibid.) and are done in a not overly festive manner. Since, based on the above, it is legitimate for your dil to take part in the seuda, there is nothing intrinsically wrong with inviting her. Even if the stricter opinion is more accepted in her environs, if she believes her parent would want her to be lenient, this is an important factor (see Shach, YD 344:9). There are ways for your dil to take part even if she is generally machmira. Since the main problem is joint celebratory eating rather than assembling with others (see Tosafot, Moed Katan 22b), she can be there for mingling and for the words of Torah and thanks (if there is not music playing). Another possibility, which allows even eating, is for the avel to have a (real) job at the event (see Gesher Hachayim ibid.). On the other hand, whatever is being considered, you should stress to her that you do not want her to alter her practice in this aspect of kibbud av va’em in order to honor you (this is important general advice regarding in-laws). You have no outright obligation to make a seudat hodaya, and there are other ways to thank Hashem (including tzedaka and adopting laudable practices, while stating that it is bli neder). Since there is no strict time limit, it can make sense under the right circumstances to put off the seuda for weeks or a couple months so that your dil can take part normally, considering her centrality. However, in most healthy relationships, it is not expected that an avel’s limitations should change the broader family’s life in a major way. (Depending on family size and sensitivity of its members, it can sometimes even be unwise). “Bending over backward” to make sure the avel does not miss things can also sometimes put pressure on the avel to take part when they do not feel comfortable doing so. We would generally say that open communication and avoiding subtle pressure on the avel is the best way to go about it from your perspective. Hopefully your dil will reciprocate with full understanding if it makes sense for you to go ahead with a seudat mitzva that she may choose not to take (full) part in. Chanuka Lighting Soon Before Leaving HouseWe have to leave the house around 15 minutes after Chanuka lighting and plan to return around 10 PM. Ideally, I would want to extinguish the candles (we light inside) for safety as we leave. Can I do so? Should we light at that time, or is it better to light when we come home?The degree to which the presumption of needing a half hour of lighting is correct is central to this question. On the one hand, if the lights go out within this time, it is not necessary to relight them (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 673:2), which implies that the act of lighting is the important thing, not the light’s longevity. On the other hand, when lighting, we must have enough oil to last a half hour (Shulchan Aruch, OC 675:2), and if one lights in a place where the wind will blow it out before the end time, it is like not putting in enough oil (Magen Avraham 673:12; Mishna Berura 673:25). These halachot imply that the time lit is important. The explanation is that the lighting has to be done with the ability to last a half hour, but it is not critical that it actually lasts. What happens if there was physical potential for half an hour but human intervention after the lighting was done shortens the duration? The Rashba (Shut I, 539) says that if one accidentally extinguished the light early, he does not need to relight it. From here, the poskim diverge. Some (including the Pri Megadim, MZ 673:2; Avnei Nezer OC 503; simple reading of the Shulchan Aruch, OC 973:2) say that if one purposely extinguished the candles, he needs to relight them. A minority posit that even if one extinguished them purposely, one still fulfills the mitzva and does not have to relight them (see S’fat Emet, Shabbat 21b). Some understand that while one has to relight them, he might still have fulfilled the mitzva beforehand, as evidenced by the machmirim (including the Pri Megadim) who say that when relighting, one should not make a beracha (see Minchat Shlomo II, 51). Some say that while even intentional extinguishing may not uproot retroactively the mitzva that was ostensibly fulfilled at the time of lighting, it is qualitatively worse when one lit with the intention to extinguish them within the half hour. Minchat Shlomo (ibid.) compares it to one who physically performs a mitzva but has in mind not to fulfill the mitzva. Others compare it to not having enough oil (see Divrei Sofrim, Chanuka p. 126). Several grounds upon which to say that one fulfills the mitzva include the following (see Nitei Gavriel, Chanuka, Shut 1). Not all distinguish based on the original intention; there may be conflicting opinions in the gemara (Shabbat 21b) on whether there is a minimum time for the candles to be lit, especially if we light inside. These points are particularly important when there are no alternatives (see ibid.). The point, though, is that you have many potential alternatives. We will start with the more technical. 1) Arrange a “flame-sitter” for the remaining needed time. 2) If (for you to determine) you can safely leave lit candles (at least one), you almost certainly fulfill the mitzva and definitely if they are visible by others. 3) Light the candles outside that night. 4) Light when you come home – in many places, 10 PM is valid for lighting candles, due to late traffic nowadays. Even if it is too late for public pirsumei nisa, most poskim (see Mishna Berura 672:11; Living the Halachic Process IV, D-7) allow lighting when you come home with a beracha for people who light inside. There are clear preferences to lighting at the standard time, for a few reasons, (z’rizin…; opinions that afterwards it is too late; issues with eating before lighting – see Mishna Berura 672:10). However, it is more important to embrace the greater chance to fulfill the mitzva later than to light at the correct time and plan to extinguish it early. (The halachically creative can contemplate plans of action that include “fancy footwork,” which likely include positive and negative halachic consequences. This is not the proper forum to specify or analyze them.) Right Pronunciation of ShehakolI pronounce the second-to-last word of Shehakol as “nehiya” (with a kamatz at the end). Someone told me it must be “nehiyeh” (with a segol), which is in the present tense, because we want to say that Hashem provides everything for us today, not only in the past. My dikduk is not good enough to have an opinion. Is he right? If he is right, have I not been yotzei all these years?We will try to keep the dikduk as simple as we can. Indeed, in third person singular (he/him), nehiya is past (all came to be by His word) (see Devarim 4:32), and nehiyeh is present (all comes to be …). (In first person plural (we), nehiyeh is future (we will be)). The question is whether we want to use the language of past or present We can seek precedent from other berachot. The gemarot regarding Hamotzi (Berachot 38a) and Borei Meorei Ha’esh (ibid. 52b) assume that we want these berachot to focus on the past. Rashi explains – the bread we are about to eat was already extracted from the soil. One can say the same thing about Shehakol – the chicken or candy I am eating was produced in the past. Rav Yaakov Emden (Mor U’ktzia, OC 167) goes a step further, claiming that the “all” that Shehakol refers to is broad, and that generally things came into existence at Creation, even if the specific food we will eat is relatively recent. Indeed, a majority of poskim (see Shaarei Teshuva 204:20) and of practice (survey of sources, siddurim and people) is as you have done – “nehiya.” However, significant logic and a sizable minority of sources support “nehiyeh.” The Chochmat Manoach (Berachot 38a; cited by the Magen Avraham167:8) points out that most berachot employ a present tense verb (see below) at the end of almost all berachot (even those that focus mainly on the past). Take birkat hatorah as one of many examples. We speak of bachar banu … v’natan lanu (past tense references to matan Torah) but end off “… noten hatorah (noten is present tense – gives/is giving). Therefore, he and the Me’il Tzedaka (42) advocate saying nehiyeh. The Me’il Tzedaka’s and Magen Avraham’s final positions are not clear. One can also take issue with Rav Yaakov Emden’s chiddush that Shehakol focuses on Creation. Why should all other birchot hanehenin focus on the specific food and this one focus on Creation? It is more likely that we use general terminology for specific foods that do not fit into a specific category. Regarding Talmudic precedent, the Magen Avraham also cites a Yerushalmi (Berachot 8:5) that one should not learn from Borei Meorei Ha’esh because the language should be appropriate for commemorating the original creation of fire. Regarding Hamotzi, the Beit Yosef (OC 167) knew a version of the gemara that Hamotzi is in the present, and the Me’il Tzedaka explains our text as just wanting to avoid future tense, but these positions are of a small minority. What do we do with the gemara’s contention that Hamotzi uses past tense? Don’t we know from “Dikduk 101” that hotzi is past, motzi is present, and yotzi is future?! The answer is that “Hamotzi,” and “Borei,” … in various berachot are not verbs but nouns. We are giving Hashem the title of “the extractor” of bread, “the creator” of foods, ... In Hebrew, the noun/title is formed by using a present verb form. Now, one can earn a title by what he did in the past, is doing in the present, or will do in the future (or any combination of them). The gemara posits that the title must be compatible with the past tense. In contrast, in Shehakol, “nehiya” is not a title but a real verb. Therefore, if one uses the present tense, he is stressing the present (much more than borei does), which the gemara seems to object to. One is yotzei the beracha with either form he uses. In kriat hatorah, subtle meaning changes are problematic, but regarding berachot, the deciding factor is the basic idea. While the gemara (Berachot 40b) cites an opinion that changing a beracha’s formulation disqualifies it, that is for major changes. Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 167:10 shows how far one can be off and be yotzei. Bishul Akum on Food that Is Improved by CookingI learned that there is no bishul akum (the Rabbinical prohibition on food cooked by a non-Jew) for foods that can be eaten raw (ne’echal chai) because it is considered bishul only if it accomplishes something truly significant. Does this exemption apply even when the food’s improvement through cooking is significant enough to change the beracha to a “higher” one?The most basic exemptions from the prohibition of bishul akum are when the cooked food is not fit for fancy settings and when the food was fit to be eaten before the cooking (Avoda Zara 38a). The general logic for both is likely, as you said, that the prohibition is only when the cooking reaches the bar in importance, thereby heightening the danger that the association between a Jew and non-Jew will go further than it should (see Tosafot ad loc.). While your understanding of the rationale of the halacha of ne’echal chai is correct, when looking for rulings on whether a food belongs to the prohibition or the exemption, that rationale is not nearly as important as the Talmudic parameters. The gemara’s language is: “All that is [fit to be] eaten the way it is, raw” is not included in bishul akum. There is an opinion that edibility is measured by the practices of the one who wants to eat, but the accepted approach is that it follows a cross-section of people of one’s society (see Chelkat Binyamin 113:5). In any case, the poskim (see Ritva ad loc.; Shach, Yoreh Deah 113:19) agree that it does not have to be equally good or customary to eat the food raw; it just must be a viable option. Accordingly, even if the cooking is important, the prohibition of bishul akum may still not apply because the food could have been eaten beforehand. The parameters are very different for berachot on such foods. For vegetables that are clearly preferred cooked or not cooked, respectively, the beracha for the preferred manner is Borei Pri Ha’adama and for the less preferred is Shehakol (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 205:1). This “favoritism” in berachot is even when either option is fully viable, just that the “demotion” comes when there is a “change for the worse” relative to the classic option (Rama ad loc.). The comparison between bishul akum and berachot is apt not to a change of beracha but to the cancellation of a beracha. The Shulchan Aruch (OC 202:2) says that regarding a food that generally receives a beracha, if an individual piece of that food is “unfit to eat even al y’dei hadechak (if there is a need to eat it),” then there is no beracha. If such a food could be remedied by cooking and a non-Jew did so, it would indeed be forbidden as bishul akum. It is unclear whether the cutoff point is the same in the two areas. The Shulchan Aruch (YD 113:12) cites two opinions as to whether a food that is “edible” raw only al y’dei hadechak is subject to bishul akum. If it is permitted in that case, then both areas are similar in that we draw the line at totally not edible. In borderline cases, there is logic to distinguish between berachot and bishul akum. In the former, the fact that one is eating it raw can be an indication that it is edible (achshevei), whereas the fact one is cooking can slightly strengthen the outlook that cooking was needed. Regarding bishul akum, poskim deal with apparent contradictions on borderline edibility. The gemara (ibid.) says that if a Jew cooked food until ma’achal ben drusa’i, then further cooking by a non-Jew does not forbid it. This is difficult for the stringent opinion above because after the first stage, it is edible only al y’dei hadechak. The Bach (YD 113) answers that bishul akum applies even to marginally edible food, but if it was brought to that point in a permitted manner, the prohibition does not apply. There is also an apparent contradiction in the Shulchan Aruch, as despite the two opinions above, he outright forbids eggs and bitter dates cooked by a non-Jew (YD 113:14, 15), even though they could be eaten beforehand al y’dei hadechak! The Taz (ad loc. 14) distinguishes between levels of dechak. Fundamental Questions about Lifnei IverI have questions about lifnei iver (the prohibition of facilitating another’s aveira; we will call the facilitator, Reuven, and the violator, Shimon). Does Reuven violate lifnei iver only when Shimon does the aveira, or when Reuven facilitated the potential aveira? Is Reuven liable for Shimon’s specific sin or is lifnei iver a separate aveira, equivalent for any facilitation?The practical elements of lifnei iver are very difficult to apply and, if not applied wisely, could make interaction with not fully observant Jews untenable. Your questions, and our response, address the fundamental basis rather than the practicality; we seek perspective rather than a ruling. You are correct that while most aveirot are violated at a given time, lifnei iver often includes a serious break, timewise and logically, between Reuven’s involvement and Shimon’s sin. For example, if Reuven sells non-kosher food to Shimon, hours or days may go by before Shimon does the aveira. This is not unprecedented. Some melachot of Shabbat (e.g., cooking, planting) consist of doing an action which brings a result only later. Based on this comparison, it is logical that lifnei iver is violated immediately. Possibly Shimon’s violation is a condition for Reuven’s retroactive lifnei iver, or perhaps even if Shimon did not sin, Reuven sinned by “placing the obstacle” as the pasuk (Vayikra 19:14) seems to describe. Shabbat and lifnei iver are different in that Shabbat is violated without the intervention of another person, whereas lifnei iver requires a person to perform the transgression, usually knowingly. Considering the concept of ein shaliach l’dvar aveira (=eslda; one is not culpable for the sin he had his agent do – Bava Metzia 10b), it would be surprising if Reuven is responsible for what Shimon did, thus indicating that Reuven’s sin was the placing of the obstacle. (One answer is that eslda precludes Reuven’s responsibility for the specific sin, but that Shimon’s violation is the culmination of lifnei iver.) When lifnei iver applies is difficult to define. The baraita (Avoda Zara 6a) says that one must not give wine to a nazir, but this is oversimplified. After all, it is fine to sell a responsible nazir wine; he can bring it home for his family! This characteristic makes it logical that the violation is that if the sin is done, we apportion blame to those responsible (like when one is careless with his ox, which then kills someone). Now for some sources. Yad Malachi (Talmud 367) posits that Reuven violates lifnei iver right away. One proof is from the sanction of one who violated lifnei iver by hitting his adult child, out of concern he will hit back (Moed Katan 17a), presumably before the child did so. The Pri Yitzchak (II, 49) deflects this proof, arguing that the sanction is appropriate for a bad practice even if he did not turn out violating lifnei iver. The latter brings a proof that Shimon’s violation triggers lifnei iver, from the gemara (Avoda Zara 15a) that one who improperly got rid of non-kosher food in a manner a Jew may end up eating it needed to run to undo his action, implying that undoing it would prevent Reuven’s aveira from taking effect. Concerning punishment, no one claims that Reuven receives beit din’s full punishment for Shimon’s sin. However, some sources (such as Rashi, Bamidbar 30:16) refer to Reuven being morally liable for Shimon’s specific sin. There is discussion of whether one can be chayav malkot for lifnei iver (see Metivta, Avoda Zara, Iyunim p. 5), but that does not depend on the specific sin. In fact, most assume (see S’dei Chemed V, p. 341) that one can violate Torah-level lifnei iver for facilitating a Rabbinic prohibition, implying that lifnei iver is independent of the specific aveira, which goes well with the Yad Malachi’s approach. It seems logical to me that an element of lifnei iver is violated at the act of facilitating, but that it is exacerbated when Shimon does the aveira and by its severity. This also fits well with many sources (further development is unfeasible here). Halachic Status of Hydroponic MarorI know that the beracha for hydroponically grown vegetables, such as the insect-free romaine lettuce used for Pesach, is Shehakol since it is grown in water, not soil. May one use it for the Seder as maror and, if so, does one say then Shehakol or Borei Pri Ha’adamah?I understand that most “insect-free” vegetables are not hydroponically grown but use other methods to minimize the chance of insects. We will discuss the cases of hydroponically grown romaine lettuce, but our main focus will be on the correctness of your assumption that the beracha is Shehakol. The Yerushalmi (Kilayim 7:6) questions whether one recites Hamotzi on bread made from grain that grew in a flowerpot without holes (atzit she’eino nakuv = ashn). Based on this, the Chayei Adam (I, 51:17) instructs to make Mezonot on such bread, and Shehakol on similarly grown vegetables. The issue is the language of “…min ha’aretz” (from the land) and “pri ha’adama” (fruit of the soil), which may not be sufficiently accurate in these cases. Regarding fruit of a tree that grew in an ashn, he is less sure because perhaps that is still called pri ha’etz. Presumably hydroponic produce is less connected to land/soil than that which grows in an ashn. (Note that there are always nutrients in the water, and in some systems (aggregate), there are elements present that could arguably make it considered watery soil.) We can question the Chayei Adam’s position based on logic and sources. It is logical to argue that foods are categorized for berachot based on the species’ characteristics, irrespective of the specific item one is eating. Regarding sources, the conclusion of the Yerushalmi (ibid.) is disputable, and a different Yerushalmi (Berachot 6:1) indicates Hamotzi for such bread. It says that whatever food gets Birkat Hamazon after it, gets Hamotzi before it, and the gemara (Berachot 47b) assumes we make Birkat Hamazon after bread that originates from an ashn. This encourages some (see S’dei Chemed VI, p. 279) to make Hamotzi on bread from an ashn, as the Rambam (Berachot 3:11) may imply. How do we pasken? The Chayei Adam is more equivocal elsewhere (Nishmat Adam II, 152:(1)). Some contemporary poskim instruct to make Ha’adama on hydroponic vegetables (Shevet Halevi I:205), even if hydroponics is common, as long as society views it as grown on the ground (Teshuvot V’hanhagot II:149). Others rule to make Mezonot for bread and Shehakol for vegetables (Machazeh Eliyahu I:25,28; Yechaveh Da’at VI:12 views hydroponics as “worse” than ashn). They reason that not only do these berachot not mention land but they are also b’di’eved catch-all berachot making them preferable due to safek berachot l’hakel (in doubt, we avoid berachot that could be l’vatala). Still, Yechaveh Da’at (ibid.) says that if one does not know how a given vegetable was grown, you assume it is from the majority of vegetables, which are grown in the ground. Also, he says that if one made Ha’adama on a hydroponic vegetable, he would not say Shehakol afterward (as safek berachot l’hakel encourages us here to rely on the beracha that was already made). While we do not take a strong stand, we note that “pri ha’adama” seems a fair description of hydroponic vegetables, even if “min ha’aretz” (from the land) is not for such bread (Teshuvot V’hanhagot ibid.) Indirect Responsibility for Theft[Two people with a disagreement asked us the halacha in the following case, hoping to resolve the matter without litigation.] Reuven hired a painter (=pnt) for his apartment while he was away. After the work was done, Shimon, his neighbor, was broken into, and both suspect that pnt either did the robbery or tipped off the thieves where Shimon kept his valuables. If this indeed happened and Reuven was unaware that pnt was a criminal and Shimon saw pnt and did not complain, must Reuven compensate Shimon?There is no construct through which to obligate Reuven. We will examine those that are close and see how they fall short. Responsibility for a worker: When a worker damages a neighbor in the process of doing a job, the basic halacha is that the worker alone is obligated, except possibly if he is paid on the basis of time (see Rama, Choshen Mishpat 306:2; Pitchei Choshen, Sechirut 7:25). Common practice is for the employer to take responsibility, and this practice may be binding (see Eretz Hemdah ruling 79062; Dinei Avoda (Sadan) p. 434). Even so, this is only when the worker in the midst of work on the employer’s behalf, certainly not when he steals, all the more so if it is after the work is done. Even if a slave damages, his master is not obligated, all the more so, for a simple worker (Bava Kama 87a). Creating a theft danger: There is a machloket whether one who knocked down the door of someone’s stable, enabling an animal to escape, is obligated to pay for the loss (Shulchan Aruch, CM 396:4). The Yam Shel Shlomo (Bava Kama 6:3) explains that the reason to obligate is that opening the door is a direct action to undo that which is keeping the animal in. This does not apply to just improving the chances for someone from without to succeed at stealing. A neighbor’s obligation to remove danger (nizkei sh’cheinim): The Ramah (Bava Batra 1:18) obligates someone who did not fence off his property, thereby allowing robbers to come in and steal from his neighbor, whereas the Rosh (Bava Batra 2:17) exempts him. The Ramah compares this to the case in which Levi owns a wall separating his field from that of Yehuda, and Yehuda informs Levi that that the wall fell down so that their different crops will become kilayim. In that case, if Levi does not act, he must pay for the lost crops (Bava Kama 100a-b). The Rosh counters that the obligation is only when the mechanism that creates the problem begins immediately, which is not the case with robbers. The Rama (Choshen Mishpat 155:44) cites both opinions without a clear ruling. However, this cannot obligate Reuven, because even the Ramah requires Shimon to warn him, which he did not do. Comparison to moser (garmi): The gemara (Bava Kama 116b-117b, codified in Shulchan Aruch, Choshen Mishpat 388:2) has a construct called moser, which obligates Levi to pay for causing Yehuda’s things to be stolen by criminals. The classic case is when Levi gives (without being severely coerced) criminals information about Yehuda’s property, which encourages and/or aids their ability to steal his property. The gemara raises the question whether this obligation is a normal application of the laws of garmi (semi-direct causation of damage) or a special penalty. The more accepted opinion is that it is a normal application (see Maggid Mishneh, Chovel U’mazik 8:1). While our case has similarity, the following are crucial differences that are important in the laws of garmi (whose parameters are very complex and elusive). Reuven did not realize that his hiring of pnt would bring about a theft (see Shach, CM 386:6). It was not necessarily likely that the hiring would cause the theft (it is unlikely that every neighbor of a place that pnt worked at is robbed). There is no “act of damaging” comparable to the moser’s informing the criminal. Therefore, we cannot use moser as a model for obligation without a source, of which we are not aware. Therefore, we do not see any grounds to halachically obligate Reuven (in some cases, voluntary payment might be laudable). Paying for Unscheduled Entertainment: I witnessed the following scenario years ago and have wondered about the halacha. During a wedding, a talented entertainer dressed in full costume with remote-controlled dancing puppets burst onto the dance floor. He gave a performance, which the guests thoroughly enjoyed, for 10 minutes. Each set of parents assumed the other had arranged and paid for the surprise or that it was a guest in disguise. After it was over, the entertainer approached the mechutanim and demanded payment. One of the sides paid, breaking their budget. Did they have to pay? What can we learn from the answer about other cases?Since this case is no longer practical, we can discuss more freely both principles, and possible arguments relating to this specific case. There are two bases for obligation to pay for a service one person provides to another: agreement to pay; payment for neheneh (benefit). One of the major sources about pay for neheneh is the gemara (Bava Metzia 101a), which discusses someone who planted trees in his friend’s field without permission. The gemara concludes that if the field is fit for planting, we estimate how much the work is worth, and if it is not, the worker gets the lower of possible payments. According to Rashi (ad loc.) and the S’ma (375:2), this means the lower between expenses outlaid and benefit provided. In other words, when there is benefit but it was not done in a way that should be appreciated, there is no payment beyond expenses. There are subjective factors that help determine whether a job was called for. For one, the Rama (Choshen Mishpat 375:4) rules that if the field that was planted was owned by a man who usually does the work himself, the outside help is considered largely uncalled for. Even though most people would appreciate the work, the main benefit is saving the owner from hiring another worker, so when he does his own work, the owner only has to pay for the benefit of not having to toil. In the other direction, according to the Shulchan Aruch (CM 375:3) if the owner “built on” the work that was done, he cannot subsequently claim that he did not gain from it. The Shach (ad loc. 3) cites dissenters. One has to weigh the circumstances in each case. Let us analyze your case. One could claim that the work was done with the beneficiaries’ knowledge, and therefore they should be responsible. However, this is wrong because their silent acquiescence was based on a misunderstanding, and agreement b’ta’ut does not obligate. The lack of protest could have some significance. There is an opinion that even when a recipient did benefit, he is exempt if he warned that he refuses to pay (see discussion in Pitchei Choshen, Sechirut 8:(64)), and here they at least did not warn. Should we characterize the performance as fitting, since people enjoyed it, and enjoyment is valued at weddings? I have attended many weddings and am hard-pressed to remember such a performance. Most people pay good money for a band, and participants often do creative shtik, but professional shtik is uncommon in the circles I know, even at weddings at which expense is not a factor. Therefore, it would be difficult for the entertainer to prove that he deserves more than a return of expenses, which are presumably small. Furthermore, benefit refers to net benefit (e.g., regarding the field, the vegetation planted must be preferable to alternatives). Even if many people enjoyed, others could have been appalled by such a childish performance at a wedding. Also, the time taken on it may have taken away from “valuable” eating, dancing, interacting, etc. time. Therefore, it is again hard to ascertain that there was benefit. In all, it is unlikely that the families could be forced to pay any significant amount of money for this uninvited performance. Although the propriety of the entertainer’s actions was very questionable, paying him a not insulting amount might have been a proper act of chessed and/or avoiding machloket. (Others might argue that such a person must not be encouraged to do such things.) Selecting Things to Use Later on ShabbatBefore leaving the house on Shabbat, may I select a hat from a box of hats in case I will be cold on the way home, or is that a borer problem, because the selection is not for immediate use?Answer: The three requirements (each required by Torah law) of permitted borer (selection), when separating two things that are “mixed together” (ta’arovet) are: 1. One takes what he wants from what he does not want; 2. He does not use a special separating utensil; 3. The separated item will be used “immediately” (l’altar) (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 319:1-2). You ask about whether one who does not plan to wear the hat for quite a while but is leaving the house now is considered l’altar. At first glance, if you will not use the hat anytime soon, it is not l’altar and is therefore forbidden (how long is a good question – see Rama ad loc.). Possible arguments that it is still l’altar are: A. Since you do not have an opportunity to do it later, the last possible time might be I’altar; B. Maybe leaving the house “properly equipped” is considered a use as you leave. Are these arguments correct? Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata (3:(190)) posits that the fact that this is the last opportunity to select does not turn the selection into l’altar. As far as leaving the house equipped, he cites (3:(185)) Rav SZ Auerbach as saying something similar (not all agree): If one selects something to lend to a friend, it is fine if he selects soon before giving it even if the friend will use it only later because, from the lender’s perspective, his use (giving to his friend) is done right away. In your case, though, you are not thinking of “helping yourself” but about being ready if you are cold later, and this is not l’altar. There are, however, other reasons that might permit taking the hat, in certain cases. While the gemara talks about separating good and bad (pesolet), Rishonim apply it also to separating two things that are both good (but one is wanted now), if the two items are of different minim (types) (Terumat Hadeshen I;57; Rama, Orach Chayim 319:3). Two different species of fish are two minim (ibid.); one species of fish but one is cooked and one is fried are two minim (Chayei Adam II, 16:5; Mishna Berura 319:15); if the difference between the pieces is size, it is one min (ibid.). If the contents of the box are all interchangeably usable hats (women are often more discerning), they are likely to be one min and there will be no borer. Poskim say that if one wants to choose a specific book or article of clothing, borer does apply (Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 3:68-69). It is unclear where to draw the line on the question of how different the hats are from each other and how thought out your preference of one is (e.g., color match, quality, appropriate for Shabbat). If you cannot determine there is one min, if you are willing to take the first one that comes to hand without choosing (and without repeating until you are satisfied), it is not borer (see ibid. 78). While we assume there can be a ta’arovet of relatively large objects (see Terumat Hadeshen ibid.), borer is less likely with large objects (see Shevitat Hashabbat, Borer 11). It is possible, then, that if the hats are arranged in an orderly manner, there is no ta’arovet (see Orchot Shabbat 3:23). There are two possible ways to solve an existing borer problem. According to Rav Moshe Feinstein (Igrot Moshe, OC IV 74), one can undo the ta’arovet by randomly throwing its contents in a manner that the items become clearly distinct, and then there are no requirements. Not all agree to this “divide and conquer” approach (see Orchot Shabbat III:119). Another suggestion is to “create” an immediate use, by wearing the hat you choose for a short time. It can be a contrived use (see Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 3:69), like the Be’ur Halacha’s (to 319:4) idea for one removing bones from meat to lick them before discarding them. A prominent rabbi told me that you would not need to enjoy wearing the hat at all, but there might be some bar to reach (see Piskei Teshuvot 319:12). Finishing to Eat but Continuing to DrinkDuring the course of my work day, I drink many times. I was taught to make one Shehakol for all the drinking. How is this system impacted by lunch or snacks I may have?The key to your fine system is that when one plans to eat intermittently, a beracha can continue even for a whole day (Rambam, Berachot 4:7), if he does not leave his place (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 178:1). If one takes breaks of more than several minutes, this system faces some challenges: A. After no more than 72 minutes, but for drinking, more like a half hour (see Living the Halachic Process, II, B-4), the ability to fulfill the obligation of a beracha acharona (=br ach) lapses, when the food is considered “digested.” B. After the above amount of time, there is a machloket whether the efficacy of the beracha rishona (=br rsh) also ceases (Magen Avraham 184:9) or whether it remains as long as one plans to continue eating/drinking (Even Ha’ozer ad loc.). Due to a lack of consensus of poskim (see Mishna Berura 184:17), we recommend that if one drinks a revi’it (approx. 90 ml. or 3 fl. oz.) at one time (slower is a machloket – see below) and is likely to break for at least half an hour, that he recite Borei Nefashot on the previous drinking. This solves problem A (missing the br ach). This situation brings us to another machloket – does a br ach end the first eating period in regards to needing a new br rsh before the next eating in a case that at the time of the br ach he was planning to continue relatively soon (see Be’ur Halacha to 190:2). We posit that one should make a new br rsh (see Minchat Yitzchak V:102), but that before starting the original drinking, should intend that the br rsh’s efficacy end with the br ach (see V’zot Haberacha p. 52, ftnt. 6). Whether you sip frequently or follow different halachic guidance (both are fine), since you do not make a new br rsh on the new drinks, you raise a good question. You cannot avoid a br ach on the food you eat (see Har Tzvi, OC I:96, that continuing drinking does not allow for an indefinite stay of the ber ach at the end of the snack). The situation depends on the br ach you recite. If it is Birkat Hamazon, you can assume the entire eating/drinking experience is completed, and you require a new br rsh when eating/drinking again (see Magen Avraham 190:1; V’zot Haberacha, Birur Halacha 37). If you eat something whose br ach is Me’ein Shalosh (e.g., Al Hamichya), that br ach will not impact the unrelated berachot on drinks. The question is if the br ach you need to make is Borei Nefashot. Do we say that the Borei Nefashot will apply to the drinks as well as the Borei Nefashot foods? If it does apply to the drinks, the situation will be as above, for one who needs to make a br ach before too long goes by. The Har Tzvi (ibid.) recommends that when making the br ach, he should intend that it should not relate to the drinks, and then he will not need a new br rsh. However, some argue that it is not possible to exclude foods that could be included in the br ach (Pri Megadim, intro. to Hilchot Berachot). While one can exclude some foods from a br rsh, this is because before eating them, there is no existing obligation to make a beracha, so the beracha can be focused on what one wants. In contrast, when one has eaten and has an existing Borei Nefashot obligation, some say that it will apply to everything that it can. An alternative suggestion is to make the br ach on both the food and drink. This has an added advantage in cases in which that which is drunk may not be covered by any ber ach, which is regrettable especially because according to some (see Mishna Berura 210:1), moderately paced drinking of a revi’it requires a br ach. To make the new beracha on drinking more clearly justified, there are a few ideas: 1. Limit the scope of the intention during the first beracha (see above). 2. Step outside before resuming drinking (see above). 3. Wait a half hour before resumption (V’zot Haberacha, p. 53). We recommend the second approach for people who will remember when to do what. Keeping Bread on the TableI learned that one should leave bread on the table until Birkat Hamazon, but at most, I see this done on Shabbat. Should I be careful to do so also during the week?This practice comes from the gemara (Sanhedrin 92a), which says that one needs to leave bread on the table if he wants to have blessing. The Shulchan Aruch (Orach Chayim 180:1-2) brings this idea and also writes in more halachic language not to remove the bread until after Birkat Hamazon. Several reasons are given (see Mishna Berura 180:1-2). Most of them focus on bentching, which perhaps explains why the concept only appears regarding bread. The Zohar is quoted as saying that in order for Birkat Hamazon to leave blessing, there must be something left on which the blessing can take hold and then “expand.” (Along the mystical side of Birkat Hamazon, the Kaf Hachayim recommends keeping salt on the table during Birkat Hamazon, so the table will resemble a mizbe’ach.) The Levush (ad loc. 1-2) explains that it is proper for it to be evident what one is thanking Hashem for, and also to show that he had more than enough to eat. The one explanation that focuses on the meal itself comes from Rashi (on the gemara) – we want there to be food left to give a poor person. One difference between the reasons relates to the size of the piece. According to Rashi, it should be considerable (Sha’ar Hatziyun 180:3). Rashi’s explanation does not seem relevant nowadays, so Az Nidberu (XI:46) says that where it is uncommon for a poor person to come (we add – if he comes, we will not give him leftover bread), one does not have to leave a nice-sized piece. Another difference is that according to the others, the bread does not need to be on the table while eating, but can be removed and returned for bentching. Why indeed do many not follow this practice, especially during the week? Yalkut Yosef (OC 180:(1)) says that since poor people are not an issue, any leftover is enough, including crumbs, and presumably there are always crumbs. It is difficult, though, to assume that the other elements can be accomplished with inadvertent, tiny leftover bread, and the classical sources who say to leave bread also do not seem to assume this. I heard third hand in the name of an important talmid chacham that he does not follow this practice because in our days, it will likely cause one to waste or even disgrace the bread (see Shulchan Aruch ibid. 3-4). Again, the question is: what changed that this should be a problem, when the gemara and poskim were not concerned? It is possible that the different usage of bread in our days has played a role. It is clear from many sources (including Shulchan Aruch, Yoreh Deah 89:4) that traditionally, one would bring a loaf of bread to the table and cut off pieces as needed. (The concept of “sliced bread” is a 20th century innovation.) The normal thing, then, is for there to be bread left over from the loaf at the end of the meal, and then the practice is not to remove it before bentching. Now, it is more common for people, if they eat bread at all at a weekday meal, to bring the number of slices they want. Therefore, arguably, it is less common for there to be leftover pieces, and people have less of an idea what to do with them. It is difficult to know whether this practice is a full-fledged halachic obligation or a recommended minhag linked to the prospect of beracha (see Yalkut Yosef ibid.). It is also difficult to know how to deal with a situation in which there is lack of adherence to such a codified practice – was there logic to its suspension or was it a case of a not famous halacha just being forgotten or ignored, especially under changed settings? If one has a loaf or extra slices on the table, we recommend keeping some there until bentching or returning leftovers for bentching (but not a full loaf – see gemara ibid). If he just brought a roll or sandwiches to the table, it is hard to know whether to recommend bringing bread just to have for bencthing, especially when not eating at one’s own table (see Yalkut Yosef ibid.). What May One Do before Havdala after Yom Kippur?At the end of Yom Kippur, some people are understandably in a hurry to eat, drink or even wash their face. Havdala, after Ma’ariv, often takes place well after the time Yom Kippur is “out,” and even longer for a woman at home waiting for her husband. What may one do before Havdala?We will start with the less pressing and less severe matters – the inuyim (Yom Kippur prohibitions) of washing, anointing, and shoes. The Magen Avraham (introduction to Orach Chayim 624) permits them before Havdala. Several poskim (including the Machatzit Hashekel ad loc.; Shulchan Aruch Harav, Orach Chayim 624:15) assume that these are permitted even before any declaration of Havdala (i.e., in Ma’ariv or “Baruch Hamavdil …). On the other hand, some are machmir even on these inuyim before Havdala (Eliya Rabba 624:1) and others are inconclusive as to whether at least Hamavdil is required (Mishna Berura 624:2). Therefore, there is little reason to not simply say Hamavdil first if he did not yet daven Ma’ariv or forgot to say Ata Chonantanu, and that suffices. This would make it parallel to the requirements before doing melacha on Motzaei Shabbat (see Shulchan Aruch, OC 299:10). On Motzaei Shabbat, it is forbidden to eat or drink before making Havdala (Pesachim 105a; Shulchan Aruch, OC 299:1) because the obligation of Havdala is upon him. The same is true regarding Havdala after Yom Kippur. To be clear, at least after saying Hamavdil, the prohibition is related to the need for Havdala rather than an extension of the prohibition of Yom Kippur. Therefore, it is permitted to drink water, as it is on Motzaei Shabbat (ibid.). Although it is true that many have the minhag not to drink even water on Motzaei Shabbat, that is a chumra based on mystical reasons (Rama, OC 291:2). This probably does not apply at the end of Yom Kippur, and even if it does, it should not stand in the way of one who is thirsty due to fasting, and considering that low hydration is unhealthy. On the other hand, the minhag is to just hold on another few minutes until after Havdala. Therefore, one should not drink in front of everyone in shul, and several poskim are willing to permit drinking water only when there is some special level of need (see Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 62:25 (low-level need); Rav Elyashiv, cited in Ashrei Ha’ish III, 21:28 (higher-level need)). Rav SZ Auerbach is also cited (Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 62:(59)) as saying that one should drink water after Yom Kippur only after he has done Havdala in davening or by declaration (see (ibid.) why this is more necessary than on Motzaei Shabbat). Sho’el U’meishiv (III:I:129) says that it is even possible, when important and in private, to drink water during Ne’ila which extends past tzeit hakochavim (a rare occurrence, especially in Israel). S’dei Chemed (vol. IX., p. 177) is highly skeptical about this possibility but does not fully disprove it. The halachic situation is slightly different for women. It is unclear whether women are obligated in Havdala, even on Shabbat (see Shulchan Aruch and Rama, OC 296:8). Therefore, there is logic to claim that we can be more lenient on women’s eating before Havdala after Yom Kippur (see Chayei Halevi III:43). Yet, poskim are reluctant to allow this because there is danger to the lives of those who eat before Havdala without justification (see Pesachim 105a; Piskei Teshuvot 299:1). Usually women, especially Ashkenazim women, avoid making Havdala themselves due to the doubt whether they are obligated in it (Rama ibid.), and it is possible that this is even more recommended after Yom Kippur when it is not also Motzaei Shabbat (Mateh Ephrayim 624:7). Nevertheless, poskim recommend that a woman who is hungry while waiting for her husband to come home after Yom Kippur should feel free to make Havdala and then eat (Shut Shevet Halevi III:43; Shemirat Shabbat K’hilchata 62:(86)). Beracha Acharona on CakeHow much cake, which has many ingredients besides flour, must I eat in order to make a beracha acharona (=ba)?While any amount of food requires a beracha rishona (=br) before it, there is a ba only after eating a k’zayit (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 210:1). If one eats small amounts of foods with different berachot acharonot that combine to form a k’zayit, he recites the “lower beracha” (usually, Borei Nefashot) (Magen Avraham 210:1). The question is how to view a single food made up of different ingredients. Regarding br, when a food significantly contains (not as filler) wheat or other flour of the “five minim” (=5mn) along with even a majority of foods with other berachot, one recites only Mezonot (or Hamotzi), which covers even the non-Mezonot ingredients (Shulchan Aruch, OC 208:2). Regarding ba, in one place, the Shulchan Aruch (ibid.) says that the ba for such a food is Al Hamichya even if the flour is clearly a minority. In another place (ibid. 9), he writes that if there is not a k’zayit of flour within a pras (eight k’zeitim) of food, one recites only Al Hamichya on bread made from it, and if cooked, only Borei Nefashot rather than Al Hamichya. So, we see that the ba can be reduced due to the presence of a predominance of other ingredients. How much it is affected is disputed, as the Gra (ad loc.) says that without a k’zayit within a pras worth the ba is always Borei Nefashot. The Mishna Berura (ad loc. 47) contends that in order to make the higher beracha, the Shulchan Aruch requires not only a one eighth concentration but that one needs to eat a k’zayit worth of the 5mn flour. Conceptually, this means that a minority of flour is central enough to a complex food to control its overall identity and justify a “higher-level” ba, but the other foods are not subsumed enough to counts towards the ba of the 5mn flour. There is significant machloket to what extent to limit the power of flour regarding ba. The Magen Avraham (208:15) says that the latter, more limiting Shulchan Aruch refers to the mixing of multiple types of grain but that other non-Mezonot ingredients team up with flour to reach the necessary k’zayit. The Chayei Adam (I, 50:21) is among those with misgivings over the Magen Avraham’s distinction. The Mishna Berura (208:48), in noting that the common practice is to recite Al Hamichya after a k’zayit of a piece of cake, even though it has less than a k’zayit of flour, gives the following explanation. Since “spices” (e.g., sugar, oil) are there to improve the prominent flour base, they are counted toward the k’zayit. Another idea is that the minimum amount of liquid needed to turn the flour into dough (but not the extra that makes it loose batter) counts toward the k’zayit (V’zot Haberacha, p. 236). The Chazon Ish (OC 26:8) similarly distinguishes between ingredients that are kneaded along with the flour, which count toward the k’zayit, and ingredients that are added after the kneading (e.g., the chocolate in rugelach). In the other direction, in cases where ingredients form a very distinct filling, e.g., in apple pie, it is accepted that it does not count toward the k’zayit (V’zot Haberacha, p. 47). In summary, while it is unclear whether a k’zayit of flour is needed to call for Al Hamichya, common practice is that a k’zayit of cake (not including filling) suffices. Other factors give a boost to the practice. First, while the most accepted measure of a k’zayit is 27 cc. (appr. 1 fl. oz.), it may be smaller, so that there may be an actual k’zayit of flour in a piece that is not that much larger than a “standard k’zayit.” Also, Teshuvot V’hanhagot (II:133) posits that the b’di’eved situation favors Al Hamichya. He claims that since a k’zayit of food requires some ba and since cake is associated with the flour element, one would be yotzei with Al Hamichya even if Borei Nefashot is preferable. In contrast, if Al Hamichya is necessary, Borei Nefashot does not suffice. While eating additional cake is a logical halachic solution for the doubt, it may be unwise healthwise. Giving Away Offensively Left MaterialsContractors have been using an area in our building for deliveries during apartment renovations. Some materials have been left there for extended periods, creating an unsightly situation. Building management announced that materials must be removed within a specified timeframe, after which they would be declared hefker (ownerless) and available to anyone. Does management have the halachic authority to declare others’ property hefker, even with warning?We understand that you are asking only out of halachic “curiosity,” which allows us to answer you. Nevertheless, since you have not relayed potentially impactful details that are likely difficult to determine, our answer is quite general. We will take a quick look at a few scenarios and halachic concepts. Aveida mida’at: The gemara, in a few places excludes from the mitzva of hashavat aveida (returning lost objects) an object that is an aveida mida’at (when the object is in a precarious situation and its owner does not act to protect it). The Tur (Choshen Mishpat 261) says that in such a case, the object is presumed to be hefker, whereas the Rambam (Gezeila 11:11) says that while hashavat aveida does not apply, the owner still owns it, so that it is forbidden for others to take it. The Shulchan Aruch (CM 261:4) rules like the Rambam, and the Rama (ad loc.) cites the Tur. The fact that some gemarot imply one way and others the other way (see Bava Batra 87b and Bava Matzia 21a) provides impetus for poskim to make distinctions. Thus, each side in the machloket can agree with the other side in exceptional cases (see Encyclopedia Talmudit, s.v. aveida mida’at). One of the gemara’s cases of aveida mida’at (Bava Metzia 31a) is similar to our case. Reuven’s cow was grazing in a (non-Jewish) vineyard, and the vineyard owner warned Reuven that if this persisted, he would kill the cow. The gemara says that if Reuven ignored the warning, it is aveida mida’at, and it is likely that the machloket of the Rambam and Tur applies here (see Even Ha’ezel Gezeila 11:11). Most explain that whether it is hefker depends on the assumptions about the object owner’s mindset (see Beit Yosef, CM 261), which would make it dependent on the specific case. In our case, too, contractors ignore the warning of having their materials confiscated, raising the question of what they are thinking when they leave them there. Several poskim recommend putting up signs in batei midrash to tell people they will relinquish their rights to sefarim left for a long time (see Living the Halachic Process III, I-12). However, this will not work here, if the noncompliant contractors are not agreeable to management’s dictates. Therefore, unless we can assume the contractors do not care about the remaining materials, aveida mida’at will probably not make them available to be claimed. Authority to force removal: At times, one may take strong, unilateral steps to ensure their rights (see Bava Kama 27b-28a; Shulchan Aruch, CM 4). If Shimon’s objects impede use of Reuven’s property, Reuven can take steps that include breaking the objects to get by, but not to purposely break them. Factors that affect what Reuven can do include prominently how necessary it is to take the steps and how grievous Shimon’s actions were (see Pitchei Choshen, Sh’eila 1:25). In one very grievous case (Bava Metzia 101b; Shulchan Aruch 319:1), Reuven can sell some of the objects to pay porters to remove the others. However, this is an insufficient precedent regarding your question. Shimon’s ownership can be overlooked only to the extent needed to move the objects, not to give away the offending objects. The contractors’ objectionability is also not as severe as the one in the gemara’s case. If management is forbidden to confiscate, it also distinguishes our case from that of Bava Metzia 31a, where it is aveida mida’at because the non-Jew’s threat will not be tempered by Halacha. Cutting Nails during ShloshimMay a mourner during Shloshim cut his/her nails? Does it depend on the circumstances?The short answer is that an avel may not cut his nails during Shloshim. A baraita (Moed Katan 17b) cites Rabbi Yehuda, who equates cutting hair and cutting nails, in that both are forbidden on Chol Hamoed and during aveilut. Rabbi Yossi does not equate nail cutting to haircutting and permits cutting nails in both circumstances. The gemara (ibid. 18a) concludes with Shmuel’s opinion that we follow Rabbi Yossi and permit cutting nails during aveilut as well as Chol Hamoed, except that during aveilut it must be done without a nail cutting utensil. The Shulchan Aruch (Yoreh Deah 390:7) indeed forbids cutting nails with a utensil during aveilut, throughout Shloshim. Some leniencies are broadly accepted; some leniencies are a matter of opinion; others are dependent on need and circumstances. The philosophy of many of the halachot of aveilut, including haircutting and nail cutting, is that one should be in a state of mind where his physical and especially his aesthetic side should not be pursued in a normal manner. This can explain some leniencies. The Gesher Hachayim (21:11:9) rules that if one’s nails are particularly long so that it takes away from the honor of Shabbat, he may cut them. In other words, the prohibition was not meant to negate certain values or other needs that are not aesthetic. This is reminiscent of the halacha regarding haircutting that if one’s mustache is impeding his eating in any way, he may trim it (Shulchan Aruch ibid. 1). In other words, these halachot are not meant to take away from functionality. A leniency that includes functionality and mitzva is that of a mohel who can fix the nails he needs to perform a brit mila most effectively (Rama, YD 393:3). Another religiously related need is the permission for a woman who needs to go to the mikveh to cut her nails in preparation (Shulchan Aruch, YD 390:7). We saw above (Mo’ed Katan 18a; see also the Rambam, Avel 5:2) a major distinction. It is permitted without special need to cut nails by hand or teeth, even during shiva (Shulchan Aruch, YD 390:7). The logic is that only the normal manner of cutting was forbidden. Yalkut Yosef (Aveilut 37:8) says that one can even use a nail cutter to merely start the cut, and then one does the main part of the cutting by hand or with teeth. On the other hand, the fact that there are different ways to get the job done can create limitations even when other leniencies apply. For example, regarding the permissibility of cutting before going to the mikveh, the Shulchan Aruch (ibid.) requires that she have a non-Jew cut them for her. The Rama (ad loc.) does not see why, if it is not done by the aveila herself, it would make a difference whether a Jew or non-Jew would do it, considering that for even a Jewish cutter, there is no prohibition involved. Therefore, the Rama posits that even the Shulchan Aruch meant just that it be done by someone else, but it could even be a Jew. Among the commentators, some do require specifically a non-Jew to cut (Shach ad loc. 4) whereas some say that the aveila can do it even herself since it is for a mitzva (Taz ad loc. 3), As far as the bottom line, when there is a good reason to be lenient, one may be (Mei’olam V'ad Olam 33:21). One way in which nail cutting is more lenient than haircutting, is according to most opinions, regarding what happens after Shloshim for parents. For haircutting, one must wait until people “criticize” his long hair after Shloshim (Shulchan Aruch ibid. 4). However, R. Akiva Eiger (ad loc.) says that this is not required for nails; rather, it is automatically permitted after Shloshim. (There are dissenters, but the lenient opinion is standard halacha – see Divrei Sofrim 390:44.) Interestingly, though, R. Akiva Eiger’s source (Shut Halachot K’tanot I:113) seems to indicate that the distinction is technical rather than hierarchical. Bedikat Chametz for Guests at a HotelI will be at a hotel for Pesach. When I arrive, a few hours before Pesach, should I do bedikat chametz (=bc), or rely on the hotel to give me a chametz-free room?The gemara (Pesachim 4a) decides that when one rents a house from another Jew before Pesach, the one who has access to it on the night of bc is obligated in bc. So, since you are coming a few hours before Pesach, the hotel is obligated to do bc. The gemara continues with a question – can one who starts renting on erev Pesach assume that the landlord indeed did bc? We rule that one may assume he did bc (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 437:2), but the renter must ask the landlord if he is available. So, ostensibly, if the hotel did not report they did bc, you should inquire. There are a few reasons, though, why this might not be necessary. Arguably, the hashgacha on the hotel includes an assurance that the rooms were properly checked. While this is true in some hotels, there are definitely arrangements where the mashgiach is responsible for the kitchen, whereas non-rabbis are responsible for other proper halachic operation of the hotel. Just like in the gemara’s case one needs to ask a fine landlord whether he did bc, perhaps here too you must ask. Therefore, it is difficult to give clear guidance about unspecified locations. Another sometimes valid point of leniency is that at some hotels, you may have difficulty receiving a credible answer. Will the receptionist know? Will you be able to get hold of the relevant person on this hectic day? Therefore, it may be equivalent to what the gemara calls “he is not around to ask.” While it could be more practical to ask in advance whether the hotel does a halachic bc on the rooms, if he did not, perhaps one there can rely on the assumption they did. The major question is if there was no formal bc done but the hotel can assure you that the room is clean, because a hotel’s job is to provide clean rooms all year long. This should fall under the general rule that a professional will not endanger his professional standing (see Shach, Yoreh Deah 155:3). While no hotel is perfect, a standard bc is not perfect either. But can a chambermaid’s cleaning without a candle and perhaps not on the night of the 14th of Nisan count in lieu of bc? If one checks without the halachically prescribed lighting, he does not have to redo the bc (Shulchan Aruch, OC 433:1 and Mishna Berura 433:6). Also, most of us rely on the serious cleaning we do in the days leading up to Pesach but not with the characteristics of bc, and then do only a cursory bc, which would not uncover most of the chametz if it still existed. This is based on effectively creating places that are assumed to be chametz free (see Living the Halachic Process III, D-15). Remember, that the mitzva of bc was not supposed to fall upon you (outside the one you likely will do at your home – see Living the Halachic Process II:D-14). It is just that there is a possibility that your concern about chametz may make it necessary. The gemara (Pesachim 8a) posits that one does not need to check outdoor areas frequented by chametz-eating animals because he can assume there will not be chametz there. The birds do not fulfill the mitzva of bc for us; they create a place which is excluded from the need of bc. For our purposes, the chambermaid is no worse than the birds. Even if she is not Jewish and cannot be an agent to fulfill the mitzva, she can still eliminate the likelihood of chametz. Gluten-Free Diet and Shabbat ConsiderationsSome family members (including me) are gluten-intolerant, so we have two types of challot and cakes, with and without grain flour. Is the gluten-free type valid for: 1. Completing the Kiddush process; 2. Lechem mishneh; 3. Continuing seuda shlishit that began before sunset?1. Kiddush - The gemara (Pesachim 101a) teaches that we must make Kiddush in a place where a “meal” will follow. That discussion also refers to “tasting” after Kiddush, which implies less than a classic meal. Although some authorities require the tasting to include bread, the Shulchan Aruch (Orach Chayim 273:5) rules that wine satisfies this requirement. The Magen Avraham (273:11) reasons that if wine qualifies, then foods made from one of the “five grains,” which are more meal-like, certainly suffice (OC 273:11). The Pri Megadim (ad loc.) extends this to dates, but most poskim disagree (see Yabia Omer VII, OC 35). Based on the above, one who cannot eat from the “five grains” (many gluten-sensitive people can eat specially cultivated oats) should drink a revi’it of wine or grape juice (Mishna Berura 273:22). When this is not feasible, two minority leniencies are sometimes cited: 1. In cases of need, any food can constitute a “Kiddush meal” (Chayei Adam II:6:22); 2. It suffices that one person involved in the Kiddush eat the requisite food/amount (see B’Tzel HaChochma IV:2). If relying on such positions, it is best to eat something filling/meal-like, which satisfies at least the “spirit of the law.” 2. Lechem Mishneh – Ordinarily, Shabbat meals require two loaves of bread made from halachic grain in a manner that requires Birkat Hamazon (Shulchan Aruch Harav, OC 274:5). However, a gluten-sensitive person should view himself as fulfilling the mitzva of seuda in the best way he can. It is appropriate (not halachically required) for him to use two gluten-free loaves of “bread.” Treating non-five-grain foods as bread has limited halachic precedent. An eiruv chatzeirot requires “bread,” yet that bread may be made from rice or lentils (Shulchan Aruch, OC 366:8). Moreover, the requirement of two loaves is derived from the manna, which was not grain-based, but was still the bread of Israel. Similarly, rice or potato bread can arguably be considered bread for gluten-free dieters (Mishna Berura ad loc. 47). It is also positive to eat or drink something that will have a beracha acharona of me’ein shalosh, which enables him to parallel Birkat HaMazon and mention Shabbat. 3. Seuda shlishit – The gemara (Pesachim 105a) says that one who is eating as Shabbat enters must interrupt his eating to recite Kiddush. It suggests that similarly one who is eating as Shabbat ends would have to interrupt the meal for Havdala. However, the gemara concludes that Havdala does not interrupt eating, but only drinking. This gemara is the basis for the halacha that one who starts seuda shlishit before shki’a may continue (Shulchan Aruch, OC 299:1). Can one continue if he is in the middle of a less than complete Shabbat meal (including bread and Birkat Hamazon)? The Aruch Hashulchan (OC 299:5) says he may not continue. The Shevet Halevi (VIII, 36), keying on the fact that there are legitimate opinions that one does not need to eat bread at seuda shlishit (see Shulchan Aruch, OC 291:5), posits that whatever one uses for seuda shlishit will be important enough to allow you to continue. Therefore, you definitely have whom to rely upon. Actually, non-gluten eaters are better off than others who have seuda shlishit without bread. The Aruch Hashulchan (ibid.), in explaining his stringent opinion, argues that the fact that one did not have bread shows he did not give the meal requisite weight. While one can argue that in contemporary society, where many people rarely eat bread, other serious eating would also count. Regarding health motivated non-gluten dieters, we would expect a near consensus that their regular seuda shlishit would allow them to continue after dark, as the lack of bread is not a sign of a less level meal.
Kittel at the SederI am a recent ba’al teshuva. One of the practices I have not set my minhag for is whether to wear a kittel at the Seder. Can you help me understand the minhag and decide whether to adopt it?Wearing a kittel is associated, for Ashkenazim, with four very different events. Historically, the first is burial (the details of overlap between shrouds and one’s own kittel differ according to communal minhag). In this context, part of the minhag relates to it being inexpensive material (Moed Katan 27b). The cleanliness/purity element of pure white and its connection to the kohanim’s service may also be involved (see Gesher Hachaim I:10). Next, conceptually and historically, is Yom Kippur. The Rama (Orach Chayim 610:4) reports the minhag of wearing a kittel and attributes it to being reminiscent of angels and because its association with burial encourages feeling the need to “humble one’s heart.” From these solemn moments, we pivot to joyous settings. Ashkenazi chatanim wear a kittel at the chupa. Some connect this to cognizance of one’s death and the need for teshuva at this crucial/serious, albeit joyous, moment (see Kitzur Shulchan Aruch 147:4). Others connect it to Yom Kippur’s optimistic side, as they are both days of forgiveness; some mention the hope that the couple are being joined until death (see Nitei Gavriel, Nisuin 15). The Seder-kittel connection is not found in classical Rishonim and Shulchan Aruch/Rama, but early Acharonim were familiar with it. The Magen Avraham (472:2) and Taz (472:3, who implies that some but not all followed the minhag) disagree whether a mourner should wear a kittel at the Seder. The Magen Avraham assumes that the reason is to rein in a possibly over-joyous Seder participant and reasons that the mourner does not require further dampening of the spirit. The Taz considers the possibility that the kittel is to enhance the festive atmosphere, which would be reason for a mourner to avoid increasing already sufficient festivity. However, the Taz prefers the approach that it is to dampen festivity but adopts the opposite philosophical approach from the Magen Avraham. He suggests that it is proper for the mourner to indeed wear the kittel and thereby ensure appropriate somberness. Rav Soloveitchik is cited (Batei Yosef, Haggada p. 90) as giving two additional reasons to wear a kittel at the Seder, both supplying positives. One (invoking the Netziv) focuses on a special element of the Seder. We put ourselves in the mind frame of those who are eating the Korban Pesach as a central part of the celebration, and a white cloak was the type of honorable clothes worn while eating a korban. Another reason, in his father’s name, is that it is one more surprising thing to stimulate a child’s curiosity. The different approaches to the minhag have advantages and disadvantages. It is surprising that with the many mandated Talmudic practices to increase festivity (e.g., four cups of wine, reclining), a late minhag would come to subdue festivity! We do have a concept of the fast of Behab, after Pesach and Sukkot, out of concern that festiveness might have led to sin (Shulchan Aruch, OC 272:1; Mishna Berura ad loc. 1). However, we wait until after Nisan and Tishrei, respectively. On the other hand, the Magen Avraham’s reason connects the minhag more naturally to the other usages of the kittel. Those who do not follow the minhag can be comforted if they find the reasons for this relatively late and not critical minhag not along lines they relate to. In your case, if you follow Ashkenazi minhag¸ you may feel free to choose your preference on whether to wear a kittel at the Seder, or experiment with how you like it (with a stipulation that it is bli neder). There are also various minhagim as to whether it is done only by the one who leads the Seder, or by all married males, which is also a matter with little compelling logic either way. Technical, psychological, philosophical, and sociological (e.g., your peer group’s practice) factors may play a role in your decision. Does One Fix a Mistake in a Complex Al Hamichya?I ate cake and dates and therefore needed to say a Me’ein Shalosh that includes both “al hamichya” and “al pri ha’etz.” While saying the beracha, I forgot about the dates until near the end. At that point, could I have salvaged the beracha by adding “al hapeiort” at the end, or should I have finished the beracha just for the cake and then said a separate beracha acharona for the dates?We start with the possibility you ended off with “Baruch ata … al hamichya v’al hapeirot (peiroteha in Israel).” As a rule, the determinant of a beracha’s efficacy is how it is completed (Berachot 12a). Therefore, presumably with such an ending, you would have been yotzei. However, some poskim say that in this case, it is unclear if fixing this long beracha only at its end will remedy the lacking opening (see Ot Hi L’olam vol. I, p. 35a; Petach Had’vir 208:20). Almost all poskim rule (see ibid.; V’zot Haberacha, p. 47) that after the fact, one should assume he was yotzei due to the proper ending, and not make another beracha on what he left out from the first beracha’s opening, as it would be l’vatala if he was previously yotzei. Because of the doubt involved, some poskim recommend your second option – obviate the question by sticking to a simple Al Hamichya, and do Al Ha’etz afterward (ibid.). It is true that one is required to incorporate both elements that require a beracha in one beracha acharona (see Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chayim 208:12). Presumably, splitting them into two berachot acharonot without justification makes the second one a beracha she’eina tzricha. However, a major rule in beracha she’eina tzricha is that if the ostensibly extra beracha is needed to avoid a halachic doubt, it is no longer unnecessary (see Kaf Hachayim, OC 208:82). Still, though, if there is an easy alternative to obviate the need for an extra beracha, we should use it. The Maharshag (I:53, cited and accepted by Piskei Teshuvot 208:19) indeed has the following simple solution, if caught in time. Go back to the place of the omission, fix it, and continue from there. Admittedly, after “… rachem na Hashem Elokeinu,” backing up means repeating Hashem’s Name. However, even unnecessarily saying Hashem’s Name in the midst of a long beracha is not nearly as problematic as saying Hashem’s Name in what turns out to be a beracha l’vatala. For example, even though it is not critical to say Al Hanisim, if one remembered before he finishes the beracha, he goes back to say it (Shulchan Aruch, OC 682:1), even though this means that he repeats part of the beracha, including Hashem’s Name. (See also Ginot Veradim (I:28) regarding R’tzei in bentching at seuda shlishit after nightfall.) According to the Maharshag, it is too late to go back only if he has said Hashem’s Name at the beracha’s conclusion. The Petach Had’vir (208:15, inspired by his understanding of the Magen Avraham 59:1) has a complicated explanation why it is too late to attach one’s addition of that which he left out to the opening of the beracha with Hashem’s Name. Therefore, he reasons that the best remaining option is to keep the me’ein shalosh focused on the cake and make later on the dates. While the Sdei Chemed (vol. VI, p. 319) and V’zot Haberacha (ibid.) endorse his basic approach, they discuss cases where he did not fix the beracha until close to the end of the beracha (confirmed by a phone call I had with the author of V’zot Haberacha), which might be what makes it improper to go back to the beginning. However, the Petach Had’vir’s opposition is even from the “middle” of the beracha. While it is difficult for me to decide between the opinions in this machloket Acharonim, the Maharshag’s approach seems in line with more mainstream halachic rules. Therefore, I would recommend going back to the place of the omission unless he has said Hashem’s Name at the end of the beracha. Apparently, the Petach Had’vir does not consider this a hefsek, and he agrees that one can assume he was yotzei even if we only count the inclusion of al hapeirot at the end. |
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